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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner having been feeling unwell for...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner having been feeling unwell for a few days with a persistent cough.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 120–160 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 18 × 109/l 4.5–11.0 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 12 × 109/l 2.0–7.5 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 450 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      A blood film shows atypical lymphocytes.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

      Correct Answer: Acute bacterial infection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Abnormal Full Blood Count Results

      When a patient presents with abnormal full blood count (FBC) results, it is important to consider a range of potential diagnoses. In this case, the patient has neutrophilia and atypical lymphocytes, indicating an acute bacterial infection. Other potential diagnoses, such as chronic myeloid leukaemia, tuberculosis, cytomegalovirus infection, and pregnancy, can be ruled out based on the absence of key symptoms and blood film findings. Clinical prediction scores can be used to aid in antibiotic stewardship. It is important to consider all potential diagnoses and conduct further testing as needed to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      75
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man is receiving treatment at the Haematology Clinic for multiple myeloma...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is receiving treatment at the Haematology Clinic for multiple myeloma (MM). He is a newly diagnosed non-transplant candidate.
      Various blood tests are being conducted to monitor response to treatment and determine prognosis.
      What is considered the most crucial factor for predicting survival and prognosis?

      Your Answer: C-Reactive protein (CRP)

      Correct Answer: Beta-2 microglobulin

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors in Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. Prognostic factors are important in determining the severity of the disease and predicting survival rates. Here are some key factors to consider:

      Beta-2 microglobulin: This protein is found on the surface of all nucleated cells and is associated with the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)–histocompatibility complex. Elevated levels of serum beta-2 microglobulin are linked to poor prognosis in multiple myeloma patients.

      Serum creatinine: High levels of creatinine indicate renal impairment, which is common in multiple myeloma patients and is associated with a poor prognosis.

      Albumin: Low levels of albumin are related to the extent of myeloma proliferation and are therefore of diagnostic and prognostic importance. An albumin level of 29.0 g/l or less is a sign of advanced disease.

      C-Reactive protein (CRP): Elevated CRP levels before autologous stem-cell transplantation (ASCT) are associated with worse overall survival in multiple myeloma patients, especially those who had a transplant more than 12 months after diagnosis.

      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): High LDH levels at the time of diagnosis are a marker of poor prognosis in multiple myeloma patients. Increased LDH is associated with worse overall survival, progression-free survival, aggressive disease, and high tumor burden.

      Understanding these prognostic factors can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about treatment options and provide patients with more accurate information about their disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      200.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of unexplained weight loss...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of unexplained weight loss and vague symptoms. During the examination, the GP detects a suspicious lump on her neck and refers her urgently to ENT. To expedite the process, the GP conducts several investigations and observes a significant elevation in calcitonin levels. Which type of cancer is associated with calcitonin as a tumor marker?

      Your Answer: Medullary thyroid cancer

      Explanation:

      The presence of calcitonin in the blood can indicate the presence of medullary thyroid cancer, as this type of cancer originates from the parafollicular cells that produce calcitonin. Therefore, calcitonin is considered a tumor marker for medullary thyroid cancer.

      Understanding Tumour Markers

      Tumour markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are often used to help diagnose and monitor cancer, as well as to determine the effectiveness of treatment. Tumour markers can be divided into different categories, including monoclonal antibodies against carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens, tumour antigens, enzymes, and hormones.

      Monoclonal antibodies are used to target specific tumour antigens, which are proteins or other molecules that are found on the surface of cancer cells. Some common tumour markers include CA 125 for ovarian cancer, CA 19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and CA 15-3 for breast cancer. However, it is important to note that tumour markers usually have a low specificity, meaning that they can also be found in people without cancer.

      Tumour antigens are proteins that are produced by cancer cells and can be detected in the blood or tissues of people with cancer. Some examples of tumour antigens include prostate specific antigen (PSA) for prostatic carcinoma, alpha-feto protein (AFP) for hepatocellular carcinoma and teratoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer.

      Enzymes and hormones can also be used as tumour markers. For example, alkaline phosphatase and neurone specific enolase are enzymes that can be elevated in people with cancer, while hormones such as calcitonin and ADH can be used to detect certain types of cancer.

      In summary, tumour markers are an important tool in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer. However, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and imaging studies, as they are not always specific to cancer and can also be elevated in people without cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 4 - A 47-year-old man is seen by his General Practitioner for his annual hypertension...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man is seen by his General Practitioner for his annual hypertension review. He agrees to be referred to the local smoking cessation service, as he is currently experiencing chest pain.
      Which of the following medications will need to be monitored closely on cessation of smoking?

      Your Answer: Theophylline

      Explanation:

      The Effect of Smoking Cessation on Asthma Medications

      Smoking cessation can have a significant impact on the management of asthma and the use of certain medications. Here is a breakdown of how smoking cessation affects different asthma medications:

      Theophylline: Smoking induces the hepatic enzyme CYP1A2, which plays a major role in metabolizing theophylline. Therefore, quitting smoking can lead to higher plasma levels of theophylline and potentially fatal arrhythmias. Patients need to have their plasma theophylline concentration levels monitored closely and may require a reduced dose after quitting smoking.

      Budesonide/formoterol: Neither budesonide nor formoterol are metabolized by CYP1A2, so there is no need for close monitoring following smoking cessation. Asthma control should improve after quitting smoking, and the inhaler dose should be reviewed as part of stepwise management.

      Montelukast: Montelukast is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system but not CYP1A2, so smoking cessation does not affect its level.

      Prednisolone: Prednisolone is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system, but CYP1A2 is not involved. Therefore, smoking cessation does not affect its metabolism.

      Salbutamol: Smoking cessation can improve asthma control, leading to less frequent use of salbutamol or other reliever inhalers. There is no need to monitor this closely as reducing the as-required use of this medication poses no risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman who recently finished a round of chemotherapy reports experiencing tingling...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman who recently finished a round of chemotherapy reports experiencing tingling sensations and difficulty using her hands. Additionally, she has noticed hesitancy in her urinary function. Which specific cytotoxic medication is the likely culprit for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide

      Correct Answer: Vincristine

      Explanation:

      Peripheral neuropathy is a known side effect of Vincristine. Additionally, bladder atony may cause urinary hesitancy.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      39.2
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  • Question 6 - A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the accident and emergency department after a fracture of her right femur associated with a minor fall. On reviewing the films with the on-call radiographer you are concerned about a lytic lesion possibly being related to the fracture.
      Which of the following primary tumours most commonly metastasises to bone?

      Your Answer: Colorectal carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Metastasis Patterns of Common Carcinomas

      Carcinomas are malignant tumors that can spread to other parts of the body through a process called metastasis. The patterns of metastasis vary depending on the type of carcinoma. Here are some common carcinomas and their typical metastasis patterns:

      Bronchial Carcinoma: This type of carcinoma often spreads to the bone or brain. Symptoms may include difficulty breathing, coughing, chest pain, weight loss, and fatigue.

      Brain Carcinoma: Primary malignant brain tumors rarely spread to other parts of the body, but they can spread to surrounding areas of the brain and spinal cord.

      Renal Carcinoma: Renal cancers commonly metastasize to the lungs, producing lesions that appear like cannonballs on a chest X-ray. They can also spread to the bone, causing osteolytic lesions.

      Gastric Carcinoma: Gastric cancers tend to spread to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.

      Colorectal Carcinoma: Colorectal cancers commonly metastasize to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.

      Understanding the patterns of metastasis for different types of carcinomas can help with early detection and treatment. If you experience any symptoms or have concerns, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      117.2
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  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old man with a 12-year history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease presents with...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a 12-year history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease presents with dysphagia. Upon endoscopy, an obstructive lesion is observed that is highly suspicious of oesophageal cancer. What is the expected result of the biopsy?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s esophagus are linked to the development of oesophageal adenocarcinoma.

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.

      Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.

      The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.

      Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.

      Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      89.8
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  • Question 8 - A 76-year-old male with a history of COPD and metastatic lung cancer is...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old male with a history of COPD and metastatic lung cancer is admitted with worsening shortness of breath. After consulting with family, it is determined that active treatment, including fluids and antibiotics, will be withdrawn as this admission is likely a terminal event. However, two days later, the patient becomes restless and agitated. What is the best course of action in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Subcutaneous midazolam

      Explanation:

      Palliative Care Prescribing for Agitation and Confusion

      When dealing with agitation and confusion in palliative care patients, it is important to identify and treat any underlying causes such as hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, or medication. If these specific treatments fail, medication can be used to manage symptoms. Haloperidol is the first choice for treating agitation and confusion, with chlorpromazine and levomepromazine as alternative options. In the terminal phase of the illness, midazolam is the preferred medication for managing agitation or restlessness. Proper management of these symptoms can greatly improve the quality of life for palliative care patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      34.4
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  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old man presents to the Nephrology Clinic with an estimated glomerular filtration...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the Nephrology Clinic with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 3 ml/min/1.73 m2. He is already undergoing renal replacement therapy. He also presents with worsening anaemia.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythropoietin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Causes of Anaemia in End-Stage Renal Failure Patients

      Anaemia is a common complication in patients with end-stage renal failure, primarily due to a decrease in the production of erythropoietin by the kidneys. Other causes of anaemia can include folate and vitamin B12 deficiency, uraemic inhibitors, and reduced half-life of circulating blood cells. The prevalence of anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) increases as eGFR levels decrease, with a prevalence of 12% in CKD patients. Folate deficiency and iron deficiency can also cause anaemia, but in this case, the anaemia is more likely related to poor kidney function. Deficiencies in granulocyte colony-stimulating factor and pyridoxine are less likely causes of anaemia in end-stage renal failure patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the frequency of the cervical cancer screening program in England for...

    Incorrect

    • What is the frequency of the cervical cancer screening program in England for women over 50 years old?

      Your Answer: 25-49 years - 5-yearly screening; 50-64 years - 3-yearly screening

      Correct Answer: 25-49 years - 3-yearly screening; 50-64 years - 5-yearly screening

      Explanation:

      In England, cervical cancer screening is recommended every 3 years for women aged 25-49 and every 5 years for women aged 50-64.

      Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK

      Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect pre-malignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that around 15% of cervical adenocarcinomas are frequently undetected by screening.

      The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification, and the NHS has now moved to an HPV first system. This means that a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. However, cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.

      In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months post-partum, unless there are missed screenings or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.

      It is recommended to take a cervical smear around mid-cycle, although there is limited evidence to support this advice. Overall, the UK’s cervical cancer screening program is an essential tool in preventing cervical cancer and promoting women’s health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      27
      Seconds

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Haematology/Oncology (5/10) 50%
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