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Question 1
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A 36-year-old overweight gravida 3 para 2 presents with a tender and swollen left leg at 32 weeks of gestation. The clinician initiates appropriate treatment and decides to monitor it with a specific blood test. What is the name of this blood test?
Your Answer: Prothrombin time (PT)
Correct Answer: Anti-Xa activity
Explanation:Venous Thromboembolism in Pregnancy: Risk Assessment and Prophylactic Measures
Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), a condition that can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. To prevent VTE, it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and initiate appropriate prophylactic measures. This risk assessment should be done at the first antenatal booking and on any subsequent hospital admission.
Women with a previous history of VTE are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, as well as input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, co-morbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.
The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.
If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.
If a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided.
In summary, a thorough risk assessment and appropriate prophylactic measures can help prevent VTE in pregnancy, which is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65-year-old retired post-office worker presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a two-week history of bleeding from the right nipple. He is otherwise well, with hypertension being the only medical history to note, which is well controlled on ramipril.
On examination of the right breast, the doctor notes some oozing of blood from the right nipple, with an underlying 2 cm × 2 cm fixed mass on palpation of the right areola.
With regard to breast cancer in men, which of the following statements is the most accurate?Your Answer: The is an increased risk of breast cancer in men with Klinefelter syndrome
Explanation:Breast Cancer in Men: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Prognosis
Breast cancer is commonly associated with women, but it can also affect men. While the lifetime risk of developing breast cancer in men is low, certain factors can increase the likelihood of developing the disease. Men with Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic condition that affects the production of male hormones, have a significantly higher risk of breast cancer. Other risk factors include age, exposure to radiation, family history of breast cancer, high estrogen levels, and testicular damage or malfunction.
The symptoms of breast cancer in men are similar to those in women, with the most common presentation being a painless lump in the breast tissue. Other symptoms may include nipple changes, discharge or bleeding, and skin changes. Unfortunately, the prognosis for breast cancer in men is often worse than in women due to a lack of awareness and delayed diagnosis.
Treatment for breast cancer in men typically involves surgical removal of the tumor, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. Tamoxifen, a medication that blocks the effects of estrogen, may also be used as part of the treatment plan. It is important for men to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of breast cancer and to seek medical attention promptly if any changes are noticed.
In conclusion, breast cancer is one of the top five most common cancers in men, and while the risk is low, it is important for men to be aware of the potential for the disease and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the next step in the management of Mary, a 19-year-old army recruit who is experiencing bilateral anterior shin pain during her basic military training? Mary reports a diffuse pain along the middle of her shin with tenderness along the anterolateral surface of the tibia and pain on resisted dorsiflexion. Her pain is more severe at the beginning of exercise but decreases during training.
Your Answer: Ultrasound
Correct Answer: Radiographs of bilateral tibia/fibula
Explanation:Tibial Stress Syndrome: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Tibial stress syndrome is a common overuse injury that affects the shin area. It is often seen in athletes and military recruits who engage in high-impact activities or over-train. The condition is caused by traction periostitis of either the tibialis anterior or tibialis posterior on the tibia.
Diagnosis of tibial stress syndrome involves obtaining basic radiographs to rule out any stress fractures or periosteal exostoses. If a stress fracture or other soft tissue injury is suspected, an MRI or bone scan may be indicated. However, ultrasound does not play a role in the imaging of tibial stress syndrome.
The first step in managing tibial stress syndrome is activity modification. This involves decreasing the intensity and frequency of exercise, engaging in low-impact activities, modifying footwear, and regularly stretching and strengthening the affected area. In most cases, these measures are successful in treating the condition.
In severe cases that have failed non-operative treatment, a deep posterior compartment fasciotomy and release of the painful portion of the periosteum may be indicated.
It is important to reassure the patient and advise them to rest and ice their shins after exercise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients with tibial stress syndrome can return to their normal activities without any long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has been referred to the Surgical Assessment Unit by her doctor after an ultrasound scan revealed biliary dilation and subsequent imaging confirmed the presence of gallstones. She woke up this morning with severe pain in the right upper quadrant, accompanied by sweating and her husband noticed her skin appeared more yellow than usual. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cholecystitis
Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:The presence of fever, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain in this patient indicates Charcot’s cholangitis triad, which strongly suggests the possibility of ascending cholangitis, particularly given the history of confirmed gallstones. The recommended course of action is to administer intravenous antibiotics.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with obesity and type II diabetes presents with symptoms of stress incontinence. What is the recommended first-line treatment for urinary stress incontinence?
Your Answer: Pelvic floor muscle training
Explanation:Treatment Options for Stress Incontinence
Stress incontinence is a common condition that affects many women. Fortunately, there are several treatment options available to help manage this condition. The first-line treatment for stress incontinence is pelvic floor muscle training, which should be done in conjunction with other conservative measures such as weight loss and lifestyle advice.
If pelvic floor exercises alone are not enough, duloxetine, an antidepressant, may be given as a second-line treatment. Pudendal nerve stimulation is another potential option in managing stress incontinence, but it should not be offered as a first-line treatment.
Colposuspension is a surgical treatment for stress incontinence, but it would not be used in the first instance. Radiotherapy is not a treatment option for women with stress incontinence, but it is one of the causes of stress incontinence in men who have had treatments for prostate cancer.
Overall, there are several treatment options available for stress incontinence, and it is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old Bangladeshi woman visits her GP complaining of feverish feelings and pains in multiple joints that have persisted for 3 months. She used to work as a nurse in Bangladesh until 8 months ago when she moved to the UK to live with her family. She also reports unintentional weight loss. During the examination, the GP observes signs of an asymmetrical polyarthritis, erythema nodosum on both shins, and firm, enlarged, painless cervical lymph nodes. The patient undergoes several tests, including screening blood tests and joint arthrocentesis with microscopy, culture, and sensitivity (MCS). The results show anti-CCP, RF, and ANA to be negative, CRP to be 31 mg/L (< 5), and no crystals or organisms seen in the MCS joint aspiration sample. What is the most probable cause of her polyarthritis?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Tuberculosis (TB) can lead to reactive arthritis, which can present as polyarthritis. In this case, the patient’s history of being a healthcare worker in a TB-endemic area, along with symptoms such as fever, weight loss, painless lymphadenopathy, and erythema nodosum, suggest the possibility of extrapulmonary TB. While C-reactive protein (CRP) levels may be elevated in any inflammatory arthritis, negative results for anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) and rheumatoid factor (RF) autoantibodies make rheumatoid arthritis less likely. Pseudogout can be ruled out through joint aspiration, which would reveal calcium pyrophosphate crystals. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is another potential cause of polyarthritis, but the patient’s Bangladeshi origin, healthcare worker background, and painless lymphadenopathy make TB a more likely diagnosis than SLE.
Possible Causes of Polyarthritis
Polyarthritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of multiple joints. There are several possible causes of polyarthritis, including rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), seronegative spondyloarthropathies, Henoch-Schonlein purpura, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, pseudogout, and viral infections such as Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), HIV, hepatitis, mumps, and rubella.
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and swelling. SLE is another autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs, including the joints, skin, kidneys, and nervous system. Seronegative spondyloarthropathies are a group of inflammatory diseases that primarily affect the spine and sacroiliac joints, but can also involve other joints. Henoch-Schonlein purpura is a rare condition that causes inflammation of the blood vessels, leading to joint pain, skin rash, and abdominal pain. Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease that can affect various organs, including the joints, lungs, and eyes. Tuberculosis can also cause joint inflammation, especially in the spine. Pseudogout is a type of arthritis that is caused by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the joints. Finally, viral infections can cause joint pain and swelling, although this is usually a self-limited condition that resolves on its own.
In summary, polyarthritis can have various causes, ranging from autoimmune disorders to infectious diseases. A thorough evaluation by a healthcare provider is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with multiple large, ruptured, eroded plaques on her upper arm, scalp and groin, along with an ulcerated blister on the mucosa of her lower lip. The cause is determined to be pemphigus vulgaris, with the pathogenesis of the disease attributed to IgG autoantibodies against which protein?
Your Answer: Desmoplakin
Correct Answer: Desmoglein
Explanation:Autoantibodies and Skin Disorders: Understanding the Role of Desmoglein, Bullous Pemphigoid Antigen, Collagen Type XVIII, Keratin, and Desmoplakin
Skin disorders can be caused by various factors, including autoimmune reactions. In particular, autoantibodies targeting specific proteins have been linked to several skin conditions. Here are some of the key proteins involved in these disorders:
Desmoglein: This protein is targeted by autoantibodies in about 80% of pemphigus cases, specifically in pemphigus vulgaris. The autoantibodies disrupt desmosomes, leading to blister formation above the stratum basale.
Bullous pemphigoid antigen and collagen type XVIII: These proteins are associated with bullous pemphigoid, which is characterized by autoimmune disruption of the hemidesmosome. This structure attaches the basal surface of cells in the stratum basale to the underlying epidermal basement membrane.
Keratin: Mutations in genes encoding keratin have been linked to epidermolysis bullosa, a disorder that causes blistering and skin fragility.
Desmoplakin: This intracellular protein links keratin intermediate filaments to desmosomes, but it is not directly involved in the pathogenesis of pemphigus vulgaris.
Understanding the role of these proteins in skin disorders can help researchers develop better treatments and therapies for these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 50-year old man has significant tics, but his language, memory and insight are only mildly to moderately impaired. He also has prominent depression and a butterfly pattern in the caudate nucleus on computed tomography (CT) scan.
Which is the most likely form of dementia in this patient?Your Answer: Dementia due to Huntington’s disease
Explanation:Types of Dementia and their Characteristics
Dementia is a broad term used to describe a decline in cognitive function that affects daily activities. There are several types of dementia, each with its own unique characteristics.
Dementia due to Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant triplet repeat disease affecting chromosome 4. It usually presents in middle-aged patients with movement disorders (chorea) and progresses to seizures, dementia and death.
Vascular dementia occurs in a stepwise fashion, with occlusive events leading to sudden new losses of function. Patients develop frontal release and localising neurologic signs relatively early.
Dementia due to Parkinson’s disease is characterised by loss of dopaminergic cells in the substantia nigra. It also presents with bradykinesia, rigidity, cogwheeling and shuffling gait.
Alzheimer’s disease has an insidious onset with gradual, continuous progression. Cognitive and language dysfunction occur early, with motor dysfunction and cortical release signs only appearing after diffuse cortical damage has occurred.
Dementia due to normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterised by the classical triad of dementia, shuffling gait and incontinence. This condition results from blockage of the normal drainage of the cerebrospinal fluid.
Early recognition and aggressive treatment for cardiovascular disease may slow progression of vascular dementia. Although the changes of vascular dementia are irreversible, the other types of dementia have no cure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has a skiing accident and sustains a blow to the occiput, resulting in a 5-minute concussion. Upon arrival at the emergency department, she presents with confusion and a GCS score of 10/15. A CT scan reveals no signs of acute bleeding or fractures, but there is evidence of edema and the early stages of mass effect. What is the optimal course of action?
Your Answer: Administration of intravenous furosemide
Correct Answer: Administration of intravenous mannitol
Explanation:Mannitol can be used to decrease the elevated ICP in the acute phase for this woman.
Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/furosemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman with a history of Von Willebrand disease underwent a left knee arthroscopy and screw removal with epidural anesthesia. The epidural space was identified at L3-L4 and local anesthetic was administered. During the operation, the patient experienced sensory block to temperature up to the T10 dermatome. After the procedure, the patient was comfortable and the block resolved completely after 2 hours. However, 2 hours later, the patient complained of severe back pain and exhibited 3/5 power in all muscle groups of the right leg, absent right patellar reflex, and reduced sensation to light touch in the right leg.
What complication of epidural anesthesia is likely to be demonstrated in this case?Your Answer: Spinal epidural haematoma
Explanation:One potential complication of epidural anesthesia is the development of a spinal epidural hematoma, which occurs when blood accumulates in the spinal epidural space and compresses the spinal cord. The symptoms experienced by the patient will depend on the location of the hematoma, but typically include a combination of severe back pain and neurological deficits. The patient’s coagulopathy, in this case Von-Willebrand disease, increases the risk of developing this complication.
Local anesthetic toxicity is another potential complication, which occurs when the anesthetic is accidentally injected into a blood vessel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including numbness around the mouth, restlessness, tinnitus, shivering, muscle twitching, and convulsions. However, none of these symptoms are present in this case.
Direct spinal cord injury would typically result in immediate symptoms during the procedure, which is not the case here.
Guillain-Barre syndrome is an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy that is often preceded by an infection. It typically presents with sensory symptoms that precede motor symptoms.
While spinal epidural abscess is a possibility, symptoms usually develop over a longer period of time. Given the patient’s coagulopathy, a hematoma is the most likely explanation for their symptoms.
Pain management can be achieved through various methods, including the use of analgesic drugs and local anesthetics. The World Health Organisation (WHO) recommends a stepwise approach to pain management, starting with peripherally acting drugs such as paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). If pain control is not achieved, weak opioid drugs such as codeine or dextropropoxyphene can be introduced, followed by strong opioids such as morphine as a final option. Local anesthetics can also be used to provide pain relief, either through infiltration of a wound or blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves.
For acute pain management, the World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists (WFSA) recommends a similar approach, starting with strong analgesics in combination with local anesthetic blocks and peripherally acting drugs. The use of strong opioids may no longer be required once the oral route can be used to deliver analgesia, and peripherally acting agents and weak opioids can be used instead. The final step is when pain can be controlled by peripherally acting agents alone.
Local anesthetics can be administered through infiltration of a wound with a long-acting agent such as Bupivacaine, providing several hours of pain relief. Blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves can also provide selective analgesia, either for surgery or postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anesthesia are other options, with spinal anesthesia providing excellent analgesia for lower body surgery and epidural anesthesia providing continuous infusion of analgesic agents. Transversus Abdominis Plane block (TAP) is a technique that uses ultrasound to identify the correct muscle plane and injects local anesthetic to block spinal nerves, providing a wide field of blockade without the need for indwelling devices.
Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA) allows patients to administer their own intravenous analgesia and titrate the dose to their own end-point of pain relief using a microprocessor-controlled pump. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine are commonly used, but caution is advised due to potential side effects and toxicity. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, with NSAIDs being more useful for superficial pain and having relative contraindications for certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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