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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the features below, following a head injury, is not an indication for an immediate CT head scan in adolescents?
Your Answer: A single, discrete episode of vomiting
Explanation:Although immediate CT is not necessary, patients should be admitted and closely monitored with a low threshold.
Criteria for Immediate CT Scan of Head in Paediatric Head Injury Cases
Head injuries in children can be serious and require immediate medical attention. In some cases, a CT scan of the head may be necessary to assess the extent of the injury. The following criteria are used to determine when an immediate CT scan is required:
– Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
– Amnesia (antegrade or retrograde) lasting more than 5 minutes
– Abnormal drowsiness
– Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
– Clinical suspicion of non-accidental injury
– Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
– GCS less than 14, or for a baby under 1 year GCS (paediatric) less than 15, on assessment in the emergency department
– Suspicion of open or depressed skull injury or tense fontanelle
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– Focal neurological deficit
– If under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head
– Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident either as pedestrian, cyclist or vehicle occupant, fall from a height of greater than 3 m, high-speed injury from a projectile or an object)It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to promptly order a CT scan when necessary to ensure the best possible outcome for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A twenty-five-year-old male with Crohn's disease is admitted to the gastroenterology ward. Despite infliximab therapy, the patient's symptoms persist, and he complains of abdominal pain and high output through his stoma. On examination, he appears pale and cachectic, with a heart rate of 74/minute, regular respiratory rate of 14/minute, oxygen saturations of 99%, temperature of 38.2 ºC, and blood pressure of 122/74 mmHg. The stoma bag is situated in the left iliac fossa, and the stoma site is pink and spouted without evidence of infarction or parastomal hernias. What type of stoma does this patient have?
Your Answer: Ileostomy
Explanation:An ileostomy is a type of stoma that is created to prevent the skin from being exposed to the enzymes in the small intestine. This is commonly seen in patients with Crohn’s disease, which affects the entire gastrointestinal tract. While the location of the stoma may vary, it is the structure of the stoma itself that determines whether it is an ileostomy or a colostomy. In contrast, a tracheostomy is an opening in the trachea, while a nephrostomy is an opening in the kidneys that is used to drain urine into a bag. A urostomy is another type of stoma that is used to divert urine from the urinary system into a bag, but it differs from an ileostomy in that it involves the use of an ileal conduit.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be sprouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with an acutely swollen and red left leg, which she reports first noticing around 12-hours ago. She denies any medical conditions, medications, or family history of similar events. A negative pregnancy test rules out pregnancy. Upon examination and doppler ultrasound scan, she is diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Routine blood tests reveal thrombocytopenia and a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), leading to an antibody screen and a subsequent diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome. What is the most appropriate long-term anticoagulation strategy for this patient?
Your Answer: Lifelong warfarin
Explanation:Patients with antiphospholipid syndrome who have experienced their first venous-thromboembolism (VTE) should be on warfarin for the rest of their lives. This autoimmune condition increases the risk of arterial and venous thrombosis and is characterized by CLOTS (clots, livedo reticularis, obstetric complications, and thrombocytopenia). If a patient is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome but has not had a VTE, they should take low-dose aspirin daily as a preventive measure. Pregnant patients may be treated with LMWH, but in this case, the patient requires lifelong anticoagulation with warfarin. A 6-month course of anticoagulation is insufficient, and warfarin is the preferred anticoagulant for non-pregnant patients without comorbidities.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Correct
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In which part of the gastrointestinal system is water mainly taken up?
Your Answer: Small intestine
Explanation:The Function of the Large Intestine
Although many people believe that the primary function of the large intestine is to absorb water, this is not entirely accurate. In fact, the majority of water and fluids that are ingested or secreted are actually reabsorbed in the small intestine, which is located before the large intestine in the digestive tract. While the large intestine does play a role in absorbing some water and electrolytes, its primary function is to store and eliminate waste products from the body. This is achieved through the formation of feces, which are then eliminated through the rectum and anus. Overall, while the large intestine is an important part of the digestive system, its function is more complex than simply absorbing water.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain. She also reports experiencing pain in her right shoulder. What investigation would be the most helpful in managing this patient further?
Your Answer: Urine β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG)
Explanation:The Importance of Urine Pregnancy Testing in Females with Abdominal Pain
Any female of childbearing age who presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain should have a urinary pregnancy test performed (β-HCG). This is because a negative pregnancy test is necessary to confirm that the patient is not pregnant. It is an easy and inexpensive test to perform.
Shoulder tip pain may indicate diaphragmatic irritation secondary to free intraperitoneal fluid, which can be caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. However, a full blood count (FBC) and urea and electrolytes (U & Es) will not diagnose a potential ruptured ectopic pregnancy and, as such, will not guide subsequent management.
An erect chest X-ray may be requested if perforation is suspected, but a urine pregnancy test would be much more useful in this scenario. An abdominal X-ray is not indicated.
In summary, a urine pregnancy test is crucial in females of childbearing age with abdominal pain to rule out pregnancy and potentially diagnose a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman visits the clinic for her initial cervical smear as a part of the national screening initiative. She seeks guidance on the risk factors associated with cervical cancer. What is accurate regarding her risk?
Your Answer: Women who smoke are at a two-fold increased risk than women who do not
Explanation:Smoking doubles the risk of cervical cancer in women compared to non-smokers. Other risk factors include increased parity, use of oral contraceptives, early first intercourse, and HPV vaccination does not eliminate the need for cervical screening.
Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV
Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.
The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.
The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is seen by the orthopaedic specialist after experiencing a worsening limp for 4 weeks. Her blood tests were normal, and x-rays revealed a hip joint effusion without any significant femoral head structural abnormalities. The doctor diagnosed her with Perthes' disease. What would be the most suitable initial management plan for this child?
Your Answer: Observation
Explanation:If Perthes’ disease is diagnosed in children under the age of 6 years and there is no significant collapse of the femoral head or gross structural abnormalities, observation is the recommended course of action. This involves regular x-rays, monitoring, and physiotherapy. The Pavlik harness, serial casting, and steroid injections are not appropriate treatments for this condition.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with new lower back pain. The pain started yesterday when she was lifting a heavy item at her workplace. She is otherwise fit and well, and not on any regular medications.
Which of the following features would suggest an urgent hospital admission should be arranged?Your Answer: Loss of perineal sensation
Explanation:Assessing Symptoms of Lower Back Pain: Red Flags and Reassuring Signs
Lower back pain is a common complaint, but it can sometimes be a sign of a more serious condition. Here are some symptoms to look out for:
– Loss of perineal sensation: This is a red flag symptom for cauda equina syndrome, a surgical emergency. Urgent admission should be arranged if suspected.
– Shooting pain down the leg: This is a common symptom of sciatica, which is typically not alarming unless accompanied by red flag symptoms.
– Back pain worsened by coughing or sneezing: This is a common feature of back pain and is not alarming unless accompanied by red flag symptoms.
– Downgoing plantar reflexes: This is a reassuring finding and indicates normal plantar reflexes.
– Pain remaining after 1 week: Acute lower back pain typically improves over 4-6 weeks, so it is not unusual for pain to remain after 1 week. Referral to physiotherapy may be warranted if the patient is not resuming their normal activities.It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosurgery
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which statement about childhood squints is accurate?
Your Answer: Management of the majority of childhood squints should be done in primary care
Correct Answer: The corneal light reflection test is a suitable screening test
Explanation:Both paralytic and non-paralytic squints can lead to the development of amblyopia.
Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.
To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.
If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the correct vertebral level and corresponding structure?
Your Answer: T12 and oesophageal opening in the diaphragm
Correct Answer: C4 and bifurcation of the carotid artery
Explanation:Anatomy Landmarks and Openings
The human body has several anatomical landmarks and openings that are important to know for medical professionals. The carotid artery, which supplies blood to the brain, bifurcates at the level of C4. The manubriosternal joint, also known as the angle of Louis, is located at the T4/5 intervertebral disk level. The aortic opening, which allows the aorta to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T12. The caval opening, which allows the inferior vena cava to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T8. Finally, the oesophageal opening of the diaphragm is located at T10. To remember the order of these openings, medical professionals often use the mnemonic Voice Of America – Vena cava at T8, Oesophagus at T10, and Aorta at T12. these landmarks and openings is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are urgently called to the Surgical Ward to assess a 45-year-old man who has just returned from Theatre after a stoma reversal. The nursing staff have reported that he appears drowsy, and on assessment, his blood pressure is 70/42 mmHg, heart rate is 120 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation is 98%, and temperature is 36.7 °C. On examination, he is difficult to rouse and has a thready pulse. Chest sounds are clear, with normal heart sounds and soft calves. He groans when you palpate his abdomen. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
Your Answer: Return to Theatre for diagnostic laparotomy
Correct Answer: Bloods, including full blood count and crossmatch
Explanation:Appropriate Investigations for a Patient with Post-Operative Shock
Post-operative shock can occur for various reasons, including blood loss, infection, and pulmonary embolism. In this scenario, a patient has undergone extensive abdominal surgery and is experiencing significant hypotension and tachycardia, making a post-operative bleed highly likely. Here are some appropriate investigations for this patient:
Bloods, including full blood count and crossmatch: A full blood count can help identify a drop in hemoglobin, while crossmatch is necessary as the patient may require a transfusion.
Chest X-ray: This investigation is not necessary as there is no indication of chest-related issues.
Computerised tomography (CT) of abdomen: If the patient can be stabilized, a CT scan can help determine if there is an intra-abdominal cause for the deterioration.
D-dimer: This investigation is not necessary as there is no strong suspicion of pulmonary embolism.
Return to Theatre for diagnostic laparotomy: This is a possibility if the patient cannot be stabilized on the ward and there is a strong suspicion of an intra-abdominal bleed. However, baseline bloods, including crossmatch, would be required before surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A couple, one male and one female, seek genetic counselling as a family member has been diagnosed with sickle cell anaemia, an autosomal recessive condition. After testing, it is discovered that both individuals are carriers of sickle cell anaemia. The woman is currently 16 weeks pregnant.
What is the likelihood that their unborn child will also be a carrier of sickle cell anaemia?Your Answer: 75%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:The statement is incorrect because if at least one parent is a carrier of sickle cell anemia, there is a probability greater than zero.
Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.
When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.
Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and can be life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. Understanding the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders is crucial in genetic counseling and family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a change in the shape of her left breast and a lump under her left armpit. She has previously undergone breast augmentation surgery which makes examination difficult, but there is a noticeable difference in the appearance of her breasts. She has no family history or other risk factors for breast cancer. The GP refers her to a specialist who performs an ultrasound of her breast and axilla. The ultrasound reveals a 'snowstorm' sign in the left breast and axillary lymph node. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Implant rupture
Explanation:The presence of the ‘snowstorm’ sign on ultrasound of axillary lymph nodes is indicative of extracapsular breast implant rupture. This occurs when silicone leaks out of the implant and travels through the lymphatic system, resulting in the ‘snowstorm appearance’ in both the breast and lymph nodes. The absence of infection or systemic illness suggests that an abscess is not the cause. While the presence of an axillary lump with any breast change raises suspicion of malignancy, implant rupture is the more probable diagnosis. To confirm whether it is LC, DC, or lymphoma, a biopsy for histology would be necessary.
Non-Malignant Breast Conditions
Duct ectasia is a common condition that affects up to 25% of normal female breasts. It is a variant of breast involution and is not the same as periductal mastitis. Patients with duct ectasia typically present with nipple discharge, which may be from single or multiple ducts and is often thick and green. This condition is usually seen in women over the age of 50.
Periductal mastitis, on the other hand, is more commonly seen in younger women and may present with features of inflammation, abscess, or mammary duct fistula. It is strongly associated with smoking and is usually treated with antibiotics. An abscess will require drainage.
Intraductal papilloma is a growth of papilloma in a single duct and usually presents with clear or blood-stained discharge originating from a single duct. There is no increase in the risk of malignancy.
Breast abscesses are common in lactating women and are usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus infection. On examination, there is usually a tender fluctuant mass. Treatment is with antibiotics and ultrasound-guided aspiration. Overlying skin necrosis is an indication for surgical debridement, which may be complicated by the development of a subsequent mammary duct fistula.
Tuberculosis is a rare condition in western countries and is usually secondary TB. It affects women later in their childbearing period, and a chronic breast or axillary sinus is present in up to 50% of cases. Diagnosis is by biopsy culture and histology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 14
Correct
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A father attends his GP to discuss concerns he has about his 12-year-old daughter. Since the age of three, she has had a lot of routines, such as how she organizes her toys and which way she walks to school, and is very rigid about following them. She does not cope at all well with changes to the routine. She struggles to make friends and seems very uncomfortable in social situations. Apart from going to school, she avoids meeting children; she has been to a few birthday parties, but she was very clingy to her father and demanded to be taken home after a few minutes. On examination, the GP is unable to build a rapport with the girl, as she refuses to speak and will not maintain eye contact. She appears fidgety and gets up and down out of her chair on several occasions to try and leave the room. You suspect a diagnosis but advise her father that more assessment will be needed to confirm a diagnosis.
The sign to support the diagnosis is the child's rigid adherence to routines and difficulty coping with changes to the routine, as well as their struggles with social situations and avoidance of meeting other children.Your Answer: Less than ten spoken words by age two years
Explanation:Developmental Milestones and Red Flags in Early Childhood
By the age of two years, children should be using 50 or more words. If they do not meet this milestone, there may be a social, speech or hearing issue that needs to be assessed by a paediatric team. Lack of spoken words could be a sign of autistic spectrum disorder (ASD).
A lack of social smile by age three months is considered abnormal and could indicate a social, visual, or cognitive problem. However, it may also signal ASD in some cases.
Parallel play is normal behavior for two-year-olds. They will happily play next to each other but rarely play with each other. It isn’t until the age of three when they usually start to involve other children in playing.
Separation anxiety from parents or carers at age ten months is normal behavior. Children can become upset if they are not with their parents or carer until the new person becomes more familiar to them, usually between the ages of six months and three years.
Temper tantrums at age 18 months are normal behavior. However, if these tantrums persist into later childhood, it could indicate a social or developmental problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with episodes of cyanosis during physical activity. He was born at term via normal vaginal delivery, without complications during pregnancy. The child has been healthy, but recently started experiencing bluish skin during physical activity.
After examination, the child is diagnosed with Fallot's tetralogy.
What is a common association with a patient diagnosed with Fallot's tetralogy?Your Answer: Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Explanation:Common Heart Conditions and Their Characteristics
Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD), Pulmonary Stenosis, Right Ventricular Outflow Tract (RVOT) Obstruction, Right Ventricular Hypertrophy, and Overriding of the VSD by the Aorta are all characteristics of Fallot’s Tetralogy, the most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease. This condition presents with cyanotic episodes, typically at 1-2 months of age. Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) is not associated with Fallot’s Tetralogy. Pulmonary Regurgitation is not seen in Fallot’s Tetralogy, but rather Pulmonary Stenosis. A Continuous Murmur throughout Systole and Diastole is a characteristic of Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA). Hypoplastic Right Ventricle is not associated with Fallot’s Tetralogy, but rather Right Ventricular Hypertrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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As an F2 in psychiatry, you come across the notes of a 27-year-old man who is noted to prefer solitude, has never been in a romantic relationship, and has no desire for one. He also displays minimal interest in engaging in sexual activities with others. Despite performing well at work, he places little importance on feedback from his colleagues. Based on this information, which personality disorder is most likely present in this individual?
Your Answer: Antisocial
Correct Answer: Schizoid
Explanation:Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a preference for solitude, a lack of interest in close relationships, and a low libido. It is important to note that while asexuality is recognized as part of the LGBTQ+ spectrum, it is not included in the diagnostic criteria for this disorder. The DSM-5 and ICD-10 both list a lack of desire for close relationships, a preference for solitary activities, and a limited capacity for expressing emotions as key features of schizoid personality disorder. Individuals with this disorder may also appear indifferent to praise or criticism, lack close friends or confidants, and exhibit emotional detachment or flattened affectivity. In contrast, borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability in relationships, including sudden mood swings, rages, self-harming behaviors, and intense jealousy. Dependent personality disorder involves a reliance on others for reassurance and decision-making.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis visited her GP complaining of redness in her right eye. She mentioned experiencing mild discomfort and irritation with occasional watering of the eye. However, she denied any dryness or significant pain. The examination of her pupils revealed no abnormalities, and she did not experience any discomfort when exposed to light. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Keratitis
Correct Answer: Episcleritis
Explanation:Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.
The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.
In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.
Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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During the baby check of Maya, a 4-day-old neonate delivered via Caesarean section due to a breech position, both Barlows and Ortolani's tests are negative. What should be the next best step?
Your Answer: Perform a bilateral hip radiograph at 4-6 weeks
Correct Answer: Perform a bilateral hip ultrasound at 4-6 weeks
Explanation:The Importance of Bilateral Hip Ultrasound in Newborns with Risk Factors for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
Babies with risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip require further investigation even if they test negative on Barlows and Ortolani’s tests. National guidelines recommend a bilateral hip ultrasound at 4-6 weeks for these infants. If the Barlow’s or Ortolani’s tests are abnormal, a scan should be done within 2 weeks. In cases where the baby was in the breech position at term but had negative test results, a hip ultrasound is still necessary. It is important to reassure parents that this is a normal procedure and that no treatment may be necessary. Bilateral hip radiographs are not useful in neonates and MRI is not used in the diagnosis of developmental dysplasia of the hip. Operative approaches are only recommended for patients over 18 months of age, and conservative approaches are preferred for younger children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What are the possible causes of cyanosis in a newborn?
Your Answer: VSD
Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:Common Heart Conditions and Their Characteristics
Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a heart condition where there is a hole in the wall that separates the two lower chambers of the heart. This results in a left to right shunt, which means that oxygen-rich blood from the left side of the heart flows into the right side of the heart and mixes with oxygen-poor blood. This can lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and poor growth in infants.
Coarctation is another heart condition where there is a narrowing of the aortic arch, which is the main blood vessel that carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body. This narrowing can cause high blood pressure in the arms and head, while the lower body receives less blood flow. Symptoms may include headaches, dizziness, and leg cramps.
Hyperbilirubinaemia, on the other hand, is not associated with cyanosis, which is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood. Hyperbilirubinaemia is a condition where there is an excess of bilirubin in the blood, which can cause yellowing of the skin and eyes.
Lastly, Eisenmenger syndrome is a rare but serious complication that can develop much later in life following a left to right shunt, such as in VSD. This occurs when the shunt reverses and becomes a right to left shunt, leading to low oxygen levels in the blood and cyanosis. Symptoms may include shortness of breath, fatigue, and heart palpitations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 50-year-old male presents to his doctor with severe groin pain that has been increasing for the past two days. He also reports developing a fever. He lives with his wife and has no other sexual partners. He is in good health and takes tamsulosin regularly. Upon examination, the doctor notes acute tenderness and swelling in the right testis, leading to a diagnosis of epididymo-orchitis. What is the most probable organism responsible for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Orchitis typically affects post-pubertal males and usually occurs 5-7 days after infection. It is important to note that the relief of pain when the testis is elevated, known as a positive Prehn’s sign, is not present in cases of testicular torsion.
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.
Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is being seen on the postnatal ward 3 days after an uncomplicated, elective lower-segment caesarean section. This is her first child and she is eager to exclusively breastfeed. Her lochia is normal and she is able to move around independently. She is scheduled to be discharged later in the day and is interested in starting contraception right away. She has previously used both the combined oral contraceptive pill and an intrauterine device, both of which worked well for her. What options should be presented to her?
Your Answer: Intrauterine device fitting in hospital before she is discharged
Correct Answer: Progesterone-only pill to start immediately
Explanation:Women who have recently given birth, whether they are breastfeeding or not, can begin taking the progesterone-only pill at any time. However, for this patient who is only 2 days postpartum, it is recommended to prescribe the progesterone-only pill as it does not contain estrogen and is less likely to affect milk production. Additionally, it does not increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, which is a concern for postpartum women until 21-28 days after giving birth. The combined oral contraceptive pill should be avoided until 21 days postpartum due to the risk of thrombosis and reduced breast milk production. The patient cannot resume her previous contraceptives at this time. While an intrauterine device can be inserted during a caesarean section, it is advisable to wait 4-6 weeks postpartum before having it inserted vaginally. It is incorrect to tell the patient that she cannot use any contraception if she wishes to breastfeed, as the progesterone-only pill has been shown to have minimal effect on milk production in breastfeeding women.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male presents to the cardiology clinic with complaints of weight loss, lethargy, and diarrhea. Upon examination, he is found to be tremulous, tachycardic, and has a palpable goiter. His thyroid function tests reveal a TSH level of <0.02 mU/L (normal range: 0.5-5), a free T4 level of 45 pmol/L (normal range: 9-23), and a free T3 level of 6.0 pmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.5). Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Flecainide
Correct Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Thyroid Disorders Caused by Amiodarone
Amiodarone is a medication that contains iodine and can lead to thyroid function disorders. These disorders can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism is more common in areas where iodine intake is normal, while hyperthyroidism is more common in areas where iodine intake is low. Hyperthyroidism can be classified as type 1 when it is associated with an underlying thyroid abnormality or type 2 when it presents as a thyroiditis. Unfortunately, the condition can be refractory, and the drug often has to be discontinued. Treatment with carbimazole or propylthiouracil is often necessary to manage the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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A 24-year-old medical student presents to the emergency department accompanied by his partner, reporting a 10-hour history of aggression, irritability, and hallucinations. The partner suspects a mental breakdown due to sleep deprivation from studying for exams. Laboratory tests for drugs and infection are negative. The patient is admitted for observation and returns to baseline the following day.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Brief psychotic disorder
Explanation:The correct answer is Brief psychotic disorder, which is a short-term disturbance characterized by the sudden onset of at least one positive psychotic symptom. These symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior. The disorder often resolves with a return to baseline functioning. Adjustment disorder, bipolar disorder, and schizoaffective disorder are not the correct answers as they are different mental health conditions with distinct symptoms and characteristics.
Understanding Psychosis
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man, who has been a diabetic for over 20 years, visits his GP for a routine check-up. During the appointment, he mentions to his doctor that he has been experiencing difficulty with his vision in his right eye for the past few months. He describes it as blurry vision and seeing halos around lights at night. The man has never had any vision problems before. He is currently taking medications for his high blood pressure and cholesterol levels. Other than his vision, his physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis for the man's symptoms?
Your Answer: Diabetic retinopathy
Correct Answer: Cataract
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and medical history strongly suggest a diagnosis of cataract. Their elderly age, long-standing diabetes mellitus, and unilateral blurry vision with halos around light sources are all classic signs of cataract. There is no indication of steroid use, which can also increase the risk of cataract development.
While primary open-angle glaucoma is a possibility, it is less likely given the patient’s symptoms. This condition typically presents with peripheral visual field loss rather than blurry vision. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is also a possibility, but it is more commonly associated with halos than primary open-angle glaucoma.
Uveitis is unlikely given the absence of pain and redness in the eye. Additionally, it is not typically associated with diabetes. Diabetic retinopathy is another possibility in this patient, but it is often asymptomatic or presents with hemorrhage.
Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and distention. She has been feeling unwell for the past 4 hours and she has vomited three times. Her past medical history includes hypertension and an appendicectomy in her late 40s. On examination, her abdomen is distended but not peritonitic, with absent bowel sounds. Her electrolytes were assessed and are as follows:
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 105 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 1.1 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
What is the first-line management for her condition?Your Answer: Intravenous fluids and surgery
Correct Answer: Nasogastric tube insertion and intravenous fluids with additional potassium
Explanation:The initial medical management for small bowel obstruction involves the insertion of a nasogastric tube to decompress the small bowel and the administration of intravenous fluids with additional potassium. This is the correct answer as the patient is exhibiting classic symptoms of small bowel obstruction, including intense abdominal pain and early vomiting, and has a history of abdominal surgery that could have caused adhesions, the most common cause of this condition. The intravenous fluids are necessary to replace electrolytes, particularly potassium, which can be lost due to the increased peristalsis and enlargement of the proximal bowel segment. Antibiotics and intravenous fluids would be the appropriate treatment for acute pancreatitis, which presents with different symptoms and causes. Surgery is not the first-line management for small bowel obstruction, and sigmoidoscope insertion with a flatus tube is not appropriate as the patient has small bowel obstruction, not large bowel obstruction.
Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to his doctor with complaints of night sweats and unintended weight loss. He has a medical history of axillary lymphadenopathy. The doctor suspects that he may have non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the most probable test to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Core needle biopsy of an enlarged lymph node
Correct Answer: Excisional biopsy of an enlarged lymph node
Explanation:Diagnostic Investigations for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system. There are several diagnostic investigations that can be used to diagnose this condition.
Excisional Biopsy of an Enlarged Lymph Node: This is the most common diagnostic investigation for suspected non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It involves removing all of the abnormal tissue from an enlarged lymph node.
Computed Tomography (CT) of the Chest, Neck, Abdomen, and Pelvis: CT scanning can indicate features suggestive of lymphoma, such as lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. However, it cannot provide a tissue diagnosis.
Core Needle Biopsy of an Enlarged Lymph Node: If a surgical excisional biopsy is not appropriate, a core needle biopsy can be performed. However, if this does not reveal a definite diagnosis, then an excisional biopsy should be undertaken.
Full Blood Count: A full blood count can be a helpful first-line investigation if a haematological malignancy is suspected, but it is not sufficient to be diagnostic for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Protein Electrophoresis and Urine Bence-Jones Protein: Protein electrophoresis can be helpful in screening for multiple myeloma, but it is not helpful for diagnosing non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic investigations can be used to diagnose non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. However, excisional biopsy remains the gold standard for diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation and prostate cancer is undergoing a laparotomy for small bowel obstruction. His temperature during the operation is recorded at 34.8 ºC and his blood pressure is 98/57 mmHg. The surgeon observes that the patient is experiencing more bleeding than anticipated. What could be causing the excessive bleeding?
Your Answer: Intra-operative hypotension
Correct Answer: Intra-operative hypothermia
Explanation:During the perioperative period, thermoregulation is hindered due to various factors such as the use of unwarmed intravenous fluids, exposure to a cold theatre environment, cool skin preparation fluids, and muscle relaxants that prevent shivering. Additionally, spinal or epidural anesthesia can lead to increased heat loss at the peripheries by reducing sympathetic tone and preventing peripheral vasoconstriction. The consequences of hypothermia can be significant, as it can affect the function of proteins and enzymes in the body, leading to slower metabolism of anesthetic drugs and reduced effectiveness of platelets, coagulation factors, and the immune system. Tranexamic acid, an anti-fibrinolytic medication used in trauma and major hemorrhage, can prevent the breakdown of fibrin. Intraoperative hypertension may cause excess bleeding, while active malignancy can lead to a hypercoagulable state. However, tumors may also have friable vessels due to neovascularization, which can result in excessive bleeding if cut erroneously. To prevent excessive bleeding, warfarin is typically stopped prior to surgery.
Managing Patient Temperature in the Perioperative Period
Thermoregulation in the perioperative period involves managing a patient’s temperature from one hour before surgery until 24 hours after the surgery. The focus is on preventing hypothermia, which is more common than hyperthermia. Hypothermia is defined as a temperature of less than 36.0ºC. NICE has produced a clinical guideline for suggested management of patient temperature. Patients are more likely to become hypothermic while under anesthesia due to the effects of anesthesia drugs and the fact that they are often wearing little clothing with large body areas exposed.
There are several risk factors for perioperative hypothermia, including ASA grade of 2 or above, major surgery, low body weight, large volumes of unwarmed IV infusions, and unwarmed blood transfusions. The pre-operative phase starts one hour before induction of anesthesia. The patient’s temperature should be measured, and if it is lower than 36.0ºC, active warming should be commenced immediately. During the intra-operative phase, forced air warming devices should be used for any patient with an anesthetic duration of more than 30 minutes or for patients at high risk of perioperative hypothermia regardless of anesthetic duration.
In the post-operative phase, the patient’s temperature should be documented initially and then repeated every 15 minutes until transfer to the ward. Patients should not be transferred to the ward if their temperature is less than 36.0ºC. Complications of perioperative hypothermia include coagulopathy, prolonged recovery from anesthesia, reduced wound healing, infection, and shivering. Managing patient temperature in the perioperative period is essential to ensure good outcomes, as even slight reductions in temperature can have significant effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 28
Correct
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A 72-year-old male patient arrives in hospital with a hip fracture. His wife mentions that he drinks around two bottles of wine per day. He is prescribed chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine, for alcohol withdrawal.
What is the reason for using this medication in this situation?Your Answer: Alcohol withdrawal leads to gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) deficiency; benzodiazepines facilitate GABA-A binding to its receptor
Explanation:A 79-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter who has noticed that he is becoming increasingly forgetful and unsteady on his feet. Unfortunately his daughter does not know anything about his previous medical history or whether he takes any medications. Routine investigations reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular value 101 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 x 109/
Sodium 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 1.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatine 78 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Random blood sugar 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Given these results, which is the most likely cause of his symptoms? -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman is referred to the rheumatology clinic by her general practitioner due to a macular rash on her back and shoulders, as well as red papules on the extensor surfaces of her fingers. Upon examination, these symptoms persist, and she reports experiencing weakness and pain in both shoulders, as well as difficulty swallowing. The patient has no significant medical history but is a smoker. What additional investigations are required for this patient's most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Antinuclear antibodies
Correct Answer: Malignancy screen
Explanation:The presence of antinuclear antibodies is not specific to dermatomyositis and can be elevated in other autoimmune conditions, such as lupus or antiphospholipid syndrome. Therefore, it should not be relied upon as a diagnostic test. While an electromyogram may be helpful in some cases, it is not essential for the diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Instead, screening for an underlying malignancy is a more important investigation. Fundoscopy is not necessary in this case as there are no ocular symptoms present.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a private ultrasound which revealed dichorionic, diamniotic twins. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and a BMI of 38 kg/m². Although she has been smoking during her pregnancy, she has reduced her intake from 20 to 5 cigarettes per day and is interested in trying nicotine replacement therapy. Her main concern is that both her mother and sister suffered from hyperemesis gravidarum. What factor in her history is linked to a lower likelihood of developing this condition?
Your Answer: Primigravida
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Smoking has been found to decrease the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum, which is believed to occur due to rapidly rising levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) and oestrogen. This is because smoking is considered to be anti-oestrogenic. Therefore, despite having other risk factors, the fact that the patient is a smoker may decrease her incidence of hyperemesis gravidarum. On the other hand, hypothyroidism is not a risk factor, but hyperthyroidism increases the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum. Obesity and underweight are associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but women with these conditions who smoked before pregnancy have been found to have no increased risk. Primigravida status is also associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but the reason for this is not clear. Finally, twin pregnancies carry an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum due to higher levels of beta-hCG released from the placenta.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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