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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with whole-body itching which is worse...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with whole-body itching which is worse after she has taken a bath, tingling and burning sensations in her hands and feet, and headaches. She has felt fatigued over the past year and a half, however, the symptoms of itching and tingling peripheries have only been present for the past 3 months. On examination, she is noted to have a palpable spleen which is 3 cm below the costal angle. She has a full blood count which shows:
      Hb 184 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 380 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 9.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Phlebotomy

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for polycythaemia vera is venesection, which is used to maintain normal levels of haemoglobin. This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with the condition, including pruritis, numbness and tingling in the extremities, headaches, lethargy, and splenomegaly. Venesection involves removing blood from the patient to reduce haemoglobin levels, and may need to be performed weekly initially, but can be spaced out to every 6-12 weeks once the condition is under control. Ibuprofen is not a recommended treatment for polycythaemia vera, but aspirin can be used to reduce the risk of clotting. Paroxetine has been studied as a treatment for pruritis associated with polycythaemia vera, but should not be used as a replacement for venesection. Ruxolitinib is a medication used to prevent thrombus formation in patients who are resistant or intolerant to hydroxyurea, but is not a first-line treatment for the condition.

      Polycythaemia vera is a condition where a single marrow stem cell undergoes clonal proliferation, leading to an increase in red cell volume, as well as an overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. This disorder is most commonly seen in individuals in their sixth decade of life and is characterized by symptoms such as hyperviscosity, pruritus, and splenomegaly.

      The management of polycythaemia vera involves several approaches. Aspirin is often prescribed to reduce the risk of thrombotic events. Venesection is the first-line treatment to keep the haemoglobin levels within the normal range. Chemotherapy, such as hydroxyurea, may also be used, but it carries a slight increased risk of secondary leukaemia. Phosphorus-32 therapy is another option.

      The prognosis for polycythaemia vera is variable. Thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. Additionally, 5-15% of patients may progress to myelofibrosis, while another 5-15% may develop acute leukaemia, with the risk being increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man visits you to discuss his recent blood tests, which were...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visits you to discuss his recent blood tests, which were part of a routine health screening conducted three days ago. He is currently on day five of antibiotics for community-acquired pneumonia, which was treated by one of your colleagues. Apart from this recent infection, he has no medical history and no new symptoms to report. His renal function is normal, and the rest of his blood tests are as follows:
      - Hb: 110 g/l
      - Platelets: 540 * 109/l
      - WBC: 13 * 109/l
      - MCV: 76 * 109/l
      - Ferritin: 330 * 109/l
      All values were normal one year ago. What is the most likely cause of his anemia?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      This man is suffering from microcytic anemia, which is typically caused by a lack of iron. It is important to note that he was unwell when his blood was taken, as inflammation can cause ferritin levels to rise and potentially mask true iron deficiency. Therefore, additional iron studies are necessary to confirm the diagnosis. While thalassemia can also lead to microcytic anemia, his previous blood test showed no abnormalities.

      Microcytic Anaemia: Causes and Considerations

      Microcytic anaemia is a condition characterized by small red blood cells and low haemoglobin levels. There are several possible causes of microcytic anaemia, including iron-deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, congenital sideroblastic anaemia, and lead poisoning. It is important to note that while anaemia of chronic disease can also present with microcytosis, it typically appears as a normocytic, normochromic picture.

      In some cases, a normal haemoglobin level may be observed alongside microcytosis. This can be a red flag for polycythaemia rubra vera, which can cause iron-deficiency secondary to bleeding. Additionally, new onset microcytic anaemia in elderly patients should be investigated promptly to rule out underlying malignancy. It is worth noting that in beta-thalassaemia minor, the microcytosis may be disproportionate to the anaemia.

      Overall, understanding the potential causes and considerations of microcytic anaemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      44
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue, weight loss,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue, weight loss, and palpable lymph nodes in the left supraclavicular fossa.
      What is the most suitable location to investigate for a primary tumor in this patient?

      Your Answer: Stomach

      Explanation:

      Metastasis and Spread of Common Cancers

      Gastric carcinoma, the fifth most common cancer worldwide, often presents with advanced disease and can affect various parts of the stomach. Troisier’s sign, an enlarged left supraclavicular node, is a telltale sign of gastric carcinoma, but cancers from other gastrointestinal and urogenital sites can also present with this symptom.

      Endometrial cancer, or cancer of the corpus uteri, typically spreads to pelvic and para-aortic nodes, as well as distant organs like the lungs, liver, brain, and bones. Epigastric pain, hepatomegaly, jaundice, and ascites may indicate poor prognosis.

      Lung cancers tend to spread to deep lymph nodes in the mediastinum and thorax, as well as the other lung, pleura, and distant organs.

      Renal carcinoma first spreads to local lymph nodes before invading the aorta and vena cava. It can also spread to more distant lymph nodes, bones, liver, and lungs.

      Prostate cancer can spread to local and regional lymph nodes, but it is also known to spread to the bones, causing severe pain, especially in the femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      9.1
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  • Question 4 - A 14-year-old girl is referred to haematology due to heavy and prolonged periods...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl is referred to haematology due to heavy and prolonged periods that have not responded well to tranexamic acid and the combined oral contraceptive pill. Her blood tests reveal Hb of 10.3 g/dl, Plt of 239 * 109/l, WBC of 6.5 * 109/l, PT of 12.9 secs, and APTT of 37 secs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Von Willebrand's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a common inherited bleeding disorder that is usually passed down in an autosomal dominant manner. It behaves like a platelet disorder, with symptoms such as nosebleeds and heavy menstrual bleeding being common, while joint and muscle bleeding are rare. The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and acts as a carrier molecule for factor VIII.

      There are three types of Von Willebrand’s disease. Type 1 is the most common and is characterized by a partial reduction in von Willebrand factor. Type 2 is further divided into four subtypes, each with a different abnormality in the von Willebrand factor. Type 3 is the most severe form and is caused by a total lack of von Willebrand factor, inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      Diagnosis of Von Willebrand’s disease involves tests such as a prolonged bleeding time, APTT, factor VIII levels, and platelet aggregation with ristocetin. Management options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of von Willebrand factor, and factor VIII concentrate. While there is no clear correlation between symptomatic presentation and type of Von Willebrand’s disease, common themes among patients include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising in the absence of trauma, and menorrhagia in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms of petechiae, purpura, and...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms of petechiae, purpura, and epistaxis. She had a cold 6 weeks ago and has no known family history of bleeding disorders. Her lab results show a platelet count of 80 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400). What is the recommended first-line treatment for her likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults

      Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks and reduces the number of platelets in the blood. This is caused by antibodies targeting the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex. While children with ITP usually experience acute thrombocytopenia after an infection or vaccination, adults tend to have a more chronic form of the condition. ITP is more common in older females and may be detected incidentally during routine blood tests. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation.

      To diagnose ITP, a full blood count and blood film are typically performed. While a bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, antiplatelet antibody testing may be done, although it has poor sensitivity and does not affect clinical management. The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, but pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. Splenectomy is now less commonly used as a treatment option.

      In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), which is known as Evan’s syndrome. It is important for individuals with ITP to work closely with their healthcare provider to manage their condition and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner due to complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner due to complaints of headache, fatigue and weakness. Recently, she had a prolonged menstrual bleeding that only stopped after the application of compression for a long time. She also suffered from a urinary tract infection the previous month. She has no family history of a bleeding disorder.
      On examination, she has pallor, hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy. Investigations reveal that she has a low haemoglobin level, a low white blood cell count and a low platelet count; numerous blast cells are visible on peripheral blood film. Bone marrow biopsy reveals 30% of blast cells. The blood film is shown below.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

      Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)

      Explanation:

      Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several types of leukaemia, including acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML), and hairy cell leukaemia. AML is characterized by the rapid proliferation of immature myeloid cells called blasts, which can cause anaemia, thrombocytopenia, bleeding problems, and an increased risk of infections. ALL is caused by a clonal proliferation of lymphoid precursors, which can lead to pancytopenia and symptoms such as fever and abdominal pain. CLL is the most common type of leukaemia and is caused by the clonal proliferation of monoclonal B lymphocytes. CML is the rarest form of leukaemia and is caused by a chromosomal translocation involving chromosomes 9 and 22. Hairy cell leukaemia is characterized by the presence of abnormal white cells with hair-like cytoplasmic projections. Treatment for leukaemia typically involves chemotherapy and sometimes a bone marrow transplant, depending on the type of disease present. Prognosis varies depending on the type of leukaemia and the age of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 7 - An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray of his back reveals multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells

      Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that commonly affects adults aged over 60 years. It is characterized by the production of paraproteinaemia in the blood, which can affect multiple organs including the blood, bone, kidneys, and immune system. The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma include unexplained bone pain, hypercalcaemia, weight loss, hyperviscosity symptoms, spinal cord compression, and fever.

      On the other hand, osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of the structure of the bone tissue, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture. Multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions are more sinister in nature and are commonly associated with multiple myeloma.

      Osteosarcoma, bone metastases, and chronic myeloblastic leukaemia (CML) are not related to multiple myeloma. Osteosarcoma is characterized by cortical destruction and the presence of a soft-tissue mass, while bone metastases usually lead to destruction of the cortex on plain radiographs. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, night sweats, weight loss, abdominal fullness, and left upper quadrant pain.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and characteristics of multiple myeloma is crucial in diagnosing and treating this malignant disease of plasma cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      10.3
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old man presents with complaints of weight loss and fatigue that have...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents with complaints of weight loss and fatigue that have been ongoing for several months. Upon examination, the only notable finding is pallor. A blood film reveals the presence of immature blasts, and genetic testing shows the presence of a chromosomal translocation t(9;22) - the Philadelphia chromosome. Further investigations reveal the following results: Hb of 95 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), leukocytes of 62 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l), and PLT of 101 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

      Explanation:

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a rare form of cancer that occurs due to the abnormal growth of myeloid precursors or blasts. This leads to an increase in white blood cells and a decrease in the normal functions of the bone marrow, resulting in anaemia and thrombocytopenia. CML is most commonly seen in people between the ages of 60 and 70 and has a slow onset that can last for months or even years. The majority of cases are caused by a genetic mutation called the Philadelphia chromosome, which produces a protein that promotes the growth of cancer cells. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, abdominal distension, and left upper quadrant pain. Treatment for CML involves inhibiting the genetic mutation with a drug called imatinib.

      Acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that occurs due to the abnormal growth of immature lymphocytes, which replace the normal cells of the bone marrow and lead to a decrease in blood cell production. ALL is most commonly seen in children and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, fever, and abdominal pain. Diagnosis is made through bone marrow biopsy and genetic analysis, which can reveal chromosomal abnormalities associated with the disease.

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is a type of cancer that typically presents with enlarged lymph nodes and is associated with the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are abnormal B cells. Multiple myeloma (MM) is a cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in blood cell production and other symptoms such as hypercalcemia and kidney dysfunction. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL) is a type of cancer that arises from the abnormal growth of B cells, T cells, or natural killer cells and can be caused by genetic mutations, infections, or chronic inflammation. Symptoms of NHL include enlarged lymph nodes throughout the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      22.6
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  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old man presents to the Haematology Clinic with symptoms of bone pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the Haematology Clinic with symptoms of bone pain and anaemia. The medical team suspects multiple myeloma (MM) and orders a set of blood tests, including a full blood count, urea, serum creatinine and electrolytes, serum calcium, albumin, serum protein electrophoresis, serum-free light-chain assay, and serum beta-2 microglobulin. The team also plans to perform an imaging investigation to look for osteolytic lesions. What initial scan should be ordered?

      Your Answer: PET with 2-deoxy-2-[fluorine-18]fluoro-D-glucose integrated with computed tomography (FDG-PET-CT)

      Correct Answer: Whole-body low-dose CT (WBLD-CT)

      Explanation:

      When investigating suspected multiple myeloma (MM), it is crucial to use whole-body low-dose CT (WBLD-CT) imaging. This method is more effective than traditional radiology in detecting lytic lesions and should be the first option if available. Lesions with a diameter of 5mm or more are considered positive. If WBLD-CT and MRI fail to show lesions with a strong clinical indication, an FDG-PET or FDG-PET-CT can be used to detect bone lesions. During treatment follow-up, an FDG-PET-CT can detect active lesions and provide prognostic information. While a skeletal survey (X-ray) is less sensitive than WBLD-CT, it can still be useful. If suspicion remains high for MM despite negative WBLD-CT or skeletal survey results, a whole-body MRI should be performed. This method can detect focal lesions and bone marrow infiltration and may also be of prognostic value in asymptomatic patients. The presence of focal lesions is a strong predictor of progression to symptomatic MM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 10 - A 56-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and ischaemic heart disease presents...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and ischaemic heart disease presents to the clinic with a complaint of feeling lethargic for the past 3 months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained: Hb 9.6 g/dl, MCV 123 fl, Plt 164 * 109/l, WCC 4.6 *109/l. Which medication is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects

      Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      42.1
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  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old woman presents with weight loss and anaemia. She has no significant...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with weight loss and anaemia. She has no significant medical history. Upon examination, she has massive splenomegaly and pale conjunctivae. Her full blood count shows a Hb of 10.9 g/dl, platelets of 702 * 109/l, and a WCC of 56.6 * 109/l. Leucocytosis is noted on her film, with all stages of granulocyte maturation seen. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Massive splenomegaly can be caused by myelofibrosis, chronic myeloid leukemia, visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar), malaria, and Gaucher’s syndrome. Among these, chronic myeloid leukemia is the most probable diagnosis, as it is the most common cause.

      Understanding Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia and its Management

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome in more than 95% of patients. This chromosome is formed due to a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, resulting in the fusion of the ABL proto-oncogene and the BCR gene. The resulting BCR-ABL gene produces a fusion protein that has excessive tyrosine kinase activity.

      CML typically affects individuals between 60-70 years of age and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, weight loss, sweating, and splenomegaly. The condition is also associated with an increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation and thrombocytosis. In some cases, CML may undergo blast transformation, leading to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).

      The management of CML involves various treatment options, including imatinib, which is considered the first-line treatment. Imatinib is an inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase associated with the BCR-ABL defect and has a very high response rate in the chronic phase of CML. Other treatment options include hydroxyurea, interferon-alpha, and allogenic bone marrow transplant. With proper management, individuals with CML can lead a normal life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      42.9
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  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old man is referred to the Haematology Clinic under the 2-week-wait rule...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is referred to the Haematology Clinic under the 2-week-wait rule with significant fatigue and frequent infections over the past six months. His blood results confirm a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) with a 17p chromosome deletion.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

      Your Answer: Bendamustine plus rituximab

      Correct Answer: Acalabrutinib

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL)

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released new guidelines for managing newly diagnosed CLL in adults. Acalabrutinib is recommended as a monotherapy option if the patient has a 17p deletion or TP53 mutation, or if fludarabine plus cyclophosphamide and rituximab (FCR) or bendamustine plus rituximab (BR) are unsuitable. Prednisolone, a glucocorticoid commonly used in treating lymphoma, has no role in managing CLL. If there is no 17p deletion or TP53 mutation, FCR or BR would be the most appropriate first-line treatment. Conservative management is not recommended as the patient has developed signs of bone marrow dysfunction. Imatinib, the first-line treatment for CML, would not be useful for CLL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      24.3
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man with lung cancer is currently on MST 30 mg bd...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with lung cancer is currently on MST 30 mg bd for pain management. What dosage of oral morphine solution should be prescribed for his breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: 15 mg

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      The breakthrough dose should be 10 mg, which is one-sixth of the total daily morphine dose of 60 mg (30 mg taken twice a day).

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 14 - A 78-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a painless lump in...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a painless lump in her groin that she noticed 2 weeks ago. The lump has grown slightly since she first noticed it. On examination, a hard lump is palpable on her left labia majora and she has left inguinal lymphadenopathy. She has no significant past medical history and no known allergies.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vulval carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A possible diagnosis for an older woman with a labial lump and inguinal lymphadenopathy is vulval carcinoma, especially if the lump is firm and has grown rapidly over a short period of time. Risk factors for this condition include advanced age, smoking, and HPV infection. Bartholin’s cyst, condylomata lata, lipoma, and sebaceous cyst are less likely diagnoses, as they do not typically present with the same symptoms or risk factors as vulval carcinoma.

      Understanding Vulval Carcinoma

      Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.

      There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papilloma virus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.

      It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his physician due...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his physician due to bone pain, weakness, and splenomegaly. He has been experiencing increasing fatigue and weakness while performing his daily tasks over the past few weeks. During the examination, he appears extremely pale and has petechiae on his lower limbs. After a bone marrow sample is taken, he is diagnosed with acute promyelocytic leukemia (APML). What is the most probable finding on his blood film?

      Your Answer: Auer rods

      Explanation:

      A finding of Auer rods on a blood film strongly indicates the presence of acute promyelocytic leukemia.

      The correct answer is ‘Auer rods’. This patient has been diagnosed with APML, and the most common finding on a blood film associated with this is Auer rods. These are needle-like structures that are large, pink or red stained and can be seen within the cytoplasm of myeloid blast cells.

      ‘Tear-drop’ poikilocytes are typically found in myelofibrosis, which is characterized by flat, elongated red blood cells that resemble a tear-drop in shape. This occurs due to the squeezing of cells through fibrotic tissue in bone marrow in myelofibrotic disorders.

      Smear cells are usually seen in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), which are remnants of cells that lack identifiable plasma membrane or nuclear structure.

      Spherocytes are generally found in hereditary spherocytosis or autoimmune hemolytic anemia, which are red blood cells that are sphere-shaped and more fragile than normal red blood cells due to abnormalities in the red cell membrane.

      Acute myeloid leukaemia is a common form of acute leukaemia in adults that may occur as a primary disease or following a myeloproliferative disorder. Symptoms are related to bone marrow failure and include anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, splenomegaly, and bone pain. Poor prognostic features include age over 60, >20% blasts after first course of chemo, and deletions of chromosome 5 or 7. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia M3 is associated with t(15;17) and has a good prognosis. The French-American-British classification system includes seven subtypes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with a breast lump. The lump is...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with a breast lump. The lump is painless and she reports first noticing it 3 weeks ago. During examination, a hard, non-mobile lump measuring 2cm x 2cm is detected in the upper, outer quadrant of her right breast. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent suspected cancer referral to the breast team

      Explanation:

      If a woman over the age of 30 presents with an unexplained breast lump, it is important to refer her urgently to the breast team using a suspected cancer pathway referral. It is important to inform the patient that they are being referred to a cancer service, but also explain that not all referrals to cancer services result in a cancer diagnosis. It is incorrect to perform a biopsy as an initial investigation, as this will be done in secondary care. While fibroadenoma is a common cause of breast lumps in young women, urgent referral to the breast team is necessary to rule out cancer in patients over 30 years old. It is not appropriate to schedule a GP review in 2 weeks, as this lump needs prompt investigation by the breast team.

      In 2015, NICE released guidelines for referring individuals suspected of having breast cancer. If a person is 30 years or older and has an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or if they are 50 years or older and have discharge, retraction, or other concerning changes in one nipple only, they should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. If a person has skin changes that suggest breast cancer or is 30 years or older with an unexplained lump in the axilla, a suspected cancer pathway referral should also be considered. For individuals under 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, non-urgent referral should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      28
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  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old man with a medical history of sickle cell disease presents with...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man with a medical history of sickle cell disease presents with intense pain in his left hip. He mentions having received antibiotics from his general practitioner for a chest infection. How would you categorize this sickle cell crisis?

      Your Answer: Thrombotic crises

      Explanation:

      Sickle cell patients may experience thrombotic crises due to factors such as infection, dehydration, or deoxygenation. In this case, the patient’s severe pain and recent infection suggest a thrombotic crisis. Other types of crises, such as sequestration crises that present with acute chest syndrome, aplastic crises caused by parvovirus infection, or haemolytic crises with increased haemolysis, may have different symptoms. A thyrotoxic crisis would not be related to sickle cell disease.

      Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a complaint of a palpable mass in her left breast. The diagnostic mammogram shows a spiculated mass measuring 2.1 cm. Ultrasound detects a hypoechoic mass measuring 2.1 cm x 1.3 cm x 1.1 cm. Biopsy reveals a well-differentiated mucinous carcinoma which is negative for ER and HER2. The recommended course of treatment to prevent recurrence in this patient is:

      Your Answer: Partial breast radiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Whole breast radiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.

      Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and peri-menopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in post-menopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old man with a 12-year history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease presents with...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a 12-year history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease presents with dysphagia. Upon endoscopy, an obstructive lesion is observed that is highly suspicious of oesophageal cancer. What is the expected result of the biopsy?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s esophagus are linked to the development of oesophageal adenocarcinoma.

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.

      Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.

      The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.

      Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.

      Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP because she is worried about her ability...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP because she is worried about her ability to conceive. She has experienced three miscarriages in the past five years and has also had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis. The GP orders various blood tests and suspects that one of them may show a positive result for a potential cause of her issues.
      Which of the following antibody tests is the most likely to be positive? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Anti-phospholipid antibodies

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Antibodies and Their Associated Conditions

      Autoimmune disorders are conditions in which the immune system mistakenly attacks the body’s own tissues. One way to diagnose autoimmune disorders is by testing for specific antibodies that are associated with certain conditions. Here are some common autoimmune antibodies and the conditions they are associated with:

      1. Anti-phospholipid antibodies: These antibodies are linked to anti-phospholipid syndrome (APS), also known as Hughes’ syndrome. APS can cause blood clots and pregnancy-related complications.

      2. Anti-endomysial antibodies: These antibodies are associated with coeliac disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the small intestine.

      3. Anti-histone antibodies: These antibodies are linked to drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), another autoimmune disorder.

      4. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies: These antibodies are associated with primary biliary cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis, and idiopathic cirrhosis, all of which affect the liver.

      5. Anti-nuclear antibodies: These antibodies are associated with several autoimmune disorders, including SLE, autoimmune hepatitis, Sjögren’s syndrome, systemic sclerosis, and rheumatoid arthritis.

      Testing for these antibodies can help diagnose autoimmune disorders and guide treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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