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Question 1
Correct
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As a healthcare professional working in a GP practice, your next patient is a thirteen-month-old boy who has not yet started walking. His mother is worried because he has had six nosebleeds in the past two weeks, which have stopped on their own after basic first aid.
The child's medical history is unremarkable, and he has no known allergies or regular medications. During the examination, you observe a lethargic-looking child with a normal heart rate and tympanic temperature. Upon inspecting his nose, there are no visible abnormalities, and his tonsils are slightly enlarged.
What is the most appropriate course of action to manage this situation?Your Answer: Fast-track referral to Paediatrics
Explanation:Understanding Epistaxis in Children
Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, are common in children and can be caused by various factors. The most common cause is nose picking, followed by the presence of a foreign body, upper respiratory tract infections, and allergic rhinitis. However, it is important to note that children under the age of 2 years should be referred to a healthcare professional as epistaxis is rare in this age group and may be a result of trauma or bleeding disorders. It is crucial to understand the underlying cause of epistaxis in children to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications. Proper education and guidance on how to prevent nose picking and the importance of seeking medical attention for any underlying conditions can help reduce the incidence of epistaxis in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Correct
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A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic presents with several weeks of orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, and swollen ankles. His wife brings him in for examination. On assessment, he has bilateral basal crepitations and a resting heart rate of 110 beats per minute. An ECG shows sinus rhythm. Echocardiography confirms a diagnosis of heart failure. Despite receiving optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor and furosemide, he remains symptomatic and tachycardic.
Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding his further management?Your Answer: He should be started on a beta-blocker
Explanation:The Importance of Beta-Blockers in Heart Failure Management
Heart failure is a serious condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Current guidance recommends the use of beta-blockers in all patients with symptomatic heart failure and an LVEF ≤40%, where tolerated and not contra-indicated. Beta-blockers have been shown to increase ejection fraction, improve exercise tolerance, and reduce morbidity, mortality, and hospital admissions.
It is important to note that beta-blockers should be initiated even if a patient is already stabilized on other drugs. While diuretics can be used to control initial oedema, the mainstay of treatment for heart failure is ACE inhibitors and beta-blockade. Digoxin and spironolactone have a place in heart failure management, but they are not first or second line treatments.
For severe heart failure, biventricular pacing with an implantable defibrillator can be useful. Overall, the use of beta-blockers is crucial in the management of heart failure and should be considered in all eligible patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year old woman with a 25 year history of recurrent depression.
She has no symptoms of depression and is well maintained on phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI).
Which one of the following substances can safely be taken in conjunction with MAOIs?Your Answer: Paracetamol
Correct Answer: Red wine
Explanation:MAOIs and the Cheese Reaction
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a type of medication used to treat depression and anxiety. However, they can have serious side effects if not taken with caution. One of these side effects is the cheese reaction, which occurs when foods high in tyramine are consumed while taking MAOIs. Tyramine is not metabolized due to MAO inhibition, causing it to enter the bloodstream and release noradrenaline, leading to severe hypertension. This reaction is called the cheese reaction because many cheeses are rich in tyramine.
It is important to note that paracetamol is safe to take with MAOIs, but other drugs and certain food and drink should be avoided. The early MAOIs irreversibly inhibit monoamine oxidase, but newer ones like moclobemide are reversible and safer. However, MAOIs are rarely prescribed in general practice. To avoid the cheese reaction, it is crucial to avoid foodstuffs high in tyramine, and a full list can be found in the accompanying leaflet to the prescribed drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman in the third trimester of her first pregnancy presents with pruritus and a few blisters on her abdomen, including around her umbilicus and upper thighs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pemphigoid gestationis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions During Pregnancy
Pregnancy can bring about various changes in a woman’s body, including changes in the skin. Here are some common skin conditions that may occur during pregnancy:
1. Pemphigoid Gestationis (Herpes Gestationis)
This rare bullous disorder is caused by circulating immunoglobulin G (IgG) autoantibodies similar to those found in bullous pemphigoid. It usually appears in the second trimester but can occur at any stage and may even worsen postpartum. Symptoms include extremely itchy urticarial papules and blisters on the abdomen and trunk, which may become generalized.2. Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy (Pruritic Urticarial Papules and Plaques of Pregnancy)
This benign dermatosis typically arises late in the third trimester of a first pregnancy or in multiple pregnancies. Itchy erythematous papules and plaques first appear on abdominal striae and then spread to the trunk and proximal limbs. The umbilicus is usually spared.3. Pregnancy Prurigo
Prurigo of pregnancy presents as scattered, itchy/scratched papules at any stage of pregnancy. It is often mistaken for scabies but doesn’t respond to antiscabetic agents. Emollients and topical corticosteroids may help.4. Pruritus (Cholestatic) of Pregnancy
Cholestatic pruritis appears as unexplained pruritus during the second and third trimesters, with raised blood levels of bile acids and/or liver enzymes. It typically starts in the soles of the feet and palms of the hands and progresses to the trunk and face.5. Scabies
Although rare, bullous lesions have been reported in scabies. However, this is not the most common cause of this presentation.It is important to consult a healthcare provider if any skin changes or symptoms occur during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 40-year-old police officer attends his General Practitioner to request screening for hepatitis B. He was exposed to blood from a person possibly infected with hepatitis B virus around three weeks ago. He has never been vaccinated against this and requests blood screening. He feels well and has no comorbidities.
What is the most important test to perform at this stage?
Your Answer: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
Explanation:Hepatitis B Markers: Understanding the Different Types
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is important to detect and monitor the different markers associated with the disease to determine the stage of infection and the appropriate treatment. Here are the different types of hepatitis B markers and their significance:
1. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) – This is the first marker to appear in the serum after infection. It indicates the presence of the viral envelope and can be detected between one to nine weeks after infection. Its persistence indicates chronic hepatitis B.
2. Anti-hepatitis B envelope antigen (anti-HBeAg) – This antibody appears after the clearance of the e antigen, signifying the resolution of the acute phase.
3. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) – This marker develops during the early phases of the acute infection and can persist in chronic infections. It is associated with high levels of viral replication and infectivity.
4. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody stays positive for life following infection with hepatitis B, even once cleared.
5. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody confirms the diagnosis of acute infection but is detectable later than HBsAg.
Understanding these markers is crucial in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B. Regular monitoring of these markers can help determine the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of worsening vision in his right eye. He has a history of being human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive. During the examination, the doctor observes a few distinct, raised, yellowish growths with unclear edges close to the optic disc of his right eye. What is the probable reason for the lesion observed in this individual?
Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Ocular Manifestations of Infectious Diseases
Choroidal tubercles, toxocariasis, Kaposi’s sarcoma, syphilis, and toxoplasmosis are all infectious diseases that can manifest in the eye. Choroidal tubercles are a common presentation of intraocular tuberculosis, while toxocariasis is caused by roundworm larvae migration and can lead to ocular larva migrans. Kaposi’s sarcoma presents as highly vascular lesions on the eyelids, conjunctiva, caruncle, and lacrimal sac. Syphilis can cause optic neuritis, uveitis, and interstitial keratitis, while toxoplasmosis can lead to chorioretinitis and vitreous inflammation. It is important to consider these infectious diseases in patients presenting with ocular symptoms and to evaluate for systemic involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old otherwise healthy man comes to his General Practitioner with a 4-day history of a sore throat. It is painful to swallow but he is able to maintain his fluid intake. He is afebrile and has a mild cough. On examination, his tonsils are severely inflamed bilaterally but there is no exudate. There is tender cervical lymphadenopathy present.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: A delayed prescription for phenoxymethylpenicillin should be given
Correct Answer: An antibiotic is not indicated
Explanation:Antibiotic Decision Making in a Case of Tonsillitis
Explanation:
When it comes to treating tonsillitis, the decision to prescribe antibiotics should be based on the severity of the infection and the presence of certain criteria. The Centor criteria, which include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough, can help determine if streptococcal infection is present. A FeverPAIN score can also be used to assess the severity of tonsillitis.
In the case of an otherwise healthy, afebrile patient with a Centor score of one for lymphadenopathy and a FeverPAIN score of one for severe tonsil inflammation, antibiotics are not indicated. However, if the condition doesn’t improve or worsens, a reassessment should be offered.
Admission to the hospital for fluids is not necessary if the patient is able to maintain fluid intake despite painful swallowing and shows no other signs of systemic illness.
If antibiotics are deemed necessary, a delayed prescription for phenoxymethylpenicillin may be given if the FeverPAIN score is two or three. Clarithromycin may be prescribed as a second-line option if there is a true penicillin allergy and group A streptococcus is suspected as the cause, based on a FeverPAIN score of four or five or Centor score of three or four. Phenoxymethylpenicillin would be the first-line option in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic after receiving a positive pregnancy test. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and this is her second pregnancy. During her first pregnancy, she had gestational diabetes. She has no medical conditions and no family history of diabetes or hypertension. Her BMI is 23 kg/m². As per the current NICE guidelines, what investigation should be arranged in primary care?
Your Answer: Arrange an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first OGTT is normal
Explanation:For women who have had gestational diabetes in a previous pregnancy, it is recommended that they undergo an OGTT as soon as possible after their initial booking, and then again at 24-28 weeks. If the first test is normal, they may also be offered early self-monitoring of blood glucose as an alternative. Women who have other risk factors for gestational diabetes, such as a BMI over 30 kg/m², a previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or more, a first degree relative with diabetes, or a minority ethnic family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes, but no previous history of gestational diabetes, should be offered an OGTT at 24-28 weeks.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 9
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding benign rolandic epilepsy is incorrect?
Your Answer: Typically occurs between the age of 1 and 3 years
Explanation:Understanding Benign Rolandic Epilepsy
Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that commonly affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that usually occur at night and are typically partial, affecting only certain parts of the body such as the face. However, in some cases, the seizures may progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.
One of the key diagnostic features of benign rolandic epilepsy is the presence of centrotemporal spikes on an electroencephalogram (EEG). This test measures the electrical activity in the brain and can help doctors identify the specific type of epilepsy a child may have.
Fortunately, the prognosis for children with benign rolandic epilepsy is excellent. Most children will outgrow their seizures by the time they reach adolescence. While the condition can be concerning for parents, it is important to remember that it is a relatively mild form of epilepsy and doesn’t typically cause any long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman complains she has been feeling generally unwell for several weeks. She reports a relapsing pain in her left ankle for the last four weeks following a 2-week history of diarrhoea. Over the last two weeks, she has also developed lower back pain. On further questioning, she mentions that for the last few days she has noticed painful nodules over her shins. Her full blood count and kidney and liver function tests are all normal. An autoimmune screen is negative.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Reactive Arthritis from Other Arthropathies
Reactive arthritis is an autoimmune condition that occurs as a response to an infection. It typically develops 2-4 weeks after a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection and presents with joint pain, malaise, and fever. However, it is important to differentiate reactive arthritis from other arthropathies based on their unique features.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy that affects the axial skeleton and doesn’t present with ankle pain or erythema nodosum. Psoriatic arthritis is associated with psoriatic lesions and presents with joint swelling in the knees, ankles, hands, and feet, but the rash described in this case is typical for erythema nodosum, not psoriasis. Rheumatic fever is a complication of an untreated streptococcal throat infection and can affect the heart and nervous system, but the patient in this case has symptoms of a gastrointestinal infection preceding her joint pain. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory autoimmune condition that affects the small joints of the hands and feet and tends to have bilateral symmetrical distribution of joint involvement, unlike in this case where there is unilateral ankle pain.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history and symptoms is necessary to accurately diagnose reactive arthritis and differentiate it from other arthropathies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Mrs. Smith is a 65-year-old lady who has been prescribed once-daily insulin for her type 2 diabetes by the secondary care diabetes team a few months ago. During her routine medication review, you observe that she is not utilizing many lancets or blood sugar (BM) testing strips. She confesses to not checking her sugars every day. You inquire if she drives; she frequently uses the car for running errands around town.
What guidance should you provide to Mrs. Smith regarding blood glucose (BM) monitoring and driving?Your Answer: Check BM before driving
Correct Answer: Check BM before driving and every 2 hours of the journey subsequently
Explanation:Patients taking diabetes medication that can cause hypoglycaemia, such as insulin and sulphonylureas, must check their blood glucose levels (BM) before driving and every two hours during long journeys. It is incorrect to assume that BM checks are not necessary for journeys under 30 minutes, as patients on insulin must always check their BM before driving, even for short distances. Patients should not omit their diabetes medication due to driving, as this can be dangerous. If a patient’s BM is less than 4mmol/l, they should not drive and must treat the hypoglycaemia before waiting at least 45 minutes for their BM to normalise to over 5mmol/l before driving again. If their BM is between 4mmol/l and 5mmol/l, they should have a snack.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman presents with an acutely painful red left eye. She denies any history of foreign body injury and has had no coryzal symptoms. There is a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus which is currently controlled with hydroxychloroquine. The patient is afebrile and examination reveals an erythematous injected sclera with a bluish hue. The pupils are equal and reactive and the visual acuity is maintained bilaterally. There is no significant discharge noted.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:Based on the patient’s history of autoimmune disease, severe pain and redness in the eye, and bluish hue, it is likely that they are experiencing scleritis. This is a serious condition that requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. Episcleritis, which is less severe and typically painless, can be ruled out due to the patient’s symptoms. Acute angle closure glaucoma is also a possibility, but the patient’s clear and reactive pupils suggest otherwise. It is important to check the intraocular pressure to rule out glaucoma. While a foreign body injury is a potential cause of eye pain and redness, the lack of a history of eye injury and absence of discharge make this diagnosis less likely.
Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Other common symptoms include watering and photophobia, which is sensitivity to light. In some cases, scleritis can also lead to a gradual decrease in vision.
Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man presents with ongoing angina attacks despite being on atenolol 100 mg od for his known ischaemic heart disease. On examination, his cardiovascular system appears normal with a pulse of 72 bpm and a blood pressure of 158/96 mmHg. What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?
Your Answer: Add isosorbide mononitrate 30 mg bd
Correct Answer: Add nifedipine MR 30 mg od
Explanation:When beta-blocker monotherapy is insufficient in controlling angina, NICE guidelines suggest incorporating a calcium channel blocker. However, verapamil is not recommended while taking a beta-blocker, and diltiazem should be used with caution due to the possibility of bradycardia. The initial dosage for isosorbide mononitrate is twice daily at 10 mg.
Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with chronic pain is undergoing evaluation. The effectiveness of pain management strategies is discussed with her, but she expresses doubt about the data. Upon closer examination, studies are presented that include a visual pain scale with paired data before and after non-pharmacological interventions are implemented. The data reveals a negative skew towards reduced pain levels with the use of non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
What statistical test would be appropriate to demonstrate the efficacy of this approach in managing pain?Your Answer: Pearson's product-moment coefficient
Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test
Explanation:When the data sets are not normally distributed, non-parametric tests are more suitable. This is evident in the negative skew of the data being analyzed. As there is a comparison of paired data pre- and post-intervention, a non-parametric test is necessary.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 15
Incorrect
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When managing women of any age and non-menstruating men who present with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia, what is the threshold haemoglobin level that should prompt urgent referral?
Your Answer: 120 g/L for men and 100 g/L for women
Correct Answer: 120 g/L for men and women
Explanation:Iron Deficiency Anaemia and its Possible Causes
Iron deficiency anaemia is a condition that can be diagnosed through a low serum ferritin, red cell microcytosis, and hypochromia. It is often caused by gastrointestinal issues such as colonic cancer, gastric cancer, and coeliac disease. To determine the underlying cause, patients should undergo a PR examination, urine testing, and coeliac screen.
In some cases, unexplained iron deficiency anaemia can be an early indication of an underlying malignancy. Menorrhagia may also cause iron deficiency in women of childbearing age, but a detailed history should be taken to rule out other possible causes. Any man or non-menstruating woman presenting with anaemia should be referred for urgent investigation. It is important to understand the appropriate referral thresholds and look out for additional red flags that may warrant referral.
It is important to note that while occult bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract is a common cause of iron deficiency anaemia, blood loss may also occur through other means, such as urological cancers. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all possible causes and conduct thorough investigations to determine the underlying issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week history of intense itching. Papules and burrows can be seen between his fingers.
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Permethrin 5% preparation
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies and Head Lice
Scabies is a skin condition characterized by intense itching and visible burrows in the finger webs. The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, which should be applied to all household members and followed by washing of bedding and towels. If permethrin cannot be used due to allergy, malathion 0.5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment. Benzyl benzoate 25% emulsion is an older treatment for scabies and has been replaced by more effective methods.
On the other hand, head lice can be treated with permethrin 1%, which is not strong enough for scabies treatment. It is important to note that ivermectin 200 µg/kg orally is only used for crusted scabies, which causes a generalized rash with lots of scale. Topical permethrin remains the ideal treatment for scabies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Correct
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What childhood condition can be a result of adenovirus infection?
Your Answer: Acute bronchiolitis
Explanation:Childhood Illnesses Caused by Adenovirus
Adenovirus is a common cause of childhood illnesses, including upper respiratory tract infections, otitis media, acute bronchiolitis, obliterative bronchiolitis, pneumonia, diarrhea, meningitis, encephalitis, hepatitis, urinary tract infections, and nonspecific febrile illnesses. It is important to note that adenovirus is not the cause of glandular fever, Kawasaki disease, roseola infantum, or scarlet fever. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein-Barr virus, the exact cause of Kawasaki disease is unknown, roseola infantum is caused by human herpesvirus 6, and scarlet fever is due to Streptococcus pyogenes infection. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the symptoms of these illnesses and seek medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl is seen for review with her mother. She has been seen on several occasions over the last 2-3 months, feeling increasingly tired and weak.
The last occasion was about two weeks ago when she was diagnosed with gastroenteritis. Her mother says this seems to have settle but she still complains of feeling generally weak and tired. She thinks she has lost weight.
A colleague of yours had requested some blood tests and you can see there is a normal full blood count, liver function, thyroid function, and anti-TTG results on the computer system. Her renal function is normal with a low sodium being the only result outside of normal range.
On examination: the child looks thin and a little pale. There is no fever, or rashes. She is not breathless or in pain. Her blood glucose is 4.1 mmol/L. Her heart sounds are normal and her chest is clear. There is no lymphadenopathy or organomegaly.
Which of the following clinical features is most likely be present on further examination of this patient?Your Answer: Hyperpigmentation of mucous membranes
Explanation:Understanding Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a rare condition that occurs due to adrenal insufficiency, with the most common cause being autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. It affects a small percentage of the population, making it difficult to diagnose due to its vague symptoms. Symptoms can range from sudden acute crises triggered by concurrent illness or stress to chronic nonspecific symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and muscle weakness. Differential diagnoses should be considered, including type 1 diabetes, eating disorders, and chronic fatigue syndrome.
In this case, a child with chronic vague symptoms was examined, and blood results revealed hyponatremia and low glucose levels, which are common in Addison’s disease. Other symptoms such as postural hypotension, jaundice, peripheral edema, and inflammatory arthropathy were ruled out. Hyperpigmentation is a common feature of Addison’s disease, which develops due to increased ACTH production and usually affects sun-exposed areas, recent scar sites, pressure points, palmar creases, and mucous membranes. It is important to have a high degree of suspicion when considering a diagnosis of Addison’s disease due to its rarity and vague symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a lump on her upper eyelid that she has noticed recently. The lump is not causing any discomfort. Upon examination, a 6mm firm lump is observed that distorts the eyelid margin and causes loss of eyelashes. The lump appears to be slightly ulcerated. What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Advise to apply a warm compress for 5-10 minutes at least twice per day
Correct Answer: Arrange a 2 week referral
Explanation:A possible meibomian cyst is suggested by the patient’s history. These cysts typically develop slowly over several weeks, resulting in a firm, localized swelling of the eyelid. While there may be initial discomfort, pain and tenderness are usually absent. Meibomian cysts are most commonly found on the upper eyelid and are typically 2-8 mm in diameter.
When the eyelid is turned inside out, a meibomian cyst appears as a distinct, immobile, circular, yellowish lump (lipogranuloma). In the acute phase, it may appear inflamed, tender, and red. The skin overlying the cyst is usually normal and freely movable, while the meibomian cyst itself adheres to the tarsal plate. There should be no associated ulceration, bleeding, telangiectasia, or discharge.
Warm compresses and massage are the first-line treatments for meibomian cysts. Topical or oral antibiotics should not be used.
If a malignant eyelid tumor is suspected, such as if the meibomian cyst has an unusual appearance (such as distortion of the eyelid margin, loss of eyelashes, ulceration, or bleeding) or if a suspected meibomian cyst recurs in the same location, NICE recommends arranging a 2-week wait referral. As a result, the correct answer is a 2-week referral.
Source: CKS
According to the April 2016 feedback report, candidates should be familiar with the presentation and management of common eye conditions, as well as less common eye conditions that require urgent attention.
Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues such as blepharitis, styes, chalazions, entropion, and ectropion. Blepharitis is an inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Styes are infections that occur in the glands of the eyelids, with external styes affecting the sebum-producing glands and internal styes affecting the Meibomian glands. Chalazions, also known as Meibomian cysts, are retention cysts that present as painless lumps in the eyelid. While most cases of chalazions resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.
When it comes to managing styes, there are different types to consider. External styes are usually caused by a staphylococcal infection in the glands of Zeis or Moll, while internal styes are caused by an infection in the Meibomian glands. Treatment typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only recommended if there is an associated conjunctivitis.
Overall, eyelid problems can be uncomfortable and even painful, but with proper management and treatment, they can be resolved effectively. It’s important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 20
Correct
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You are asked to evaluate a 20-year-old man who has been experiencing recurrent pneumothoraces. He is tall, has pes planus, and exhibits increased arm-span-to-height and upper-to-lower-segment body ratios. What additional feature would be most useful in diagnosing Marfan syndrome?
Your Answer: Early diastolic murmur
Explanation:Clinical Features of Marfan Syndrome
Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the body’s connective tissue. There are two major diagnostic criteria for Marfan syndrome: aortic-root dilatation and ectopia lentis. However, there are also several clinical features that may indicate the presence of the syndrome.
One such feature is an early diastolic murmur, which can be caused by aortic-valve incompetence and may indicate aortic-root dilatation. Another feature is a mid-systolic click, which is most likely the result of a mitral valve prolapse. Arachnodactyly and joint hypermobility are also features of Marfan syndrome, but they are considered minor criteria. A high-arched palate is another clinical feature of the syndrome.
It is important to note that while these features may suggest the presence of Marfan syndrome, a proper diagnosis can only be made through genetic testing and evaluation by a medical professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing. A colleague at work was recently diagnosed with prostate cancer which has prompted him to make this appointment.
He reports no problems passing urine and detailed questioning reveals no lower urinary tract symptoms and no history of haematuria or erectile dysfunction. He is currently well with no other specific complaints. He has one brother who is 65 and his father is still alive aged 86. There is no family history of prostate cancer.
He is very keen to have a PSA blood test performed as his work colleague's diagnosis has made him anxious.
Which of the following is appropriate advice to give the patient?Your Answer: As he is asymptomatic and has no family history he should not have a PSA blood test performed
Correct Answer: He should have a digital rectal examination (DRE) and only if abnormal be offered PSA testing
Explanation:PSA Testing in Asymptomatic Men: Pros and Cons
PSA testing in asymptomatic men is a controversial issue, with some advocating for it as a screening test and others wary of overtreatment and patient harm. The limitations of PSA testing in terms of sensitivity and specificity, as well as the inability to distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, are major points of debate.
Currently, PSA testing is not recommended as a screening test for prostate cancer in men of any age. However, it should be offered to men who present with lower urinary tract symptoms, haematuria, or erectile dysfunction. For asymptomatic men with no family history of prostate cancer, it is important to discuss the pros and cons of the test and allow the patient to make their own decision.
Digital rectal examination (DRE) should also be offered, and advice given on the combined use of DRE and PSA testing to detect any prostate abnormalities. If a focal abnormality suggestive of cancer is found during DRE, this alone should prompt referral, and a PSA test should be performed but would not alter the decision to refer. Similarly, an abnormal PSA with a normal DRE should also prompt referral. A normal DRE doesn’t mean that PSA testing is necessarily unwarranted.
Family history of prostate cancer is an important factor to consider, with the risk of prostate cancer being higher in men with a family history of the disease. The patient should be counselled about the relevance of family history as part of their decision to have a PSA test. Overall, the decision to undergo PSA testing should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the potential benefits and risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of diarrhoea that has been ongoing for the past eight weeks. He has also experienced fresh rectal bleeding on multiple occasions during this time. The patient has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and haemorrhoids. On examination, his abdomen is soft with no palpable masses, and a normal rectal exam is noted.
What would be the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer him routinely to a lower gastrointestinal specialist
Correct Answer: Prescribe loperamide and review in three to four weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Referral of Suspected Colorectal Cancer
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, individuals under the age of 50 who experience a change in bowel habit to looser and/or more frequent stools, along with rectal bleeding, should be urgently referred for suspected colorectal cancer.
In addition, NICE recommends considering a suspected cancer pathway referral for adults under 50 with rectal bleeding and unexplained symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and iron-deficiency anemia. These referrals should result in an appointment within two weeks to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer, which can significantly improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 14-month old infant presents with episodes of severe colic, associated with pallor and drawing of the legs upwards. This has been going on for several weeks.
The mother has brought the child to see you because she noticed that there seemed to be blood and mucous in the stool yesterday.
On examination there is a sausage-shaped mass palpable on the right side of the abdomen.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Intussusception
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease
Explanation:Intussusception: A Common Cause of Intestinal Obstruction in Infants
Intussusception is a condition where a section of the bowel folds into itself, causing an obstruction. It is most commonly seen in infants over one month old, with the typical age of presentation being between two months to two years. The most common site of intussusception is the ileum passing into the caecum/colon through the ileocaecal valve.
Symptoms of intussusception include severe colic, pallor, and drawing of legs upwards during episodes of pain. A sausage-shaped mass may be palpable in the abdomen, and parents may notice the passage of a redcurrant jelly stool (blood-stained mucous). In severe cases, children may present with abdominal distention and shock.
The cause of intussusception is not always clear, but viral infections causing enlargement of Peyer’s patches have been implicated in forming a lead point for the development of intussusception. In children over the age of two, a specific lead point (such as a Meckel’s diverticulum or polyp) is more likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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When starting contraception at any time in a teenage girl's menstrual cycle, a clinician should be fairly certain that she is not pregnant.
Which of the following statements would allow a health professional to be reasonably certain that a teenage girl is not currently pregnant?Your Answer: She is nine months postpartum and breastfeeding
Correct Answer: She is eight weeks postpartum and bottle feeding
Explanation:Criteria for Exclusion of Pregnancy
Health professionals can confidently exclude pregnancy in women if certain criteria are met. These include not having had intercourse since the last normal menstrual period, consistent use of reliable contraception, being within the first seven days of a normal menstrual period, being within four weeks postpartum for non-lactating women, being within the first seven days post-abortion or miscarriage, or being fully or nearly fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic, and less than six months postpartum.
While a pregnancy test can provide additional confirmation, it should only be carried out at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse. If a woman is at risk of pregnancy due to recent unprotected intercourse, a pregnancy test should be considered within the first seven days. By following these guidelines, health professionals can accurately exclude pregnancy and provide appropriate care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 25
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents with anxiety, dilated pupils and sweating. You suspect an overdose.
Which one of the following is most likely?Your Answer: Cocaine
Explanation:Cocaine Overdose Symptoms and Management
Cocaine overdose can lead to a range of symptoms, including anxiety, dilated pupils, and sweating. Other common features of cocaine overdose include persecutory delusions, hypertension, tachycardia, piloerection, and seizures.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these symptoms and to have a plan in place for managing cocaine and crack users in primary care. The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has provided guidance for working with these individuals, which can be helpful for those looking to revise their knowledge on this topic. By understanding the symptoms and having a plan in place, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support for those experiencing cocaine overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 26
Correct
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An 80-year-old man came in with a complaint of a 'gritty' left eye that has been gradually worsening for the past three months. His vision was unaffected. Upon examination, it was found that he had a left lower eyelid entropion that was not corrected on blinking.
What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer this patient to an ophthalmologist
Explanation:Importance of Ophthalmologist Referral for Entropion
This patient is experiencing symptoms due to entropion, which is the inward turning of the eyelid. If left untreated, this condition can lead to scarring of the cornea and a reduction in vision. Therefore, it is important to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist for proper management.
While waiting for the ophthalmology review, ocular lubrication can be used to provide symptomatic relief. However, this alone is not sufficient for the appropriate management of entropion. It is crucial to address the underlying cause of the condition to prevent further complications and preserve the patient’s vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A researcher wants to investigate dietary variations between patients aged 50-60 years with impaired glucose tolerance (HbA1c 42-47 mmol/mol) and those without impaired glucose tolerance (HbA1c <42 mmol/mol). The participants who agree to take part are requested to maintain a food journal for two weeks. The researcher is worried that the participants' eating habits during this observed period may deviate from their regular routine, impacting the accuracy of the study.
What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?Your Answer: Selection bias
Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect
Explanation:The Hawthorne effect refers to a situation where a group alters its behavior because it is aware of being observed. This could manifest in participants in a study eating more healthily during the observation period. A ceiling effect occurs when an independent variable no longer has an impact on a dependent variable because the maximum effect has been reached. Observer bias occurs when a researcher records information that differs from reality due to their expectations or desires. The Gibbons-Hawking effect is a theory of general relativity that may be better suited for discussion in a different forum.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are contemplating prescribing sildenafil to a patient who is experiencing erectile dysfunction. He suffered a heart attack earlier this year but is not presently taking nitrates or nicorandil. What is the duration of time that NICE suggests we wait after a heart attack before prescribing a phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor?
Your Answer: 4 weeks
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI. Patients who have had an MI should be offered dual antiplatelet therapy, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. Lifestyle changes such as following a Mediterranean-style diet and engaging in regular exercise are also recommended. Sexual activity may resume after four weeks, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used after six months, but caution should be exercised in patients taking nitrates or nicorandil.
Dual antiplatelet therapy is now the standard treatment for most patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome. Ticagrelor and prasugrel are now more commonly used as ADP-receptor inhibitors. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend adding ticagrelor to aspirin for medically managed patients and prasugrel or ticagrelor for those who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention. The second antiplatelet should be stopped after 12 months, but this may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events.
For patients who have had an acute MI and have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, treatment with an aldosterone antagonist such as eplerenone should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy. Proper management and adherence to these guidelines can significantly reduce the risk of further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is concerned about the possibility of having contracted a sexually transmitted infection after having sex with a new partner while on vacation with friends. He is not experiencing any symptoms but is anxious about the potential risk. You suggest that he visit the local sexual health clinic for specialized screening, but he is hesitant due to concerns about being recognized by someone he knows. As an alternative, you discuss the various tests that can be conducted in your general practice. You inform him that while you can collect some initial samples now, he will need to return for additional testing at a later time as it is still too early to detect any new infections.
What is the appropriate timing for submitting a sample for Chlamydia screening for this patient?Your Answer: 3 months
Correct Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:When to Get Tested for Chlamydia
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that often doesn’t show any symptoms. Therefore, it is important to get tested regularly if you are sexually active. The recommended time to get tested for chlamydia is at presentation and then again two weeks after a possible exposure. This is because it can take up to two weeks for the infection to show up on a test. If symptoms do develop, testing should be done immediately. It is also recommended to get tested again at six weeks and three months after a possible exposure to ensure that the infection has been fully treated. Remember, early detection and treatment of chlamydia is crucial for preventing long-term health complications.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 30
Correct
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A mother brings her 5-month old baby daughter to your clinic for a birthmark on her arm. Upon examination, you identify a small vascular plaque that doesn't seem to be causing any discomfort to the baby. Your diagnosis is a strawberry naevus. What would be the most suitable initial course of action?
Your Answer: Watch and wait
Explanation:A congenital haemangioma known as a strawberry naevus affects approximately one in 20 infants. These haemangiomas grow quickly during the first few months of life and then gradually disappear over a few years without any intervention. Unless they are causing vision, hearing, breathing, or feeding problems, they typically do not require treatment. However, if they are located on the lower spine, they may indicate spina bifida and require further investigation. Additionally, if they are unusually large or atypical, medical attention may be necessary.
Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.
Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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