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  • Question 1 - A woman is in labour with her first child. The midwife becomes concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A woman is in labour with her first child. The midwife becomes concerned that the cardiotocograph is showing late decelerations. She is reviewed by the obstetrician on-call who states that there is fetal compromise, but no immediate risk to life. A category two caesarean section is planned.

      What is the timeframe for the delivery to be performed?

      Your Answer: Within 90 minutes

      Correct Answer: Within 75 minutes

      Explanation:

      Category 2 caesarean sections must be carried out within 75 minutes of the decision being made. This category is used when there is fetal or maternal compromise that is not immediately life-threatening. The delivery should be planned as soon as possible, but the target time is within 60-75 minutes. Category 1 caesarean section, on the other hand, is used when there is an immediate threat to the life of the woman or fetus, and the procedure should be performed within 30 minutes.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis....

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis. He had been managing it well with phototherapy six months ago, but recently his condition has worsened. He is currently using topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment, and topical hydromol ointment, and is taking amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. He is in good health otherwise.

      During the examination, he has an erythematosus rash that covers most of his torso, with widespread plaques on his limbs and neck. The rash is tender and warm, and he is shivering. There are no oral lesions. His heart rate is 101 bpm, blood pressure is 91/45 mmHg, and temperature is 37.7 °C.

      What is the most crucial next step in treating this man?

      Your Answer: Arrange hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Erythrodermic Psoriasis

      Erythrodermic psoriasis is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient presenting with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. Supportive care, including IV fluids, cool wet dressings, and a systemic agent, is necessary. The choice of systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. Discontinuing amoxicillin is crucial as it can cause Stevens–Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, admission is essential in both emergency presentations. Starting ciclosporin or methotrexate orally is not appropriate without investigations. Repeat phototherapy should be avoided as it can worsen erythroderma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of haematuria. He has...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of haematuria. He has a history of chronic atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. His blood tests reveal a Hb level of 112g/L and an INR of 9, but he is stable hemodynamically. The consulting physician recommends reversing the effects of warfarin. What blood product/s would be the most appropriate choice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prothrombin concentrate ('Octaplex')

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Warfarin Reversal

      Prothrombin concentrates are the preferred treatment for reversing the effects of warfarin in cases of active bleeding and a significantly elevated INR. While packed cells are important for managing severe bleeding, they are not the recommended treatment for warfarin reversal. Cryoprecipitate, recombinant factor VII, and platelets are also not indicated for reversing the effects of warfarin. It is important to choose the appropriate treatment option based on the patient’s individual needs and medical history. Proper management of warfarin reversal can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man complains of stiffness and pain in his right shoulder. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot internally or externally rotate or abduct the shoulder. The patient has a history of diabetes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rotator cuff tendonitis

      Correct Answer: Adhesive capsulitis

      Explanation:

      Common Shoulder Conditions and Their Symptoms

      The shoulder joint is a complex structure that allows for a wide range of movements. However, it is also prone to various conditions that can cause pain and limit mobility. Here are some common shoulder conditions and their symptoms:

      1. Adhesive capsulitis (Frozen Shoulder): This condition is characterized by stiffness and limited range of motion in the shoulder joint. It can last up to 18-24 months and is more common in diabetics.

      2. Rotator cuff tendonitis: This condition causes pain and tenderness in the shoulder, especially when lifting the arm. However, some degree of abduction (up to 120 degrees) is still possible.

      3. Subacromial impingement: This condition causes pain and discomfort when lifting the arm, especially during abduction. However, some degree of movement is still possible.

      4. Medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s Elbow): This condition affects the elbow and causes pain and tenderness on the inner side of the elbow.

      5. Shoulder dislocation: This is an acute condition that causes severe pain and requires emergency medical attention.

      Treatment for these conditions may include painkillers, anti-inflammatory drugs, corticosteroid injections, physiotherapy, and gentle exercise. It is important to seek medical advice if you experience any shoulder pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following statements regarding male circumcision is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding male circumcision is correct?

      Your Answer: Reduces the rate of HIV transmission

      Explanation:

      Understanding Circumcision

      Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.

      The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.

      Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old male presents with massive haematemesis and is diagnosed with splenomegaly. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents with massive haematemesis and is diagnosed with splenomegaly. What is the probable origin of the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Gastric ulcer

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      Portal Hypertension and its Manifestations

      Portal hypertension is a condition that often leads to splenomegaly and upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. The primary cause of bleeding is oesophageal varices, which are dilated veins in the oesophagus. In addition to these symptoms, portal hypertension can also cause ascites, a buildup of fluid in the abdomen, and acute or chronic hepatic encephalopathy, a neurological disorder that affects the brain. Another common manifestation of portal hypertension is splenomegaly with hypersplenism, which occurs when the spleen becomes enlarged and overactive, leading to a decrease in the number of blood cells in circulation. the various symptoms of portal hypertension is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      10.5
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  • Question 7 - A 78-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping and asks for medication to aid his insomnia. The doctor prescribes a brief course of zopiclone.
      What is one of the potential hazards linked to the use of zopiclone in older adults?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of falls

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients taking zopiclone are at an increased risk of falling due to its mode of action on GABA-containing receptors, which enhances the effects of GABA. This is similar to benzodiazepines. Zopiclone can cause adverse effects such as agitation, constipation, dry mouth, dizziness, and decreased muscle tone. However, diarrhea is not a known side effect. Withdrawal from zopiclone may lead to convulsions, tremors, and hyperventilation.

      Understanding Z Drugs and Their Adverse Effects

      Z drugs are a class of medications that have similar effects to benzodiazepines, but they differ in their chemical structure. These drugs work by acting on the α2-subunit of the GABA receptor. There are three groups of Z drugs: imidazopyridines, cyclopyrrolones, and pyrazolopyrimidines. Examples of these drugs include zolpidem, zopiclone, and zaleplon.

      Despite their effectiveness in treating sleep disorders, Z drugs have adverse effects that are similar to benzodiazepines. One of the most significant risks associated with these drugs is an increased risk of falls in the elderly. Therefore, it is essential to use these medications with caution, especially in older adults. It is also important to follow the prescribed dosage and not to mix them with other medications or alcohol. By understanding the potential risks and benefits of Z drugs, patients can make informed decisions about their use and work with their healthcare providers to manage any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13.4
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  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old girl informs you during her appointment that her cousin was recently...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl informs you during her appointment that her cousin was recently diagnosed with Bell's palsy and she has some inquiries about it. Which cranial nerve is primarily impacted by Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve VII

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions in Eye and Facial Movement

      Cranial nerves play a crucial role in eye and facial movement. Cranial nerve VII, also known as the facial nerve, is affected in Bell’s palsy, causing a lower motor neuron VIIth nerve palsy that affects one side of the face. Cranial nerve IV, or the trochlear nerve, supplies the superior oblique muscle of the eye, and injury to this nerve causes vertical diplopia. Cranial nerve III, or the oculomotor nerve, supplies several muscles that control eye movement and the levator palpebrae superioris. Cranial nerve V, or the trigeminal nerve, provides sensation in the face and controls the muscles of mastication. Finally, cranial nerve VI, or the abducens nerve, supplies the lateral rectus muscle and lesions of this nerve cause lateral diplopia. Understanding the functions of these cranial nerves is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect eye and facial movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old man undergoes an orchidectomy for a testicular lump. Post-surgery, the histology...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man undergoes an orchidectomy for a testicular lump. Post-surgery, the histology report reveals the presence of cartilage and columnar epithelial cells. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seminoma

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Testicular Tumours: Teratoma, Seminoma, Hamartoma, Epididymal Cyst, and Choriocarcinoma

      Testicular tumours can be classified into different types based on their histological features and clinical presentation. Here are five types of testicular tumours:

      Teratoma: This type of germ cell tumour can be pure or part of a mixed germ cell tumour. It is commonly seen in very young patients and presents with a painless testicular mass. Teratomas are composed of tissues arising from all three germ cell layers and can contain any type of tissue. Radical orchidectomy is the mode of treatment.

      Seminoma: Seminoma is a type of germ cell tumour that presents with a painless testicular lump. It is treated with orchidectomy and has a uniform yellow cut surface. Histologically, it is composed of a uniform population of large cells arranged in nests.

      Hamartoma: A hamartoma is a benign tumour-like proliferation composed of a mixture of cells normal for the tissue from which it arises. Within the normal testicular tissue, there is no cartilage.

      Epididymal Cyst: An epididymal cyst is a fluid-filled sac arising usually superoposterior to the testis. It transilluminates on examination and is lined by a single layer of cuboidal to columnar epithelium, with or without Ciliary.

      Choriocarcinoma: Choriocarcinomas are malignant germ cell tumours composed of syncytiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, and intermediate trophoblast cells. They are rare and associated with raised serum beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin levels. These tumours are usually haemorrhagic masses and often have metastasis at presentation.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of testicular tumours and their clinical presentation is crucial for their early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the resistance mechanism of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to rifampicin? ...

    Correct

    • What is the resistance mechanism of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to rifampicin?

      Your Answer: Alteration of the DNA dependent RNA transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin and its Mechanism of Action

      Rifampicin is an antibiotic that works by stopping the growth of bacteria. It achieves this by inhibiting the process of protein synthesis. The drug targets the rpoB gene, which is responsible for the production of RNA transcriptase in bacteria. Mutations in this gene can cause changes in the structure of RNA transcriptase, making it difficult for rifampicin to bind to it. As a result, the antibiotic becomes less effective in stopping the growth of bacteria. This mechanism of action is crucial in how rifampicin works and how it can be used to treat bacterial infections. By targeting the rpoB gene, rifampicin can effectively inhibit the growth of bacteria and prevent the spread of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and wondering if she...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and wondering if she has entered menopause. Upon conducting a blood test, the results show a Hb of 101 g/l, MCV 108.2 fl, and a B12 level of 46 ng/l. She also reports experiencing occasional changes in bowel movements. What test would be most effective in differentiating pernicious anemia from other malabsorption causes as the reason for her low B12 levels?

      Your Answer: Intrinsic factor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pernicious Anaemia: Diagnosis and Treatment

      Pernicious anaemia is a type of macrocytic anaemia caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12. This deficiency is often due to antibodies that target either intrinsic factor or the gastric parietal cells. To diagnose pernicious anaemia, blood tests for intrinsic factor antibodies and gastric parietal cell-antibodies are necessary.

      Other tests, such as the PABA test, folic acid level, serum gastrin level, and C14 breath test, are not useful in identifying pernicious anaemia. Vitamin B12 is normally absorbed in the terminal ileum, but a problem in any part of this chain may result in vitamin B12 deficiency.

      Patients with pernicious anaemia require lifelong vitamin B12 injections, typically six injections over the first two weeks from diagnosis and then one every three months to maintain adequate levels. Understanding the diagnosis and treatment of pernicious anaemia is crucial for managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing speech...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing speech difficulties four hours prior. He has a medical history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and high cholesterol, and takes atorvastatin and ramipril regularly. Despite having atrial fibrillation, he chose not to receive anticoagulation therapy. He smokes ten cigarettes per day, drinks alcohol occasionally, and works as a language school director.

      During the examination, the patient displays expressive dysphasia and exhibits right-sided hemiplegia, sensory loss, and homonymous hemianopia. Urgent CT head and CT angiography reveal no intracranial hemorrhage but do confirm occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Intravenous thrombolysis and mechanical thrombectomy

      Explanation:

      For a patient with a large artery acute ischaemic stroke, mechanical clot retrieval should be considered along with intravenous thrombolysis. According to recent NICE guidance, thrombectomy should be offered as soon as possible and within 6 hours of symptom onset, along with intravenous thrombolysis (if within 4.5 hours), for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography (CTA) or magnetic resonance angiography (MRA). As such, this patient should be offered both thrombolysis and clot retrieval. Anticoagulation with Apixaban is not recommended for atrial fibrillation until two weeks after the onset of an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin 300mg would be a reasonable treatment if the patient presented outside the thrombolysis window and mechanical thrombectomy was not an option. However, in this scenario, the patient is within the thrombolysis window and should be offered both thrombolysis and mechanical thrombectomy due to the timing and location of their stroke.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      63.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hot flashes that...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hot flashes that have been bothering her for the past 2 months, particularly at night, causing sleep and work disturbances. She expresses feeling exhausted and embarrassed at work, sweating profusely during the attacks, and carrying extra clothes to change. She is emotional and shares that she has been avoiding sexual intercourse due to pain. She has no medical history and is not on any medication. Her menstrual cycle is still ongoing but has become irregular, occurring once every 2-3 months. After a thorough discussion, she decides to start HRT. What would be the most suitable HRT regimen for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oestradiol one tablet daily for a 3-month period, with norethisterone on the last 14 days

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) for perimenopausal Symptoms

      perimenopausal symptoms can significantly affect a woman’s daily routine, work, and mood. Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) is one of the treatment options available for managing these symptoms. However, before commencing HRT, patients need to be consulted and informed of the risks and benefits associated with this treatment.

      HRT can be either oestrogen replacement only or combined. Combined HRT is given to women who have a uterus, as oestrogen alone can increase the risk of developing endometrial cancer. Combined HRT can be either cyclical or continuous, depending on the patient’s menopausal status.

      For women with irregular menses, a cyclical regime is indicated. This involves taking an oestrogen tablet once daily for a 3-month period, with norethisterone added on the last 14 days. Patients on this regime have a period every three months. Once a woman has completed a year on cyclical therapy or has established menopause, then she can change to combined continuous HRT.

      It is important to note that oestrogen-only HRT is only given to women who have had a hysterectomy. Oestrogen therapy alone increases the risk of developing endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial carcinoma. Therefore, in women who have a uterus, combined HRT, with the addition of a progesterone, is preferred to reduce this risk.

      In summary, HRT is a treatment option for perimenopausal symptoms. The type of HRT prescribed depends on the patient’s menopausal status and whether they have a uterus. Patients need to be informed of the risks and benefits associated with HRT before commencing treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP and mentions her diagnosis of heart failure....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP and mentions her diagnosis of heart failure. She expresses interest in learning about medications that can potentially decrease mortality in heart failure. Which drug has been proven to have this effect?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Common Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Limitations

      Heart failure is a chronic condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there is no cure for heart failure, medications can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Here are some common medications used in the treatment of heart failure, along with their benefits and limitations.

      Spironolactone: Recent trials have shown that spironolactone can reduce mortality in severe heart failure. This drug works by antagonizing the deleterious effects of aldosterone on cardiac remodeling, rather than its diuretic effect.

      Simvastatin: While statins are effective in reducing morbidity and mortality in patients with coronary artery disease, their beneficial effects in heart failure remain inconclusive.

      Atenolol: Atenolol has not been shown to be effective in reducing mortality in heart failure and is not used as part of the condition’s management. However, certain beta-blockers like carvedilol, metoprolol, or bisoprolol are recommended in patients who have been stabilized on diuretic and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE-I) therapy.

      Furosemide: Furosemide is a mainstay in the treatment of both acute and long-term heart failure, particularly for relieving symptoms of fluid overload. However, there is little data to prove that it improves long-term mortality in patients with chronic congestive cardiac failure (CCF).

      Digoxin: Digoxin does not decrease mortality in heart failure. Its use is reserved for patients in atrial fibrillation and those who cannot be controlled on an ACE-I, beta-blocker, and loop diuretic. Some studies suggest a decreased rate in CHF-related hospital admissions.

      In conclusion, while these medications can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life in heart failure patients, their limitations should also be considered. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 52-year-old primary teacher is prescribed tamoxifen for the management of oestrogen receptor...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old primary teacher is prescribed tamoxifen for the management of oestrogen receptor (ER)-positive breast cancer. What is a frequently encountered adverse effect of tamoxifen?

      Your Answer: Hot flashes

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side-Effects of Tamoxifen Therapy

      Tamoxifen is a medication used in the prevention and treatment of breast cancer. As a selective ER modulator, it has both oestrogenic and anti-oestrogenic actions depending on the target tissue. While it is effective in its intended use, tamoxifen therapy can also cause side-effects.

      One of the most common side-effects of tamoxifen therapy is hot flashes and sweats. Other side-effects include changes in menstrual patterns, loss of sex drive, nausea, visual problems, muscle ache, and fatigue. However, hirsutism (abnormal or excessive hair growth) is not a commonly occurring side-effect of tamoxifen. Thinning of the hair may occur, but this usually resolves on cessation of treatment.

      Contrary to popular belief, weight gain and not weight loss is a commonly associated side-effect of tamoxifen treatment. Additionally, there is a risk of hypercoagulability and thromboembolic events with tamoxifen therapy, as opposed to bleeding. Haematuria (blood in urine) is not commonly associated with the use of tamoxifen.

      In conclusion, while tamoxifen is an effective medication for the prevention and treatment of breast cancer, it is important to be aware of its potential side-effects. Patients should discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider and report any unusual symptoms experienced during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman is brought to the hospital by air ambulance due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is brought to the hospital by air ambulance due to dyspnoea and severe chest pain after being thrown from a horse and trampled during an event.

      Upon examination, there is a decrease in breath sounds on the left side of the chest with hyper-resonant percussion, and the apex beat is shifted to the right. Additionally, the patient's right arm appears to have a closed humeral fracture.

      Considering the examination results, which medication should be used with caution?

      Your Answer: Morphine

      Correct Answer: Nitrous oxide

      Explanation:

      When treating a patient with a pneumothorax, caution should be exercised when using nitrous oxide. This is because nitrous oxide has a tendency to diffuse into air-filled spaces, including pneumothoraces, which can worsen cardiopulmonary impairment. In contrast, desflurane may be safely administered to patients with pneumothoraces as it does not diffuse into gas-filled airspaces as readily as nitrous oxide. Ketamine and morphine are also safe options for pain control in patients with traumatic pneumothoraces, with ketamine not being associated with cardiorespiratory depression and morphine being considered first-line due to its predictable effects and reversibility with naloxone. Neither ketamine or morphine are listed as a ‘caution’ for pneumothoraces in the BNF.

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.

      Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.

      It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old primigravida presents for her booking visit at eight weeks’ gestation. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primigravida presents for her booking visit at eight weeks’ gestation. She is curious to know her due date and the gender of the baby. She asks if she can have a scan as soon as possible. You inform her about the national screening programme in pregnancy and explain that antenatal scans are offered at specific stages throughout the pregnancy.
      What is the most accurate description of antenatal screening using ultrasound scans?

      Your Answer: All pregnant women in the United Kingdom (UK) are offered a minimum of three scans in pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Women presenting with severe symptomatic hyperemesis gravidarum before the first scan is performed should be offered an early pregnancy ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women experiencing severe hyperemesis gravidarum before their dating scan should receive an early pregnancy ultrasound scan to detect abnormal trophoblastic disease, such as molar pregnancy or choriocarcinoma. Women with pre-existing diabetes or gestational diabetes are offered fetal growth scans every two weeks from 28 to 36 weeks’ gestation to monitor the baby’s growth and amniotic fluid levels. All pregnant women in the UK are offered a minimum of two antenatal scans, including the dating scan between 10+0 and 13+6 weeks’ gestation and the anomaly scan between 18+0 and 20+6 weeks’ gestation. The anomaly scan assesses the baby’s organs, growth, and placenta position, and can detect congenital abnormalities and small-for-gestational age babies. The first antenatal ultrasound scan can be offered as early as nine weeks’ gestation to confirm the pregnancy and determine the gestational age. The combined test, which includes nuchal translucency, PAPP-A, and hCG, can also be performed during the dating scan to assess the risk of Down syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      27.2
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  • Question 18 - What is the most frequent side effect of simvastatin therapy in the management...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent side effect of simvastatin therapy in the management of dyslipidemia in patients?

      Your Answer: Myalgia

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Simvastatin

      Simvastatin is a commonly used drug that is generally safe, but it can cause several side effects that primarily affect the liver and muscles. The most common side effect is myalgia, which is characterized by muscle aches and stiffness without an increase in the enzyme CK. Myositis is another possible side effect that involves an elevation in CK levels and muscle symptoms. The most severe side effect is rhabdomyolysis, which causes rapid muscle destruction and can lead to acute renal failure. Liver-related side effects include abnormal liver function tests, which typically resolve after discontinuing the medication. The evidence regarding the relationship between statins and hepatitis or cirrhosis is inconsistent. Clinical trials have shown no significant increase in these conditions among statin-treated patients, but these trials may not be representative of the population under routine clinical care for lipids.

      Overall, while simvastatin is generally safe, it is important to be aware of the potential side effects, particularly those related to the liver and muscles. Patients should be monitored for any signs of myalgia, myositis, or rhabdomyolysis, and liver function tests should be regularly checked. If any concerning symptoms arise, patients should consult their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old moderately obese man is brought to the Emergency Department with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old moderately obese man is brought to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe chest pain and shortness of breath. Upon physical examination, a pericardial tamponade is suspected and confirmed by an electrocardiogram (ECG) showing total electrical alternans and an echocardiogram revealing pericardial effusion. Which jugular vein is typically the most reliable indicator of central venous pressure (CVP)?

      Your Answer: Right internal

      Explanation:

      The Best Vein for Measuring Central Venous Pressure

      Pericardial tamponade can lead to compression of the heart by the pericardium, resulting in decreased intracardiac diastolic pressure and reduced blood flow to the right atrium. This can cause distension of the jugular veins, making the right internal jugular vein the best vein for measuring central venous pressure (CVP). Unlike the right external vein, which joins the right internal vein at an oblique angle, the right internal vein has a straight continuation with the right brachiocephalic vein and the superior vena cava, making CVP measurement more accurate. On the other hand, the left internal jugular vein makes an oblique union with the left brachiocephalic vein and the external jugular veins, making it a less reliable indicator of CVP. Similarly, the left external vein also joins the left internal vein at an oblique angle, making CVP reading less reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old male presents with abdominal pain.

    He has a past medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male presents with abdominal pain.

      He has a past medical history of stroke and myocardial infarction. During examination, there was noticeable distension of the abdomen and the stools were maroon in color. The lactate level was found to be 5 mmol/L, which is above the normal range of <2.2 mmol/L.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acute gastric bleed

      Correct Answer: Acute mesenteric ischaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a disruption in blood flow to the small intestine or right colon. This can be caused by arterial or venous disease, with arterial disease further classified as non-occlusive or occlusive. The classic triad of symptoms associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia includes gastrointestinal emptying, abdominal pain, and underlying cardiac disease.

      The hallmark symptom of mesenteric ischaemia is severe abdominal pain, which may be accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal distention, ileus, peritonitis, blood in the stool, and shock. Advanced ischaemia is characterized by the presence of these symptoms.

      There are several risk factors associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia, including congestive heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias (especially atrial fibrillation), recent myocardial infarction, atherosclerosis, hypercoagulable states, and hypovolaemia. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and to seek medical attention promptly if any symptoms of acute mesenteric ischaemia are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with his son. The son reports...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with his son. The son reports that his father's memory has been declining for the past 8 months and he has been experiencing fluctuations in attention and consciousness. The patient has also reported seeing dogs and children running around in his living room. The patient has a medical history of resting tremors, rigidity, and shuffling gait for the past 10 years. However, there is no history of mood swings or urinary or bowel incontinence. On examination, there are no postural changes in his blood pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parkinson's disease dementia

      Explanation:

      Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) and Parkinson’s disease dementia (PDD) share similar features such as tremors, rigidity, postural instability, fluctuating cognition, and hallucinations. However, they can be differentiated based on the time of onset of dementia compared to motor symptoms. PDD is diagnosed if a patient had a Parkinson’s disease diagnosis for at least 1 year before the emergence of dementia. In contrast, DLB would have dementia occurring first followed by motor symptoms. This patient has had 8 years of preceding motor symptoms before the onset of dementia, making PDD more likely. It is important to distinguish between the two as their management varies significantly. Levodopa is the mainstay of treatment in PDD, whereas rivastigmine is the drug of choice in DLB. Treating this patient as DLB may miss out on important elements of treatment needed in patients with PDD. Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) and multiple system atrophy are not likely diagnoses in this case as they have different clinical features.

      Understanding Lewy Body Dementia

      Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized as a cause of cognitive impairment, accounting for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions, known as Lewy bodies, in certain areas of the brain. While there is a complicated relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia, with dementia often seen in Parkinson’s disease, the two conditions are distinct. Additionally, up to 40% of patients with Alzheimer’s disease have Lewy bodies.

      The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism, but both features usually occur within a year of each other. Unlike other forms of dementia, cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and sometimes delusions and non-visual hallucinations.

      Diagnosis of Lewy body dementia is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Management of Lewy body dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s disease. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to carefully consider the use of medication in these patients to avoid worsening their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You are called to see a 27-year-old primiparous woman who has just delivered...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see a 27-year-old primiparous woman who has just delivered via spontaneous vaginal delivery. She had an active third stage of labour with 10 mg of Syntocinon® administered intramuscularly. The placenta was delivered ten minutes ago and appears complete. The midwife has called you, as there is a continuous small stream of fresh red blood loss. It is estimated that the patient has lost 1050 ml of blood so far. You palpate the abdomen, and you cannot feel any uterine contractions.
      Observations:
      Heart rate (HR) 107 bpm
      Blood pressure (BP) 158/105 mmHg
      Temperature 37.1 °C
      Respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute
      Oxygen saturations 98% on air
      Which of the following is the next step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Transfuse two units of O-negative blood

      Correct Answer: Uterine massage and oxytocin infusion

      Explanation:

      Management of Postpartum Hemorrhage: Conservative and Pharmacological Methods

      Postpartum hemorrhage is a common complication of childbirth and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly. The causes of postpartum hemorrhage fall under four categories, known as the 4Ts: tissue problems, tone problems, trauma, and thrombin. In cases of uterine atony, which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, conservative and pharmacological methods should be employed first.

      The initial assessment should include securing two large-bore cannulae, sending blood for urgent full blood count, group and save, clotting and crossmatch of four units of blood, and commencing intravenous fluids. Uterine massage of the fundus, as well as an oxytocin infusion, should be the first step in management. If pharmacological methods fail to arrest the bleeding, then an intrauterine balloon can be employed as second line. If this still fails, the patient should be transferred to theatre for exploration and hysterectomy if necessary.

      Ergometrine is contraindicated in women with hypertension, and therefore, should not be used in patients with a raised blood pressure. Hysterectomy is a last resort in women with massive postpartum hemorrhage where mechanical and pharmacological methods have failed to stop the bleeding and the patient is haemodynamically compromised. Intrauterine balloon tamponade is an effective mechanical method to stop postpartum hemorrhage in cases where other methods have failed.

      It is important to ensure that blood is available if necessary, but transfusion should not be treated lightly due to the potential for severe complications. An up-to-date hemoglobin level should be obtained, and the patient should be fluid-resuscitated and monitored before any decision for transfusion. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of postpartum hemorrhage is crucial for ensuring positive maternal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman who recently gave birth presents to the general practitioner with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who recently gave birth presents to the general practitioner with symptoms of rectal bleeding for the past two weeks. She has noticed fresh red blood on the toilet paper after passing a bowel motion, associated with some discomfort and itching around the anus. She has noticed bulging around the anus also. She is otherwise well, without changes in bowel habit or recent weight loss. She is very worried that she may have bowel cancer, as her grandfather was diagnosed with colorectal cancer after episodes of rectal bleeding when he was 81.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Explanation:

      Haemorrhoids: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Haemorrhoids, also known as piles, are a common condition characterized by abnormally swollen vascular mucosal cushions within the anal canal. This condition is more prevalent in pregnant women, those who have recently given birth, and individuals with risk factors such as constipation, low-fibre diet, and obesity. Symptoms may include pain, rectal/anal itching, and fresh rectal bleeding after a bowel movement.

      In patients presenting with haemorrhoids, it is crucial to exclude red flag symptoms such as change in bowel habit, weight loss, iron deficiency anaemia, or unexplained abdominal pain, especially in patients over 40. If any of these symptoms are suspected, a suspected cancer pathway referral should be considered.

      Management of haemorrhoids may involve lifestyle advice such as increasing fluid and fibre intake, managing constipation, anal hygiene advice, and simple analgesia. If the patient does not respond to conservative treatment, they may be referred for secondary care treatment, which may include rubber band ligation, injection sclerotherapy, photocoagulation, diathermy, haemorrhoidectomy, or haemorrhoid artery ligation.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include anal fissure, colorectal carcinoma, fistula-in-ano, and sentinel pile. However, a thorough history and examination can help differentiate these conditions from haemorrhoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A patient in their 70s is anaesthetised for an exploratory laparotomy. They were...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 70s is anaesthetised for an exploratory laparotomy. They were found to have perforated from a septic appendix. This has resulted in part of their bowel being removed and a stoma formation. The patient has been on the table for two and a half hours. Their core temperature at the end of the operation is 35.1 °C.
      Which mechanism accounts for most heat lost?

      Your Answer: Convection

      Correct Answer: Radiation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Heat Loss During Surgery: The Role of Radiation, Convection, Conduction, Evaporation, and Respiration

      During surgery, the body can lose heat through various mechanisms. Radiation, which accounts for 40% of heat loss, depends on factors such as body temperature and the environment. To combat this, patients are covered with warming methods like the Bair Huggerâ„¢. Convection, or air movement, contributes to 30% of heat loss, while conduction (5%) occurs through contact with the operating table and surrounding air. Evaporation (15%) is higher if the abdomen is open, and humidity is kept at 50% in the theatre to reduce it. Finally, respiration accounts for 10% of heat loss. Understanding these mechanisms can help healthcare professionals better manage patient temperature during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 16-year-old male comes to your clinic and asks for the contraceptive pill....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to your clinic and asks for the contraceptive pill. He appears to have Gillick competency, but he reveals that his girlfriend is 24 and a teacher at a nearby private school. He confirms that she is not pregnant and that her last period was 3 weeks ago. He specifically requests that you do not inform anyone, including his mother who is also a patient of yours. How do you proceed?

      Your Answer: Inform her that you need to tell social services and child protection due to the age and position of trust of her boyfriend. Try to get her consent. If she refuses then accept you can't tell anyone as she has demonstrated Gillick competency

      Correct Answer: Inform her that you need to tell social services and child protection due to the age and position of trust of her boyfriend. Try to get her consent but explain you will still need to tell them if she doesn't consent

      Explanation:

      According to the GMC guidelines in good medical practice for individuals aged 0-18 years, it is important to disclose information regarding any abusive or seriously harmful sexual activity involving a child or young person. This includes situations where the young person is too immature to understand or consent, there are significant differences in age, maturity, or power between sexual partners, the young person’s sexual partner holds a position of trust, force or the threat of force, emotional or psychological pressure, bribery or payment is used to engage in sexual activity or keep it secret, drugs or alcohol are used to influence a young person to engage in sexual activity, or the person involved is known to the police or child protection agencies for having abusive relationships with children or young people.

      Failing to disclose this information or simply prescribing contraception and waiting for a review can put both the patient and other students at the boyfriend’s school in harm’s way due to his position of trust. While informing the boyfriend or his school may breach confidentiality and not address the issue of his job and relationship, it is important to take appropriate action to protect the safety and well-being of the young person involved.

      When it comes to providing contraception to young people, there are legal and ethical considerations to take into account. In the UK, the age of consent for sexual activity is 16 years, but practitioners may still offer advice and contraception to young people they deem competent. The Fraser Guidelines are often used to assess a young person’s competence. Children under the age of 13 are considered unable to consent to sexual intercourse, and consultations regarding this age group should trigger child protection measures automatically.

      It’s important to advise young people to have STI tests 2 and 12 weeks after an incident of unprotected sexual intercourse. Long-acting reversible contraceptive methods (LARCs) are often the best choice for young people, as they may be less reliable in remembering to take medication. However, there are concerns about the effect of progesterone-only injections (Depo-provera) on bone mineral density, and the UKMEC category of the IUS and IUD is 2 for women under the age of 20 years, meaning they may not be the best choice. The progesterone-only implant (Nexplanon) is therefore the LARC of choice for young people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      74.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 67-year-old man presents with a complaint of passing small amounts of fresh...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents with a complaint of passing small amounts of fresh red blood with his stool. He also reports a small amount of mucous discharge with his stool and feeling pruritic and sore around his anus for the past couple of days. The patient denies any pain but has been more constipated than usual over the past few months. He denies any recent weight loss and has a BMI of approximately 35. The patient has a history of hypercholesterolaemia and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He recently completed a 7-day course of amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection 5 days ago. What is the most likely cause of his rectal bleeding?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Rectal Bleeding: Haemorrhoids, Colon Cancer, Diverticulitis, Anal Fissure, and Ulcerative Colitis

      Rectal bleeding can be a concerning symptom for patients and healthcare providers alike. In this case, the patient has multiple risk factors for haemorrhoids, which are the most likely cause of his symptoms. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as colon cancer, diverticulitis, anal fissure, and ulcerative colitis.

      Haemorrhoids are caused by increased pressure in the blood vessels around the anus, which can be exacerbated by obesity, chronic constipation, and coughing. Symptoms include fresh red blood and mucous after passing stool, a pruritic anus, and soreness around the anus.

      Colon cancer is less likely in this case, as it typically presents with a change in bowel habit and blood in the stool, but not with a pruritic, sore anus. However, if there is no evidence of haemorrhoids on examination, colonoscopy may be recommended to rule out cancer.

      Diverticulitis is characterised by passing fresh, red blood per rectum, as well as nausea and vomiting, pyrexia, and abdominal pain.

      Anal fissure also involves the passage of small amounts of fresh red blood with stools, but is associated with sharp anal pain when stools are passed.

      Ulcerative colitis can be associated with passage of blood and mucous with stools, as well as weight loss, diarrhoea, anaemia, and fatigue. The patient has some risk factors for ulcerative colitis, which has two peak ages for diagnosis: 15-35 and 50-70 years old.

      In summary, while haemorrhoids are the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and perform appropriate testing to rule out more serious conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old woman has been diagnosed with stress incontinence. Her BMI is 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman has been diagnosed with stress incontinence. Her BMI is 30 kg/m2 and she has a history of hypertension and osteoporosis. She presents to you today with worsening symptoms despite reducing her caffeine intake and starting a regular exercise routine. She has had a normal pelvic exam and has completed three months of pelvic floor exercises with only mild improvement. She is hesitant to undergo surgery due to a previous severe reaction to general anesthesia. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Ring pessary

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Stress Incontinence: A Case-Based Discussion

      Stress incontinence is a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. In this scenario, a female patient has attempted lifestyle changes and pelvic floor exercises for three months with little effect. What are the next steps in management?

      Duloxetine is a second-line management option for stress incontinence when conservative measures fail. It works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline, leading to continuous stimulation of the nerves in Onuf’s nucleus and preventing involuntary urine loss. However, caution should be exercised in patients with certain medical conditions.

      Continuing pelvic floor exercises for another three months is unlikely to yield significant improvements, and referral is indicated at this stage.

      Intramural urethral-bulking agents can be used when conservative management has failed, but they are not as effective as other surgical options and symptoms can recur.

      The use of a ring pessary is not recommended as a first-line treatment option for stress incontinence.

      A retropubic mid-urethral tape procedure is a successful surgical option, but it may not be appropriate for high-risk patients who wish to avoid surgery.

      In conclusion, the management of stress incontinence requires a tailored approach based on the patient’s individual circumstances and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 29-year-old primigravida presents at ten weeks’ gestation with persistent nausea and vomiting....

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old primigravida presents at ten weeks’ gestation with persistent nausea and vomiting. She reports this is mostly in the morning but has affected her a lot, as she is struggling to attend work. She can manage oral fluids, but she struggles mostly with eating. She has tried avoiding certain foods and has followed some conservative advice she found on the National Health Service (NHS) website, including ginger, and they have not helped. Her examination is unremarkable. Her documented pre-pregnancy weight is 60 kg, and today she weighs 65 kg. The patient is keen to try some medication.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      Management of Nausea and Vomiting in Pregnancy: Medications and Considerations

      Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy are common and can range from mild to severe. Conservative measures such as dietary changes and ginger can be effective for mild symptoms, but oral anti-emetics are recommended for more severe cases. First-line medications include promethazine, cyclizine, and phenothiazines. If these fail, second-line medications such as ondansetron and metoclopramide may be prescribed. Severe cases may require hospital admission, parenteral anti-emetics, and fluid resuscitation. Thiamine is given to all women admitted with severe vomiting. Steroid treatments such as hydrocortisone should be reserved for specialist use. It is important to monitor for side-effects and consider referral to secondary care if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 68 year old homeless man is brought into the Emergency Department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old homeless man is brought into the Emergency Department with acute confusion. The patient is unable to provide a history and is shivering profusely. Physical examination reveals a body temperature of 34.5oC.
      Regarding thermoregulation, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Apocrine sweat glands play an important role in heat loss by evaporation

      Correct Answer: Acclimatisation of the sweating mechanism occurs in response to heat

      Explanation:

      Understanding Heat Adaptation and Thermoregulation in Humans

      Humans have the unique ability to actively acclimatize to heat stress through adaptations in the sweating mechanism. This process involves an increase in the sweating capability of the glands, which helps to lower body core temperatures. Heat adaptation begins on the first day of exposure and typically takes 4-7 days to develop in most individuals, with complete adaptation taking around 14 days.

      While brown fat plays a significant role in non-shivering thermogenesis in newborns and infants, there are very few remnants of brown fat in adults. Instead, thermoregulation is mainly controlled by the hypothalamus, which is responsible for regulating body temperature and other vital functions.

      Although apocrine sweat glands have little role in thermoregulation, they still play an important role in heat loss by evaporation. Overall, understanding heat adaptation and thermoregulation in humans is crucial for maintaining optimal health and preventing heat-related illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman presents with a history of scant abnormal vaginal bleeding for...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with a history of scant abnormal vaginal bleeding for 5 days before menses during each cycle over the past 6 months. She has been married for a year but has been unable to conceive. She experiences lower abdominal cramps during her menses and takes naproxen for relief. Additionally, she complains of pelvic pain during intercourse and defecation. On examination, mild tenderness is noted in the right adnexa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Women

      Abnormal uterine bleeding is a common gynecological problem that can have various underlying causes. Here are some of the most common causes of abnormal uterine bleeding in women:

      Endometriosis: This condition occurs when the endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, usually in the ovaries or pelvic cavity. Symptoms include painful periods, painful intercourse, painful bowel movements, and adnexal tenderness. Endometriosis can also lead to infertility.

      Ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding: This condition is caused by excessive production of vasoconstrictive prostaglandins in the endometrium during a menstrual period. Symptoms include heavy and painful periods. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the treatment of choice.

      Cervical cancer: This type of cancer is associated with human papillomavirus infection, smoking, early intercourse, multiple sexual partners, use of oral contraceptives, and immunosuppression. Symptoms include vaginal spotting, post-coital bleeding, dyspareunia, and vaginal discharge. Cervical cancer is rare before the age of 25 and is unlikely to cause dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, dyschezia, or adnexal tenderness.

      Submucosal leiomyoma: This is a benign neoplastic mass of myometrial origin that protrudes into the intrauterine cavity. Symptoms include heavy and painful periods, but acute pain is rare.

      Endometrial polyps: These are masses of endometrial tissue attached to the inner surface of the uterus. They are more common around menopausal age and can cause heavy or irregular bleeding. They are usually not associated with pain or menstrual cramps and are not pre-malignant.

      Understanding the Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (1/4) 25%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (2/3) 67%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Medicine (2/2) 100%
Gynaecology (2/4) 50%
Cardiology (1/3) 33%
Breast (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Colorectal (1/1) 100%
Anaesthetics & ITU (0/1) 0%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (0/1) 0%
Passmed