00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 62-year-old woman has reduced urine output, nausea, and confusion. Renal function tests...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman has reduced urine output, nausea, and confusion. Renal function tests and other investigations done leads to a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI).Which one of these is consistent with a diagnosis of AKI?

      Your Answer: A rise in serum creatinine of 30 μmol/L within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      AKI is diagnosed based on an acutely rising serum creatinine and/or reduction in urine output.

      AKI can often be non-oliguric.

      AKI is present if any one or more of the following criteria is met:

      • A rise in serum creatinine of ≥26 micromol/L (≥0.3 mg/dL) within 48 hours
      • A rise in serum creatinine to ≥1.5 times baseline, which is known or presumed to have occurred within the past 7 days (in practice you can use the lowest value from the past 3 months as the baseline for the patient)
      • Urine volume <0.5 ml/kg/hour for at least 6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - On her most recent blood tests, a 55 year-old female with a history of hypertension...

    Correct

    • On her most recent blood tests, a 55 year-old female with a history of hypertension was discovered to be hypokalaemic. She  is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism.Which of the following is a direct action of aldosterone?

      Your Answer: Secretion of H + into the distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Aldosterone is a steroid hormone produced in the adrenal cortex’s zona glomerulosa. It is the most important mineralocorticoid hormone in the control of blood pressure. It does so primarily by promoting the synthesis of Na+/K+ATPases and the insertion of more Na+/K+ATPases into the basolateral membrane of the nephron’s distal tubules and collecting ducts, as well as stimulating apical sodium and potassium channel activity, resulting in increased sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion. This results in sodium conservation, potassium secretion, water retention, and a rise in blood volume and blood pressure.Aldosterone is produced in response to the following stimuli:Angiotensin II levels have risen.Potassium levels have increased.ACTH levels have risen.Aldosterone’s principal actions are as follows:Na+ reabsorption from the convoluted tubule’s distal endWater resorption from the distal convoluted tubule (followed by Na+)Cl is reabsorbed from the distal convoluted tubule.K+ secretion into the convoluted distal tubule’s H+ secretion into the convoluted distal tubule’s 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the penis, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: The corpus spongiosum is ventral in the erect penis.

      Explanation:

      Because the anatomical position of the penis is erect, the paired corpora cavernosa are defined as dorsal in the body of the penis and the single corpus spongiosum as ventral. The nerves and vessels lie superficial to the corpus cavernosum. The urethra lies within the corpus spongiosum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - When treating diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which of the following should be given if...

    Correct

    • When treating diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which of the following should be given if the systolic blood pressure is initially less than 90 mmHg:

      Your Answer: 500 mL sodium chloride 0.9% intravenous infusion over 10 - 15 minutes

      Explanation:

      If SBP is less than 90 mmHg , 500 mL sodium chloride 0.9 percent should be administered intravenously over 10–15 minutes, and repeated if SBP remains less than 90 mmHg. When SBP is greater than 90 mmHg, sodium chloride infusion must be maintained at a rate that replaces the deficit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Typically, granulomatous inflammation is associated with one of the following infections: ...

    Correct

    • Typically, granulomatous inflammation is associated with one of the following infections:

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Granulomatous inflammation is typically seen when an infective agent with a digestion-resistance capsule (e.g. Mycobacterium tuberculosis) or a piece of inert foreign material (such as suture or glass) is introduced into the tissue. A transient acute inflammatory response occurs and when this is ineffective in eradicating the stimulus, chronic inflammation occurs.Tuberculosis is the prototype of the granulomatous diseases, but sarcoidosis, cat-scratch disease, lymphogranuloma inguinale, leprosy, brucellosis, syphilis, some mycotic infections, berylliosis, reactions of irritant lipids, and some autoimmune diseases are also included

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Fat necrosis is typically seen in which of the following: ...

    Correct

    • Fat necrosis is typically seen in which of the following:

      Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis typically occurs following either direct trauma or from enzymatic lipolysis in acute pancreatitis, where release of triglyceride elicits a rapid inflammatory response and fat is phagocytosed by neutrophils and macrophages with subsequent fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is most likely to cause a bitemporal hemianopia: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most likely to cause a bitemporal hemianopia:

      Your Answer: Pituitary adenoma

      Explanation:

      A bitemporal hemianopia is most likely due to compression at the optic chiasm. This may be caused by pituitary tumour, craniopharyngioma, meningioma, optic glioma or aneurysm of the internal carotid artery. A posterior cerebral stroke will most likely result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with chest pain. Flecainide is...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with chest pain. Flecainide is one of the medications she is taking.Which of the following statements about flecainide mechanism of action is correct?

      Your Answer: Blocks Na+ channels in the heart

      Explanation:

      Flecainide is an antiarrhythmic drug of class Ic that works by blocking the Nav1.5 sodium channel in the heart, prolonging the cardiac action potential and slowing cardiac impulse conduction. It has a significant impact on accessory pathway conduction, particularly retrograde conduction, and significantly reduces ventricular ectopic foci.Many different arrhythmias can be treated with flecainide, including:Pre-excitation syndromes (e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White)Acute atrial arrhythmiasVentricular arrhythmiasChronic neuropathic painThe use of flecainide is contraindicated in the following situations:Abnormal left ventricular functionAtrial conduction defects (unless pacing rescue available)Bundle branch block (unless pacing rescue available)Distal block (unless pacing rescue available)Haemodynamically significant valvular heart diseaseHeart failureHistory of myocardial infarctionLong-standing atrial fibrillation where conversion to sinus rhythm not attemptedSecond-degree or greater AV block (unless pacing rescue available)Sinus node dysfunction (unless pacing rescue available)Flecainide should only be used in people who don’t have a structural heart problem. The CAST trial found a significant increase in sudden cardiac death and all-cause mortality in patients with an ejection fraction of less than 40% after a myocardial infarction, where it tended to be pro-arrhythmic.Anti-arrhythmic drugs have a limited and ineffective role in the treatment of atrial flutter. It’s important to keep in mind that flecainide shouldn’t be used by itself to treat atrial flutter. When used alone, there is a risk of inducing 1:1 atrioventricular conduction, which results in an increase in ventricular rate that is paradoxical. As a result, it should be used in conjunction with a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker with a rate-limiting effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old man has a very fast heartbeat' and is out of breath....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has a very fast heartbeat' and is out of breath. He has had a heart transplant in the past. His electrocardiogram reveals supraventricular tachycardia.Which of the following is the most appropriate adenosine dose for him to receive as a first dose?

      Your Answer: Adenosine 3 mg IV

      Explanation:

      A rapid IV bolus of adenosine is given, followed by a saline flush. The standard adult dose is 6 mg, followed by 12 mg if necessary, and then another 12 mg bolus every 1-2 minutes until an effect is seen.Patients who have had a heart transplant, on the other hand, are extremely sensitive to the effects of adenosine and should start with a lower dose of 3 mg, then 6 mg, and finally 12 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following blood groups is the universal donor: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following blood groups is the universal donor:

      Your Answer: O

      Explanation:

      Blood group O has no antigens, but both anti-A and anti-B antibodies and thus is the universal donor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following decreases activation of vitamin D: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following decreases activation of vitamin D:

      Your Answer: Chronic renal failure

      Explanation:

      Calcium deficiency (low Ca2+ diet or hypocalcemia) activates 1-alpha-hydroxylase in the cells of the renal proximal tubule which catalyses the conversion of vitamin D to its active form, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. Increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) and hypophosphatemia also stimulate the enzyme. Chronic renal failure is associated with a constellation of bone diseases, including osteomalacia caused by failure of the diseased renal tissue to produce the active form of vitamin D.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding benzodiazepines, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding benzodiazepines, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Diazepam is a short-acting benzodiazepine.

      Explanation:

      Diazepam is used to produce mild sedation with amnesia. It is a long-acting drug with active metabolites and a second period of drowsiness can occur several hours after its administration. Midazolam is a water-soluble benzodiazepine that is often used in preference to intravenous diazepam; recovery is faster than from diazepam, but may be significantly longer in the elderly, in patients with a low cardiac output, or after repeated dosing. Midazolam is associated with profound sedation when high doses are given intravenously or when it is used with certain other drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 52-year-old female visits the Emergency Department complaining of an acute worsening of...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old female visits the Emergency Department complaining of an acute worsening of her asthma symptoms. A detailed history reveals that she took one of her brother's heart pills without a prescription as she was experiencing palpitations and thought it would cure her. Her shortness of breath was suddenly exacerbated after ingesting this medicine. Which one of the following medications has this woman most likely consumed?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Propranolol, like other non-selective beta-blockers, is contraindicated in patients with asthma. These drugs can cause acute bronchospasm, therefore worsening symptoms, especially in high doses. However, there has been some recent evidence that long-term use of selective beta-blockers in mild or moderate asthma patients can be safe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding saliva, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding saliva, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Saliva production is decreased by inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system.

      Explanation:

      At rest, saliva is predominantly produced by the submandibular gland (65%) but when stimulated, the parotid glands produce a higher proportion of the total saliva production (50%) than at rest. Saliva is alkaline and hypotonic to plasma. The predominant digestive enzymes in saliva are alpha-amylase and lingual lipase; lingual lipase is not functionally very important, but alpha-amylase is important for the initiation of starch digestion. Saliva production is decreased by inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system e.g. by sleep, dehydration, anticholinergic drugs and fear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In the small intestine, there is a deep gap between each villus that...

    Correct

    • In the small intestine, there is a deep gap between each villus that leads to the crypt of Lieberkühn, a tubular intestinal gland.What is the primary function of these glands?

      Your Answer: Production of an alkaline intestinal juice

      Explanation:

      In the small intestine, there is a deep gap between each villus that leads to the crypt of Lieberkühn, a tubular intestinal gland. These glands create an alkaline intestinal juice that is a mixture of water and mucus with a pH of 7.4-7.8. Intestinal juice is released in a volume of 1-2 litres per day in response to distention of the small intestine or the irritating effects of chyme on the intestinal mucosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Regarding loop diuretics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding loop diuretics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: The risk of hypokalaemia is greater with loop diuretics than with an equipotent dose of a thiazide diuretic.

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia can occur with both thiazide and loop diuretics. The risk of hypokalaemia depends on the duration of action as well as the potency and is thus greater with thiazides than with an equipotent dose of a loop diuretic. Hypokalaemia is dangerous in severe cardiovascular disease and in patients also being treated with cardiac glycosides. Often the use of potassium-sparing diuretics avoids the need to take potassium supplements. In hepatic failure, hypokalaemia caused by diuretics can precipitate encephalopathy, particularly in alcoholic cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A patient with a recent diagnosis of Hepatitis B would like to find...

    Correct

    • A patient with a recent diagnosis of Hepatitis B would like to find out further information regarding his diagnosis and prognosis. Which among the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B?

      Your Answer: 60-65% of patients that contract hepatitis B show subclinical disease

      Explanation:

      As the immune response is activated, the virus is slowly cleared from the system, and most patients become non-infectious. In adults, about 50% of infections are asymptomatic; 20% to 30% of patients exhibit clinical jaundice but have a benign resolution of the infection. Therefore, about 80% of infections do not cause serious sequelae. The risk for chronic infection is inversely proportional to age at time of infection, with approximately 90% of infants and only 3% of adults developing a chronic infection. Individuals with a chronic infection have a higher risk of liver disease, such as cirrhosis or hepatic carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The functional residual capacity (FRC) will be decreased in which of the following:...

    Correct

    • The functional residual capacity (FRC) will be decreased in which of the following:

      Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Factors decreasing FRC:Restrictive ventilatory defects e.g. pulmonary fibrosisPosture – lying supineIncreased intra-abdominal pressure (e.g. obesity, pregnancy, ascites)Reduced muscle tone of diaphragm e.g. muscle relaxants in anaesthesia, neuromuscular disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Regarding Clostridium tetani, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Clostridium tetani, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Metronidazole is usually the antibiotic of choice for tetanus infection.

      Explanation:

      Clostridium tetani infection is predominantly derived from animal faeces and soil.  Clostridium tetani has exotoxin-mediated effects, predominantly by tetanospasmin which inhibits the release of GABA at the presynaptic membrane throughout the central and peripheral nervous system. Metronidazole has overtaken penicillin as the antibiotic of choice for treatment of tetanus (together with surgical debridement, tetanus toxoid immunisation, and human tetanus immunoglobulin).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Doxycycline is indicated first line for treatment of which of the following infections:...

    Correct

    • Doxycycline is indicated first line for treatment of which of the following infections:

      Your Answer: Chlamydia

      Explanation:

      Doxycycline may be used first line for chlamydia, pelvic inflammatory disease (with metronidazole and ceftriaxone), acute bacterial sinusitis, exacerbation of chronic bronchitis, moderate-severity community acquired pneumonia and high-severity community acquired pneumonia (with benzylpenicillin).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      19.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (4/4) 100%
Physiology (5/5) 100%
Renal Physiology (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Endocrine (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (7/7) 100%
Inflammatory Responses (2/2) 100%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
Anaesthesia (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Infections (1/1) 100%
Passmed