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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman presents with new-onset diabetes. She has no past drug or...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with new-onset diabetes. She has no past drug or treatment history. Her fasting blood glucose is 7.3 mmol/l. Other significant medical history included occasional diarrhoea in the last 4 months, for which she took repeated courses of tinidazole. She also had an episode of severe leg pain three months ago, for which she takes warfarin. She is presently very depressed, as her sister has had renal calculus surgery, which has not gone well; she is in the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with sepsis.
      What is the most appropriate next test?

      Your Answer: Blood test for Giardia antigen

      Correct Answer: Genetic study

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Possible Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 1 Syndrome

      A woman presents with new-onset diabetes, diarrhoea, and a past episode of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), along with a family history of renal calculi at a young age. These symptoms suggest the possibility of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) 1 syndrome, an autosomal dominant disease characterized by endocrine hyperfunction in various glands, particularly the parathyroid gland and enteropancreatic tumors. The most common tumors in the latter group are gastrinoma and insulinoma, with glucagonoma occurring rarely. Other symptoms may include depression, anemia, glossitis, and in rare cases, a skin manifestation called necrolytic migratory erythema.

      To confirm a diagnosis of MEN 1, a genetic study to detect MEN 1 gene mutation on chromosome 11 is the best option. A family history of renal stones, as in this case, is the most common manifestation of MEN 1.

      Other diagnostic tests, such as protein C assessment, colonoscopy, and blood test for Giardia antigen, are not relevant to this particular case. Measuring C-peptide levels can help distinguish between type I and type II diabetes or maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY), but it will not help in detecting the underlying disease. Giardiasis symptoms may include diarrhea, fatigue, abdominal cramps, bloating, gas, nausea, and weight loss, but tinidazole should have eliminated Giardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      80.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old patient presents with a 3-day history of vaginal discharge, without itching...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old patient presents with a 3-day history of vaginal discharge, without itching or bleeding. She is normally fit and well, without past medical history. There is no history of sexually transmitted infections. She is sexually active and has a progesterone implant for contraception.
      Examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen. On pelvic examination, you notice the vagina has a white-grey coating on the walls and a fishy odour. A small amount of grey vaginal discharge is also seen. The cervix looks normal, and there is no cervical excitation. Observations are stable.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Vaginal Discharge: Symptoms and Treatment

      Bacterial vaginosis, Trichomonas vaginalis, Candidiasis, gonorrhoeae, and Pelvic inflammatory disease are some of the most common causes of vaginal discharge in women.

      Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and loss of lactobacilli in the vagina. It presents with a grey-white, thin discharge with a fishy odour and an increased vaginal pH. Metronidazole is the treatment of choice.

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection that presents with a yellow-green discharge and an erythematosus cervix with a punctate exudate.

      Candidiasis is a fungal infection associated with pruritus, burning, erythema, and oedema of the vestibule. The vaginal discharge is thick, curd-like, and white.

      gonorrhoeae can be asymptomatic or present with abdominal pain, mucopurulent discharge, cervicitis, dyspareunia, or abnormal bleeding.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease is the result of an ascending infection and presents with dyspareunia, lower abdominal pain, menstrual irregularities, irregular bleeding, and a blood stained, purulent vaginal discharge. Cervicitis and cervical excitation are also present.

      Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve the quality of life of affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 31-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening low mood and...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening low mood and uncontrollable behaviors. She reports feeling distressed and finds relief only by repeating a certain phrase in her mind. She has no significant medical history and is in good physical health.

      What is the symptom being described in this case?

      Your Answer: Intrusion

      Correct Answer: Compulsion

      Explanation:

      An obsession is an unwelcome and intrusive thought that causes discomfort. On the other hand, a compulsion is an irrational behavior that a person feels compelled to perform in order to alleviate the anxiety caused by the obsession.

      Compulsions can be either mental or physical, such as repeatedly washing one’s hands or checking if a door is locked. In contrast, thought insertion is a symptom of schizophrenia where a person feels that their thoughts are not their own and have been inserted by someone else.

      Intrusive thoughts are involuntary and unwelcome thoughts that can be experienced by anyone. However, if they become frequent and distressing, they can develop into obsessions, which are a more severe form of intrusive thoughts. Obsessions, when coupled with compulsions, are a defining feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).

      Lastly, thought withdrawal is another delusion found in schizophrenia where a person believes that their thoughts have been taken away by an external force.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      37.3
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of extensive psoriasis affecting the trunk,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of extensive psoriasis affecting the trunk, arms, buttock and nail beds is seen for review in Dermatology Outpatients. He has previously completed a course of phototherapy, with minimal improvement, and has shown no benefit on methotrexate for the past 12 months.
      What is the next most appropriate step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Correct Answer: Infliximab

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Extensive Psoriasis: Consideration of Anti-TNF Alpha Therapy

      Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that is managed in a stepwise manner, as per the National Institute of Health Care and Excellence (NICE) guidelines. For patients with extensive psoriasis who have failed topical therapy, phototherapy, and systemic agents such as methotrexate, acitretin, and ciclosporin, or where these are not tolerated and/or contraindicated, the next step in management is to trial an anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) alpha, such as infliximab, etanercept, or adalimumab, given by injection.

      While on anti-TNF alpha therapy, patients are at an increased risk of pneumococcal and seasonal influenzae, and should receive vaccination against these illnesses. Live vaccines should be avoided.

      Repeating a further course of phototherapy may not be the most appropriate answer for patients who have already failed systemic therapy and previously showed only minimal response to phototherapy. Hydroxychloroquine is not commonly used in the management of plaque psoriasis, and rituximab is not indicated for psoriasis.

      Topical tacrolimus may be used in the management of psoriasis affecting the face or flexural regions, but for patients with severe extensive psoriasis on the trunk, arms, and buttocks who have already tried and failed management with oral regimes and phototherapy, it is unlikely to be of benefit. If it has not already been used, it would not be unreasonable to trial tacrolimus for a short period. However, the next most appropriate step in management is an anti-TNF alpha.

      In summary, for patients with severe extensive psoriasis who have failed previous therapies, consideration of anti-TNF alpha therapy is the next step in management, with appropriate vaccination and monitoring for potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      24.8
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman reports experiencing painful tingling in her fingers and relief when...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman reports experiencing painful tingling in her fingers and relief when hanging her arm over the side of the bed. She also has a positive Tinel's sign. What is the most probable factor contributing to her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      The patient has been diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome, which is often caused by rheumatological disorders. During the clinical examination, it is important to look for signs of rheumatoid arthritis, such as rheumatoid nodules, vasculitic lesions, and arthritis in the metacarpophalangeal joints.

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      26.9
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman visits the antenatal clinic. What should be included in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits the antenatal clinic. What should be included in the standard infection screening?

      Your Answer: Group B Streptococcus

      Correct Answer: Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that HIV testing be included as a standard part of antenatal screening.

      Antenatal Screening Policy

      Antenatal screening is an important aspect of prenatal care that helps identify potential health risks for both the mother and the developing fetus. The National Screening Committee (NSC) has recommended a policy for antenatal screening that outlines the conditions for which all pregnant women should be offered screening and those for which screening should not be offered.

      The NSC recommends that all pregnant women should be offered screening for anaemia, bacteriuria, blood group, Rhesus status, and anti-red cell antibodies, Down’s syndrome, fetal anomalies, hepatitis B, HIV, neural tube defects, risk factors for pre-eclampsia, syphilis, and other conditions depending on the woman’s medical history.

      However, there are certain conditions for which screening should not be offered, such as gestational diabetes, gestational hypertension, and preterm labor. These conditions are typically managed through regular prenatal care and monitoring.

      It is important for pregnant women to discuss their screening options with their healthcare provider to ensure that they receive appropriate care and support throughout their pregnancy. By following the NSC’s recommended policy for antenatal screening, healthcare providers can help identify potential health risks early on and provide appropriate interventions to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9
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  • Question 7 - Emma is a 27-year-old woman who recently underwent cervical screening. She has no...

    Correct

    • Emma is a 27-year-old woman who recently underwent cervical screening. She has no significant medical history and is currently in good health. However, her screening results have come back positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) and her cervical cytology is inadequate. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Repeat sample in 3 months

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines for cervical screening, if the smear test is inadequate or the high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) test result is unavailable, the sample should be repeated within 3 months. Therefore, repeating the sample in 3 months is the correct course of action. Repeating HPV testing in 1 week would not change the management plan as Sarah has already tested positive for hrHPV and requires an adequate cervical cytology result. Colposcopy is only necessary if there are two consecutive inadequate results. Waiting 12 months to repeat the sample would be inappropriate as it would be too long between tests. Similarly, returning Sarah to routine recall is not appropriate as she requires an adequate cytology result.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A concerned father brings his 14-year-old son to see you because he has...

    Correct

    • A concerned father brings his 14-year-old son to see you because he has noticed in the last three months he is increasingly irritable, aggressive and withdrawn. He will refuse to go to school, misses his soccer and guitar classes and does not go out with his friends. The symptoms seem to last for a couple of weeks and then abruptly resolve. They recommence a few days later. This has severely impacted on his education and function.
      The patient denies any physical symptoms, loss of weight or change in appetite. He has regular bowel movements. His observations are normal, and examination is unremarkable.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) characterized by psychological and behavioral symptoms in the absence of physical symptoms. PMS is a condition that affects the majority of women in reproductive age, with symptoms occurring in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and resolving with menstruation. The exact causes of PMS and PMDD are not yet identified, but hormonal effects on neurotransmitters and psychological and environmental factors may play a role.

      To diagnose PMS or PMDD, organic causes must be excluded through a full history, examination, and blood tests. A prospective diary of symptoms over 2-3 menstrual cycles can also aid in diagnosis. Symptoms must be present in the luteal phase and improve or resolve with menstruation.

      Differential diagnosis for PMDD includes depression, hypothyroidism, and hyperthyroidism. Depression symptoms are continuous and not subject to regular cycling, while hypothyroidism symptoms are persistent and not cyclical. Hyperthyroidism may present with symptoms mimicking mania and psychosis.

      Mild PMS does not interfere with daily activities or social and professional life, while moderate and severe PMS can impact a woman’s ability to carry out activities. PMDD is a severe form of PMS characterized by psychological and behavioral symptoms in the absence of physical symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and wondering if she...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and wondering if she has entered menopause. Upon conducting a blood test, the results show a Hb of 101 g/l, MCV 108.2 fl, and a B12 level of 46 ng/l. She also reports experiencing occasional changes in bowel movements. What test would be most effective in differentiating pernicious anemia from other malabsorption causes as the reason for her low B12 levels?

      Your Answer: Intrinsic factor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pernicious Anaemia: Diagnosis and Treatment

      Pernicious anaemia is a type of macrocytic anaemia caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12. This deficiency is often due to antibodies that target either intrinsic factor or the gastric parietal cells. To diagnose pernicious anaemia, blood tests for intrinsic factor antibodies and gastric parietal cell-antibodies are necessary.

      Other tests, such as the PABA test, folic acid level, serum gastrin level, and C14 breath test, are not useful in identifying pernicious anaemia. Vitamin B12 is normally absorbed in the terminal ileum, but a problem in any part of this chain may result in vitamin B12 deficiency.

      Patients with pernicious anaemia require lifelong vitamin B12 injections, typically six injections over the first two weeks from diagnosis and then one every three months to maintain adequate levels. Understanding the diagnosis and treatment of pernicious anaemia is crucial for managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with a complaint of missed...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with a complaint of missed periods for the past four months despite negative pregnancy tests. She is also distressed about the loss of her libido and has noticed milk leakage with minimal nipple stimulation during intercourse. On physical examination, her blood pressure is 122/70 mmHg, pulse is 70 and regular, and general physical examination is unremarkable. Which blood test is most likely to show elevated levels?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Diagnosis of Hyperprolactinaemia

      Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin in the body. This condition is typically associated with symptoms such as milk production, decreased libido, and absence of menstruation. However, visual disturbances are not always present, as many cases of hyperprolactinaemia are related to a microprolactinoma.

      When diagnosing hyperprolactinaemia, it is important to assess thyroid status as this condition is often associated with hypothyroidism. Thyroxine levels are usually low in individuals with hyperprolactinaemia. Additionally, beta-HCG levels are elevated in pregnancy, so it is important to rule out pregnancy as a potential cause of elevated prolactin levels.

      In summary, hyperprolactinaemia is a condition that can present with a variety of symptoms, but is typically characterized by elevated prolactin levels. Diagnosis involves assessing thyroid status and ruling out pregnancy as a potential cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A pregnant woman who is slightly older is admitted to the Emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman who is slightly older is admitted to the Emergency department with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and lethargy. She is in her 38th week of pregnancy and has never been pregnant before. Upon examination, she appears to be clinically jaundiced and has a temperature of 37.7ºC. Her blood pressure and heart rate are normal.

      The results of her blood tests are as follows:
      - Bilirubin: 80 µmol/l
      - ALP: 240 u/l
      - ALT: 550 u/l
      - AST: 430 u/l
      - γGT: 30 u/l
      - INR: 1.8
      - Hb: 110 g/l
      - Platelets: 331 * 109/l
      - WBC: 12.5 * 109/l

      An acute viral hepatitis screen comes back negative. An urgent US doppler liver shows steatosis with patent hepatic and portal vessels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholestasis of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Acute fatty liver of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Based on the presented symptoms, the most probable diagnosis is acute fatty liver of pregnancy. This is supported by the presence of jaundice, mild fever, elevated liver function tests, increased white blood cell count, coagulopathy, and steatosis on imaging. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy typically presents with non-specific symptoms such as fatigue, malaise, and nausea, whereas cholestasis of pregnancy is characterized by severe itching. The absence of abnormalities in hemoglobin, platelet count, and viral screening makes the diagnosis of HELLP syndrome or viral hepatitis unlikely. Additionally, pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria. It is important to note that placental ALP can cause an increase in serum ALP levels during pregnancy.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old woman, who has been homebound for several years due to difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman, who has been homebound for several years due to difficulty with mobility, presents with worsening bone pain. She appears unsteady on her feet but has no other specific complaints. Laboratory tests are conducted.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 118 g/dl 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 240 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Calcium 2.01 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Phosphate 9.8 mmol/l 15–50 mmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 450 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Bone Disorders: Causes and Symptoms

      Osteomalacia and rickets are caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, resulting in decreased levels of serum calcium and phosphate and bone matrix hypomineralisation. This condition is often characterised by difficulty mobilising and general fragility. Osteitis fibrosa cystica, on the other hand, is caused by hyperparathyroidism, resulting in raised serum calcium, low phosphate, and elevated ALP. Patients with osteitis fibrosa cystica may also experience kidney stones, nausea, or constipation. Osteopetrosis involves impaired bone remodelling due to failure of osteoclasts to resorb bone, resulting in increased bone mass and skeletal fragility. In contrast, osteoporosis is characterised by reduced bone mass, while Paget’s disease involves pathological increased bone turnover. Understanding the causes and symptoms of these different bone disorders is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 13 - A 22-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with a 4-year history of acne...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with a 4-year history of acne on her back, chest and face. She has comedones, pustules and scars that have not improved with previous treatments. The dermatologist decides to prescribe isotretinoin. What other medication should be prescribed alongside this?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      The patient has severe acne and topical treatment has not been effective. The dermatologist will prescribe oral isotretinoin, which is a specialist drug that can only be prescribed in secondary care. However, isotretinoin is teratogenic, so women of reproductive age must use at least two methods of contraception while taking the drug. The combined oral contraceptive pill is often co-prescribed with isotretinoin to help balance the hormonal profile and improve the skin condition. Topical retinoids are the treatment of choice for mild to moderate acne, but they are not indicated for severe acne. Oral oxytetracycline can be used in combination with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide for moderate acne, but it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Topical erythromycin is used for mild to moderate acne and should always be prescribed in combination with benzoyl peroxide to prevent microbial resistance. Topical benzoyl peroxide is used for mild or moderate acne and can be combined with a topical retinoid or antibiotic, or an oral antibiotic for moderate acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.5
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  • Question 14 - A 21-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe pain and swelling in one of his testicles. He is sexually active and does not use protection. Upon examination, the affected testicle is tender and enlarged, and lifting it does not alleviate the pain.

      What is the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Epididymitis

      Correct Answer: Testicular torsion

      Explanation:

      The elevation of the testis does not alleviate pain in testicular torsion, unlike in epididymitis where it is known as Prehn’s sign. Therefore, in a patient presenting with severe unilateral pain and swelling, testicular torsion is more likely than epididymitis, epididymal cysts, hydroceles, or varicoceles. This is especially true if the patient is under 20 years old, as testicular torsion is more common in this age group.

      Testicular Torsion: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Testicular torsion is a medical condition that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to testicular ischaemia and necrosis. This condition is most common in males aged between 10 and 30, with a peak incidence between 13 and 15 years. The symptoms of testicular torsion are sudden and severe pain, which may be referred to the lower abdomen. Nausea and vomiting may also be present. On examination, the affected testis is usually swollen, tender, and retracted upwards, with reddened skin. The cremasteric reflex is lost, and elevation of the testis does not ease the pain (Prehn’s sign).

      The treatment for testicular torsion is urgent surgical exploration. If a torted testis is identified, both testes should be fixed, as the condition of bell clapper testis is often bilateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 63-year-old man presented with progressive dyspnoea and cough over two years. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presented with progressive dyspnoea and cough over two years. He was previously employed in a ceramic factory as chief supervisor.
      What is the most probable radiological finding in this patient?

      Your Answer: Interstitial fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Small numerous opacities in upper lung zones with hilar lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Silicosis: Radiological Findings and Risk Factors

      Silicosis is a lung disease that can develop many years after exposure to silica, which is commonly found in clay used in ceramic factories. Other toxic chemicals found in ceramic factories, such as talc, lead, chromium, sulfur dioxide, and metal fumes, can also increase the risk of developing silicosis.

      Radiological findings of silicosis include small numerous opacities in the upper lung zones with hilar lymphadenopathy, which may show egg shell calcification. In later stages, rounded nodules in the upper zones with lower zone emphysema may also be present. However, progressive massive fibrosis is not a common finding in silicosis lungs.

      Silicosis per se does not cause lung cavitation, but it can be complicated by tuberculosis, which may lead to the formation of cavities. In acute silicosis, lower zone alveolar opacities may be present, which can lead to acute respiratory failure.

      Overall, understanding the radiological findings and risk factors of silicosis is important for early detection and prevention of this debilitating lung disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - As a young doctor in obstetrics and gynaecology, you are assisting in the...

    Incorrect

    • As a young doctor in obstetrics and gynaecology, you are assisting in the delivery of a patient when suddenly, shoulder dystocia occurs. You quickly call for senior assistance and decide to perform McRobert's manoeuvre by hyper flexing and abducting the mother's hips, moving her onto her back and bringing her thighs towards her abdomen.

      What other action can be taken to enhance the effectiveness of the manoeuvre?

      Your Answer: Valsalva manoeuvre

      Correct Answer: Suprapubic pressure

      Explanation:

      According to the shoulder dystocia guidelines of the Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, utilizing suprapubic pressure can enhance the efficacy of the McRoberts manoeuvre.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A middle-aged woman presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 3-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 3-month history of epigastric pain and weight loss. She mentions that she tried over-the-counter antacids which provided some relief initially, but the pain has got worse. She decided to see her GP after realising she had lost about 5 kg. She denies any vomiting or loose stools. She has never had problems with her stomach before and she has no significant family history. Endoscopy and biopsy are performed; histology shows active inflammation.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duodenal ulcer

      Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori gastritis

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori gastritis is a common condition that can cause gastritis and peptic ulcers in some individuals. It is caused by a Gram-negative bacterium and can increase the risk of gastric adenocarcinoma. Treatment with antibiotics is necessary to eradicate the infection. Invasive carcinoma is unlikely in this patient as they do not have other symptoms associated with it. A duodenal ulcer is possible but not confirmed by the upper GI endoscopy. Crohn’s disease is unlikely as it presents with different symptoms. A gastrointestinal stromal tumour would have been detected during the endoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - To which bone does Sever's disease refer, and at what age is it...

    Incorrect

    • To which bone does Sever's disease refer, and at what age is it commonly diagnosed?

      Your Answer: Talus

      Correct Answer: Calcaneum

      Explanation:

      Sever’s Disease

      Sever’s disease is a condition that causes pain in one or both heels when walking or standing. It occurs due to a disturbance or interruption in the growth plates located at the back of the heel bone, also known as the calcaneus. This condition typically affects children between the ages of 8 and 13 years old.

      The pain associated with Sever’s disease can occur after general activities such as running, jumping, or playing sports like netball, basketball, and football. Symptoms include extreme pain when placing the heel on the ground, which can be alleviated when the child walks on their tiptoes.

      In summary, Sever’s disease is a common condition that affects children during their growth and development. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek medical attention if necessary to ensure proper treatment and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You are an F2 doctor in the Emergency Department and a 7-year-old child...

    Incorrect

    • You are an F2 doctor in the Emergency Department and a 7-year-old child comes in with a 10-day history of fever, lethargy, and general malaise. The parents are concerned about a new pain in the left upper leg. After requesting an X-ray, it shows a localized osteolytic region indicating osteomyelitis. Which part of the bone is typically affected in children with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epiphysis

      Correct Answer: Metaphysis

      Explanation:

      Osteomyelitis in children typically occurs in the metaphysis, which is the most common site for infection in long bones. This is due to haematogenous spread, which is the most common source of infection in children. The location of infection varies depending on age, with the metaphysis being highly vascular and therefore more susceptible to infection in children, while the epiphysis is more commonly affected in adults.

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.

      In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A new vaccine is being tested in healthy volunteers with normal immune function....

    Correct

    • A new vaccine is being tested in healthy volunteers with normal immune function. It is distributed in the lymphatic system only and has limited renal excretion.

      A subcutaneous injection of the vaccine is given at 9:00 am and a peak antibody response is reached at 10:00 am. The levels of antibodies in the blood serum at various time points are given below:

      Time Antibody concentration
      10:00 200 IU/mL
      12:00 100 IU/mL
      14:00 50 IU/mL

      What is the half life of this vaccine?

      Your Answer: 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Metabolism, Excretion, and Clearance of Drugs

      Metabolism and excretion play a crucial role in eliminating active drugs from the body. Metabolism converts drugs into inactive metabolites, while excretion removes the drug or its metabolite from the body. Renal excretion is the most common method of drug elimination, but some drugs may also be excreted through bile or feces. Clearance refers to the rate at which active drug is removed from the circulation, and it involves both renal excretion and hepatic metabolism. However, hepatic metabolism can be difficult to measure, so clearance is typically used to measure renal excretion only.

      Most drugs follow first order kinetics, which means that the drug concentration in plasma will decrease by half at a constant interval of time. For example, if the drug concentration in plasma is 120 mg/L, it will drop to 60 mg/L in two hours. After another two hours, the concentration will halve again to 30 mg/L. This pattern continues until the drug is completely eliminated from the body. The half-life of a drug is the time it takes for the drug concentration to halve, and it is typically around two hours for most drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which statement accurately describes acute compartment syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes acute compartment syndrome?

      Your Answer: Passive stretch of affected muscles exacerbates pain

      Explanation:

      Compartment Syndrome

      Compartment syndrome is a condition that occurs when the pressure within a muscle compartment increases to a level that exceeds arterial blood pressure. This can happen even without a fracture, such as in cases of crush injuries. The earliest and most reliable symptom of compartment syndrome is pain, which can be exacerbated by passive stretching of the muscles in the affected area. As the condition progresses, loss of peripheral pulses may occur, indicating that the pressure has reached a critical level.

      Treatment for compartment syndrome involves decompression of the affected compartment(s), including the skin. It is important to recognize the symptoms of compartment syndrome early on in order to prevent further damage and potential loss of function. By the signs and symptoms of this condition, individuals can seek prompt medical attention and receive the appropriate treatment to alleviate the pressure and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue, breast tenderness, and bloating...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue, breast tenderness, and bloating in the week leading up to her period. She also experiences mild difficulty concentrating and occasional mood swings during this time, but not at any other point in the month. The patient has a medical history of migraines with aura and takes sumatriptan as needed, without known allergies. Although her symptoms do not significantly impact her daily life, she finds them bothersome and wishes to find a way to alleviate them. What is the most appropriate approach to managing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Advise regular exercise and small, regular meals rich in complex carbohydrates

      Explanation:

      To manage premenstrual syndrome, it is recommended to make specific lifestyle changes such as regular exercise and consuming small, balanced meals rich in complex carbohydrates every 2-3 hours. These changes are advised by the Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology as a first-line management approach. It is also suggested to quit smoking, reduce alcohol intake, maintain regular sleep patterns, and manage stress levels. Contrary to popular belief, reducing dietary fats and carbohydrates is not recommended. Additionally, prescribing diazepam is not a routine management approach and is only used in select cases where anxiety is a significant symptom. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors like sertraline can be used for severe premenstrual syndrome, but lifestyle changes are usually sufficient for mild symptoms that do not interfere with daily life.

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - How would you describe March fracture? ...

    Incorrect

    • How would you describe March fracture?

      Your Answer: Stress fracture of the neck of the talus

      Correct Answer: Stress fracture of the neck of the second metatarsal

      Explanation:

      March Fracture: A Common Injury in Active Individuals

      March fracture is a type of stress fracture that affects the metatarsals, commonly seen in individuals who engage in repetitive activities such as running or walking. This injury is often observed in army recruits, nurses, and runners. One of the primary symptoms of March fracture is the development of a tender lump on the back of the foot, which can be felt just below the midshaft of a metatarsal bone, usually the second one.

      While early radiology tests may not show any abnormalities, later tests may reveal a hairline fracture or the formation of callus in more severe cases. Fortunately, March fracture does not cause any displacement, so there is no need for reduction or splinting. Instead, normal walking is encouraged, and the forefoot may be supported with elastoplast to alleviate pain.

      It typically takes around five to six weeks for the pain to subside, as the fracture heals and unites. the symptoms and treatment options for March fracture can help individuals who engage in repetitive activities take the necessary precautions to prevent this common injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with Down syndrome visits his General Practitioner, accompanied by his father. He has been experiencing blurred vision for the past few months, along with headaches and eye fatigue. The blurred vision is more noticeable when looking at distant objects but can also be a problem when looking at closer objects.
      What is the most suitable initial investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Wavefront analysis technology

      Correct Answer: Retinoscopy

      Explanation:

      Investigating Astigmatism: Different Techniques and Their Uses

      When a young girl with Down syndrome presents with symptoms of blurred vision and eye strain, the first investigation that should be done is retinoscopy. This simple procedure can determine refractive errors such as astigmatism, which is a risk factor in this case. Any irregularities in the width of the retinal reflex can indicate astigmatism.

      Other techniques that can be used to investigate astigmatism include anterior segment optical coherence tomography, corneal topography, keratometry, and wavefront analysis technology. Anterior segment optical coherence tomography produces images of the cornea using optical light reflection and is useful for astigmatism caused by eye surgery. Corneal topography uses software to gather data about the dimensions of the cornea to develop colored maps that can display the axes of the cornea. Keratometry may be used to assess astigmatism, but it is less useful in cases of irregular astigmatism or when the corneal powers are too small or too big. Wavefront analysis technology is an emerging technology that can graphically present astigmatism on a map, but it is not widely used at present.

      In conclusion, the choice of investigation for astigmatism depends on the individual case and the specific needs of the patient. Retinoscopy is usually the first-line investigation, but other techniques may be used depending on the circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 48-year-old motorcyclist experiences a minor motor vehicle accident and damages his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old motorcyclist experiences a minor motor vehicle accident and damages his left shoulder. During the physical examination, he exhibits a positive belly press and lift-off test, as well as internal rotation weakness and heightened passive external rotation of the left arm.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus tear

      Correct Answer: Subscapularis tear

      Explanation:

      Rotator cuff injuries can cause pain during overhead activities and have specific physical exam findings. To test for a subscapularis tear, the patient is asked to internally rotate their arm against resistance while keeping their elbows at their side in 90 degrees of flexion. A positive lift-off test is when the patient is unable to lift their hand away from their back in internal rotation. The belly press test involves the patient pressing their abdomen with their palm while maintaining internal rotation of the shoulder. If the elbow drops back, it indicates deltoid recruitment and a positive test. The supraspinatus muscle is tested with Jobe’s test, which involves abducting the arm to 90 degrees, angled forward 30 degrees and internally rotated, then pressing down on the arm while the patient maintains position. A positive drop sign is when the patient cannot slowly lower their affected arm from a 90-degree position due to weakness or pain. A SLAP tear may be associated with rotator cuff tears and instability, and the O’Brien’s test can be used to diagnose it. The infraspinatus muscle is tested by external rotation when the arm is in neutral abduction/adduction, and the teres minor muscle is tested by external rotation with the arm held in 90 degrees of abduction. Hornblower’s sign is when the patient cannot hold their shoulder in 90 degrees of abduction and 90 degrees of external rotation and falls into internal rotation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A biochemist isolated a receptor from a cell and found that it was...

    Correct

    • A biochemist isolated a receptor from a cell and found that it was a two-chained structure composed of α and β polypeptide chains linked by disulfide bonds. Further analysis revealed that the receptor consisted of transmembrane glycoproteins with short cytoplasmic tails and had a single antigen-binding site.
      Which of the following cells most likely contained this receptor if the biochemist had isolated it from a cell of a 60-year-old individual?

      Your Answer: T cell

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Immune Cells: T Cell, Mast Cell, B Cell, Dendritic Cell, and Kupffer Cell

      The immune system is composed of various types of cells that work together to protect the body from foreign invaders. Among these cells are T cells, mast cells, B cells, dendritic cells, and Kupffer cells.

      T cells are characterized by their T-cell receptors (TCRs), which are composed of polypeptide a and b chains connected by disulfide bonds. Each chain of the TCR has a variable and a constant region that folds into an immunoglobulin (Ig)-like domain.

      Mast cells, on the other hand, contain numerous granulocytes and secrete histamine when stimulated. They do not have TCRs.

      B cells have a B-cell receptor (BCR), which is a complex of Ig-a and Ig-b (signal transducers) associated with membrane Ig molecules. The BCR has two antigen-binding sites.

      Dendritic cells are resident macrophages found in the skin. They do not have TCRs.

      Kupffer cells are resident macrophages found in the liver. Like dendritic cells, they do not have TCRs.

      Understanding the characteristics of these immune cells is crucial in developing strategies to combat diseases and infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old Indian woman contacts her doctor for guidance. She is currently 12...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old Indian woman contacts her doctor for guidance. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and had been taking care of her nephew who has chickenpox. The patient spent a considerable amount of time with her nephew and had close physical contact like hugging. The patient is feeling fine and has no noticeable symptoms. She is unsure if she has had chickenpox before.
      What would be the best course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Check antibody levels

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, it can lead to serious complications for both her and the developing fetus. To prevent this, the first step is to check the woman’s immune status by testing for varicella antibodies. If she is found to be non-immune, she should be given varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) as soon as possible for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP). This can be arranged by the GP, although the midwife should also be informed.

      If the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant and non-immune, VZIG should be given within 10 days of exposure. If she is more than 20 weeks pregnant and develops chickenpox, oral acyclovir or an equivalent antiviral should be started within 24 hours of rash onset. If the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant, specialist advice should be sought.

      It is important to take action if the woman is found to be non-immune, as providing only reassurance is not appropriate in this situation. By administering VZIG or antivirals, the risk of complications for both the woman and the fetus can be greatly reduced.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. She has a medical history of polycystic kidney disease and is currently taking alfacalcidol, ramipril, Renagel, and EPO injections. Her eGFR upon admission is 24 ml/min/1.73 m2. What analgesic would you recommend for her pain?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen 400 mg TDS

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol 1 g QDS

      Explanation:

      Medication Considerations for Patients with Renal Dysfunction

      Patients with renal dysfunction should avoid taking NSAIDs as they can worsen their condition and increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is already a common complication of chronic renal failure. Instead, alternative pain management options should be explored. If opiates are necessary, they should be prescribed with caution as they can accumulate in the body due to reduced renal excretion, especially in patients who have not previously taken them. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a patient with renal dysfunction. Proper medication management can help prevent further damage to the kidneys and improve overall patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman is experiencing constipation and undergoes diagnostic imaging, which reveals a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is experiencing constipation and undergoes diagnostic imaging, which reveals a sigmoid volvulus. What are the most likely direct branches of the arteries that supply blood to this part of the colon?

      Your Answer: Left common iliac artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries Involved in Sigmoid Colon Volvulus

      Sigmoid colon volvulus is a condition where a part of the colon twists and rotates, causing obstruction and ischemia. The following arteries are involved in this condition:

      1. Inferior mesenteric artery: The sigmoid colon is directly supplied by the sigmoid arteries, which branch directly from the inferior mesenteric artery.

      2. Ileocolic artery: The ileocolic artery is the terminal branch of the superior mesenteric artery and supplies the ileum, caecum, and ascending colon.

      3. Left common iliac artery: The left common iliac artery branches into the left external and internal iliac arteries, which supply the lower limbs and pelvis, including the rectum.

      4. Superior mesenteric artery: The superior mesenteric artery originates from the abdominal aorta and supplies the caecum, ascending colon, and transverse colon. However, the sigmoid colon is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      While the inferior mesenteric artery is the most specific artery involved in sigmoid colon volvulus, understanding the other arteries can also aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 60-year-old man with hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia experienced severe central chest pain lasting...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia experienced severe central chest pain lasting one hour. His electrocardiogram (ECG) in the ambulance reveals anterolateral ST segment elevation. Although his symptoms stabilized with medical treatment in the ambulance, he suddenly passed away while en route to the hospital.
      What is the probable reason for his deterioration and death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular arrhythmia

      Explanation:

      Complications of Myocardial Infarction

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious medical condition that can lead to various complications. Among these complications, ventricular arrhythmia is the most common cause of death. Malignant ventricular arrhythmias require immediate direct current (DC) electrical therapy to terminate the arrhythmias. Mural thrombosis, although it may cause systemic emboli, is not a common cause of death. Myocardial wall rupture and muscular rupture typically occur 4-7 days post-infarction, while papillary muscle rupture is also a possibility. Pulmonary edema, which can be life-threatening, is accompanied by symptoms of breathlessness and orthopnea. However, it can be treated effectively with oxygen, positive pressure therapy, and vasodilators.

      Understanding the Complications of Myocardial Infarction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (4/4) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (0/2) 0%
Obstetrics (1/4) 25%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Surgery (0/3) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
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