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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old female with a history of iron deficiency anemia presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female with a history of iron deficiency anemia presents to the hospital with pain in the right upper quadrant. After diagnosis, she is found to have acute cholecystitis. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the development of gallstones?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      The following factors increase the likelihood of developing gallstones and can be remembered as the ‘5 F’s’:

      – Being overweight (having a body mass index greater than 30 kg/m2)
      – Being female
      – Being of reproductive age
      – Being of fair complexion (Caucasian)
      – Being 40 years of age or older

      Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis is usually made through abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm suspected bile duct stones. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and surgical management for stones in the common bile duct. ERCP may be used to remove bile duct stones, but carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      55.5
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  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old man experiences a pelvic fracture with a complication involving the junction...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man experiences a pelvic fracture with a complication involving the junction of the membranous urethra and bulbar urethra. What is the most probable direction for the leaked urine to flow?

      Your Answer: Into the abdomen

      Correct Answer: Anteriorly into the connective tissues surrounding the scrotum

      Explanation:

      The superficial perineal pouch is a compartment that is bordered superficially by the superficial perineal fascia, deep by the perineal membrane (which is the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm), and laterally by the ischiopubic ramus. It contains various structures such as the crura of the penis or clitoris, muscles, viscera, blood vessels, nerves, the proximal part of the spongy urethra in males, and the greater vestibular glands in females. In cases of urethral rupture, the urine will tend to pass forward because the fascial condensations will prevent the urine from passing laterally and posteriorly.

      The Urogenital Triangle and Superficial Perineal Pouch

      The urogenital triangle is a structure formed by the ischiopubic inferior rami and ischial tuberosities, with a fascial sheet attached to its sides, creating the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm. It serves as a pathway for the urethra in males and both the urethra and vagina in females. The membranous urethra is located deep to this structure and is surrounded by the external urethral sphincter.

      In males, the superficial perineal pouch lies superficial to the urogenital diaphragm and contains the bulb of the penis, crura of the penis, superficial transverse perineal muscle, posterior scrotal arteries, and posterior scrotal nerves. Meanwhile, in females, the internal pudendal artery branches to become the posterior labial arteries in the superficial perineal pouch.

      Understanding the anatomy of the urogenital triangle and superficial perineal pouch is crucial in diagnosing and treating urogenital disorders. Proper knowledge of these structures can aid in the identification of potential issues and the development of effective treatment plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 3 - Which one of the following options in relation to the liver is true...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following options in relation to the liver is true for individuals?

      Your Answer: The caudate lobe is superior to the porta hepatis

      Explanation:

      The ligamentum venosum and caudate lobe are located on the same side as the posterior vena cava. Positioned behind the liver, the ligamentum venosum is situated in the portal triad, which includes the portal vein (not the hepatic vein). The coronary ligament layers create a bare area of the liver, leaving a void. Additionally, the porta hepatis contains both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves.

      Structure and Relations of the Liver

      The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.

      The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.

      The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful lump in her...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful lump in her right groin. Upon examination, a tender swelling is found below and to the side of the pubic tubercle. It exhibits a cough impulse. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Femoral hernia

      Explanation:

      Although a saphena varix thrombophlebitis can result in a sensitive bulge in the affected area, it typically does not produce a cough impulse.

      Understanding the Femoral Canal

      The femoral canal is a fascial tunnel located at the medial aspect of the femoral sheath. It contains both the femoral artery and femoral vein, with the canal lying medial to the vein. The borders of the femoral canal include the femoral vein laterally, the lacunar ligament medially, the inguinal ligament anteriorly, and the pectineal ligament posteriorly.

      The femoral canal plays a significant role in allowing the femoral vein to expand, which facilitates increased venous return to the lower limbs. However, it can also be a site of femoral hernias, which occur when abdominal contents protrude through the femoral canal. The relatively tight neck of the femoral canal places these hernias at high risk of strangulation, making it important to understand the anatomy and function of this structure. Overall, understanding the femoral canal is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating potential issues related to this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man with a carcinoma of the lower third of the oesophagus...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a carcinoma of the lower third of the oesophagus is having an oesophagogastrectomy. During the mobilization of the lower part of the oesophagus, where is the thoracic duct most likely to be encountered by the surgeons?

      Your Answer: Anterior to the oesophagus

      Correct Answer: Posterior to the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The thoracic duct is situated at the back of the oesophagus and takes a leftward course at the Angle of Louis. It joins the aorta at T12 as it enters the thorax.

      The Thoracic Duct: Anatomy and Clinical Significance

      The thoracic duct is a continuation of the cisterna chyli located in the abdomen. It enters the thorax at the level of T12 and runs posterior to the esophagus for most of its intrathoracic course. At T5, it passes to the left side of the body. Lymphatics from the left side of the head and neck join the thoracic duct before it empties into the left brachiocephalic vein. In contrast, lymphatics from the right side of the head and neck drain into the right lymphatic duct, which eventually empties into the right brachiocephalic vein via the mediastinal trunk.

      The thoracic duct’s location in the thorax makes it vulnerable to injury during oesophageal surgery. To avoid damaging the duct, some surgeons apply cream to patients before oesophagectomy to help identify the cut ends of the duct. Understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the thoracic duct is essential for healthcare professionals involved in thoracic surgery and lymphatic drainage disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with persistent watery diarrhea. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with persistent watery diarrhea. Upon examination, the patient's blood work reveals hypokalemia and an increased level of serum vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). The physician informs the patient that the elevated VIP levels in their blood may be the cause of their diarrhea. As a medical student, the patient asks you about the functions of VIP. Can you identify one of its functions?

      Your Answer: Inhibits acid secretion by stimulating somatostatin production

      Explanation:

      VIPoma, also known as Verner-Morrison syndrome, can be diagnosed based on symptoms such as prolonged diarrhea, hypokalemia, dehydration, and elevated levels of VIP. VIP is produced by the small intestines and pancreas and works by stimulating the release of somatostatin, which in turn inhibits acid secretion. On the other hand, gastrin promotes the release of acid from parietal cells. The other answers provided are incorrect.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      105.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman came in with a 7-month history of upper abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman came in with a 7-month history of upper abdominal pain and nausea. She reported no weight loss. An upper GI endoscopy showed mild gastritis, but her symptoms persisted even after a 3-month course of proton pump inhibitors. A CT scan was done and revealed a probable gastrinoma. Which type of cell does the hormone produced by this tumor target to stimulate acid secretion?

      Your Answer: Chief cell

      Correct Answer: Parietal cell

      Explanation:

      The secretion of H+ by gastric parietal cells is increased by gastrin.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      84.7
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  • Question 8 - A 15-year-old boy, with a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, is showing symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy, with a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, is showing symptoms of hepatic dysfunction. Upon conducting liver function tests, it is found that he has elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin. After genetic testing, it is confirmed that he has Gilbert's syndrome. What is the reason behind the increased levels of unconjugated bilirubin in Gilbert's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin

      Correct Answer: Reduced levels of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-1

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is characterized by a decrease in UDP glucuronosyltransferase levels.
      Enhanced drug effects can occur due to reduced warfarin metabolism caused by CYP2C9 deficiency.
      Elevated GGT levels are often caused by pancreatic disease, cholestasis, excessive alcohol consumption, and certain medications.
      Dubin-Johnson syndrome is associated with defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin.
      Disordered metabolism of clopidogrel and other drugs, including proton-pump inhibitors, anticonvulsants, and sedatives, can result from reduced CYP2C19 levels.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      77.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old woman experiences repeated episodes of biliary colic. How much bile enters...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman experiences repeated episodes of biliary colic. How much bile enters the duodenum in a day, approximately?

      Your Answer: 50 mL

      Correct Answer: 500 mL

      Explanation:

      The small bowel receives a daily supply of bile ranging from 500 mL to 1.5 L, with the majority of bile salts being reused through the enterohepatic circulation. The contraction of the gallbladder results in a lumenal pressure of around 25 cm water, which can cause severe pain in cases of biliary colic.

      Bile is a liquid that is produced in the liver at a rate of 500ml to 1500mL per day. It is made up of bile salts, bicarbonate, cholesterol, steroids, and water. The flow of bile is regulated by three factors: hepatic secretion, gallbladder contraction, and sphincter of oddi resistance. Bile salts are absorbed in the terminal ileum and are recycled up to six times a day, with over 90% of all bile salts being recycled.

      There are two types of bile salts: primary and secondary. Primary bile salts include cholate and chenodeoxycholate, while secondary bile salts are formed by bacterial action on primary bile salts and include deoxycholate and lithocholate. Deoxycholate is reabsorbed, while lithocholate is insoluble and excreted.

      Gallstones can form when there is an excess of cholesterol in the bile. Bile salts have a detergent action and form micelles, which have a lipid center that transports fats. However, excessive amounts of cholesterol cannot be transported in this way and will precipitate, resulting in the formation of cholesterol-rich gallstones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is not a branch of the abdominal aorta? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a branch of the abdominal aorta?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Correct Answer: Superior phrenic artery

      Explanation:

      To remember the order of branches, use the phrase ‘Prostitutes Cause Sagging Swollen Red Testicles [in men] Living In Sin’:

      Phrenic [inferior]
      Celiac
      Superior mesenteric
      Suprarenal [middle]
      Renal
      Testicular [‘in men’ only]
      Lumbars
      Inferior mesenteric
      Sacral

      Note that the superior phrenic artery branches from the aorta in the thorax.

      Branches of the Abdominal Aorta

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.

      The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.

      The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.

      Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      53.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (4/10) 40%
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