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Question 1
Incorrect
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Rohan is a 9-month-old baby who is brought in by his dad. He has developed an eczema type rash on his body and has more loose stools. His dad noticed these changes after he started weaning. Prior to this he was exclusively breastfed. On examination he is well, except for mild eczema. You suspect a diagnosis of cow's milk protein allergy.
Which of the following milks could Rohan also be intolerant of?Your Answer: Oat milk
Correct Answer: Soya milk
Explanation:Babies with cow’s milk protein allergy may also have an intolerance to soya milk. The primary milk alternatives used for such babies are extensively hydrolysed formula and alpha amino acid formula. Oat and almond milk are not advised for babies with this allergy, although there is no evidence of any adverse reactions to them.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You are reviewing your practice policy regarding the use of sharps and prevention of sharps injuries during procedures for pediatric patients.
Which of the following would be appropriate to include in the policy documentation?Your Answer: Recapping of needles is preferable
Correct Answer: Safer sharps' completely remove the risk of a sharps injury
Explanation:Safe Use of Sharps in Medical Procedures
Sharps are important tools in medical procedures, but it is important to use them only when necessary. For instance, obtaining urine samples from catheter bags can be done without using needles. In some cases, it may be appropriate to use needles provided by the patient, such as when a diabetic has needles at home for administering insulin.
To minimize the risk of sharps injuries, it is recommended to use safer sharps that have safety mechanisms, such as a cover that pivots to cover the needle after use. However, even with safer sharps, there is still a potential risk of injury during the procedure.
Recapping needles is a common source of sharps injury and should be avoided whenever possible. In specific instances where recapping is necessary, a full risk assessment and appropriate steps to minimize the risk of injury must be taken, such as using needle-blocks to remove and hold the needle cap. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure the safe use of sharps in medical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A novel oral hypoglycaemic agent has been developed to manage type 2 diabetes (drug B). A recently published paper appears to show very favourable results for this drug. A brief extract is given below.
‘Patients were recruited from outpatient clinics to receive drug B. A questionnaire developed by the trial coordinator was filled out by the clinician if they felt a patient might be suitable for the trial and these were collated by the trial coordinator. Baseline blood tests were taken at this time. Suitable patients were then selected by the coordinator and invited to join the trial. The group had the following characteristics: 32% female, 96% white, 2% black, 2% Asian. They were given drug B to take for a 12-month period. At the end of the trial questionnaires were given out to patients who were still taking the drug to evaluate side-effects and repeat blood tests were taken.’
Which of the following is the correct statement regarding the trial described above?
Your Answer: This study is a randomised controlled trial
Correct Answer: The study design is prone to inclusion bias
Explanation:Limitations of a Diabetes Study
The Limitations of a Diabetes Study are evident in the inclusion of patients based on the clinician and coordinator’s discretion, leading to inclusion bias. This bias may result in a higher representation of English-speaking white patients, while Asians and black patients are under-represented. Additionally, the study only followed patients who completed the trial, excluding those who dropped out due to side-effects, resulting in a lack of intention-to-treat analysis. Furthermore, there is no information on whether the study was placebo-controlled. These limitations suggest that the study’s findings may not be representative of the broader diabetic population in the UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of pain in her right forefoot that has been bothering her for the past few months. She describes the pain as a burning sensation that is triggered by walking. The patient denies any history of injury and doesn't engage in regular physical activity. She reports consuming 28 units of alcohol per week. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the middle of her forefoot, and squeezing her metatarsals together reproduces her symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alcohol-related peripheral neuropathy
Correct Answer: Morton's neuroma
Explanation:Based on the examination results, it is unlikely that the patient is suffering from alcohol-induced peripheral neuropathy.
Understanding Morton’s Neuroma
Morton’s neuroma is a non-cancerous growth that affects the intermetatarsal plantar nerve, typically in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space. It is more common in women than men, with a ratio of 4:1. The condition is characterized by pain in the forefoot, particularly in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space, which worsens when walking. Patients may describe the pain as a shooting or burning sensation, and they may feel as though they have a pebble in their shoe. In addition, there may be a loss of sensation in the toes.
To diagnose Morton’s neuroma, doctors typically rely on clinical examination, although ultrasound may be helpful in confirming the diagnosis. One diagnostic technique involves attempting to hold the neuroma between the finger and thumb of one hand while squeezing the metatarsals together with the other hand. If a clicking sound is heard, it may indicate the presence of a neuroma.
Management of Morton’s neuroma typically involves avoiding high-heels and using a metatarsal pad. If symptoms persist for more than three months despite these measures, referral to a specialist may be necessary. Orthotists may provide patients with a metatarsal dome orthotic, while secondary care options may include corticosteroid injection or neurectomy of the affected interdigital nerve and neuroma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man has persistent atrial fibrillation.
Which of the following is the single risk factor that places him most at risk of stroke?Your Answer: Hypertension
Correct Answer: Previous transient ischaemic attack
Explanation:Understanding CHA2DS2-VASc Scoring for Stroke Risk in Atrial Fibrillation Patients
The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is a useful tool for predicting the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation. A score of 0 indicates a low risk, while a score of 1 suggests a moderate risk, and a score of 2 or higher indicates a high risk. One of the risk factors that carries a score of 2 is a previous transient ischaemic attack, while age 75 years or older is another. Other risk factors, such as age 65-74 and female sex at any age, carry a score of 1 each. If a patient has no risk factors, their score would be zero, and not anticoagulating them would be an option. However, it is important to consider bleeding risk, calculated using the ORBIT criteria, before starting anticoagulation in all cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Correct
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You come across an 8-year-old patient in your clinic who presents with a fever, rash, and strawberry tongue, and you diagnose them with scarlet fever. According to Public Health England, what is the timeframe within which you must submit a Notifiable Diseases form?
Your Answer: 72 hours
Explanation:In England and Wales, clinicians are required by law to report cases of scarlet fever as it is a notifiable disease. They do not need to wait for laboratory confirmation before notifying their local health protection team. Public Health England advises that the necessary forms should be filled out immediately upon suspicion of a notifiable disease and submitted within 72 hours. In case of an emergency, verbal notification should be made within 24 hours.
Notifiable Diseases in the UK
In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. These diseases are then reported to the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.
It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK. Additionally, in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 39-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe, intermittent, daily, left-sided frontotemporal/orbital headache that has been bothering him for the past 6 weeks. The headache seems to occur at the same time every day and lasts for about an hour. The pain makes him feel nauseous, although he has not vomited. Interestingly, he also reports that his right eye sometimes appears red and painful with increased lacrimation.
What is the best immediate treatment to administer?Your Answer: Oxygen (100%) + subcutaneous sumatriptan
Explanation:Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Correct
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Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has been unsuccessful in conceiving a child after three rounds of IVF. She is now contemplating adoption and fostering as alternatives. Anna adores children and desires to have a big family.
What is the highest number of children that Anna can foster simultaneously?Your Answer: 3
Explanation:As per the Children Act 1989, families are restricted to fostering a maximum of three children.
Foster care is a system in which children who cannot live with their birth families are placed with foster families who provide them with a safe and nurturing environment. According to Schedule 7 of the Children Act 1989, there is a limit of three foster children per family. Additionally, all children in long-term foster care require a medical examination every six months to ensure their physical and emotional well-being. This system aims to provide children with stability and support while their birth families work towards resolving any issues that led to their placement in foster care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Your practice nurse brings her 14-year-old daughter to see you.
She has recently been seen by a child and adolescent psychiatrist, who has diagnosed mild to moderate depression. She is being seen again tomorrow and mother wants to talk through the treatment options with you.
What is the first line treatment for mild to moderate depression in a 14-year-old?Your Answer: Treatment with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor antidepressant (SSRI) alone
Correct Answer: Treatment with a tricyclic antidepressant alone
Explanation:First Line Treatment for Psychological Disorders
When it comes to treating psychological disorders, it is important to offer the right therapy as a first line treatment. According to experts, one of the following specific psychological therapies should be offered for at least three months: individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive behavioural therapy, or guided self-help. However, before starting any therapy, it is recommended to wait for up to four weeks and monitor the symptoms. This is known as watchful waiting. If the symptoms persist, then one of the psychological therapies mentioned above should be offered. By following this approach, patients can receive the most effective treatment for their psychological disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Correct
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The brother of a 35-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about his sister's behavior. He reports that his sister has always had an inflated sense of self-importance and often expresses delusional thoughts about her potential for success as a lawyer, believing she is capable of becoming a partner at a top law firm. She doesn't seem to care about the impact her actions have on others and appears pleased when she talks about others' failures. He recalls that she behaved similarly when they were growing up and was unsympathetic towards him when he struggled with his studies due to a learning disability.
Which personality disorder is being described in this scenario?Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Explanation:Individuals with narcissistic personalities exhibit a lack of empathy, a sense of entitlement, and exploit others to fulfill their own needs. This behavior is indicative of narcissistic personality disorder. While the individual’s brother may not meet the criteria for a personality disorder, his behavior aligns with many of the features of narcissistic behavior. Narcissistic individuals have an inflated sense of self-importance and believe they possess unlimited abilities to succeed, become powerful, or appear attractive. They lack empathy and are willing to take advantage of others to achieve their own goals. These symptoms often manifest in childhood and persist into adulthood.
Antisocial personality disorder also involves a lack of empathy and guilt, as well as deceitful behavior to achieve personal goals. However, individuals with this disorder often disregard rules and laws, leading to criminal behavior and a propensity for violence. Therefore, the individual in the scenario is more likely to have narcissistic personality disorder.
Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a disinterest in sexual relationships, a preference for solitude, and a lack of close friendships. These individuals are indifferent to praise and recognition, making it an unlikely diagnosis for the individual’s brother.
Schizotypal personality disorder involves eccentric beliefs and behaviors, difficulty forming friendships, and paranoid or suspicious thoughts. This disorder doesn’t typically involve a lack of empathy or a sense of entitlement.
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, feelings of emptiness, and recurrent self-harm attempts.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus. She is currently in good control and has no concurrent illnesses. What is the recommended frequency for monitoring her blood glucose levels?
Your Answer: On waking and after lunch and the evening meal
Correct Answer: At least 4 times a day, including before each meal and before bed
Explanation:For individuals with type 1 diabetes, it is advisable to check their blood glucose levels a minimum of four times daily, which should include prior to every meal and at bedtime.
Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines
The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. The condition can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and is associated with micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide useful information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.
One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be taken into account. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also important, with a recommended frequency of at least 4 times a day, including before meals and before bed. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.
When it comes to insulin, NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens over twice-daily mixed insulin regimens for all adults. Twice-daily insulin detemir is the preferred regime, with once-daily insulin glargine or insulin detemir as an alternative. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins for mealtime insulin replacement.
Finally, NICE recommends considering adding metformin if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher. These guidelines provide a useful framework for managing type 1 diabetes and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a feeling of shortness of breath and choking, on lying down. Some six months earlier she had been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. On examination, she has a goitre. Plain radiography confirms retrosternal extension, which is presumed to be contributing to her shortness of breath. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is less than 0.04 mIU/l (normal range 0.17 - 3.2 mIU/l). Thyroid autoantibodies are negative.
Which of the following diagnoses best fits with this patients clinical picture?
Your Answer: Toxic multinodular goitre
Explanation:Toxic multinodular goitre is a condition that commonly affects women over 55 years of age and is more prevalent than Graves’ disease in the elderly. It is characterized by a goitre that obstructs and extends retrosternally, which may cause atrial fibrillation. The preferred treatment is surgery, but the patient should first be made euthyroid with carbimazole. Graves’ disease, on the other hand, is an autoimmune disorder that accounts for 75% of thyrotoxicosis cases. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, diffuse goitre, and eye changes. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is another autoimmune thyroiditis that initially causes hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism. It is characterized by the aggressive destruction of thyroid cells, resulting in a goitre and high levels of autoantibodies against thyroid peroxidase. Thyroglossal cyst is a cyst that forms from a persistent thyroglossal duct and presents as an asymptomatic midline neck mass. Thyroid carcinoma, on the other hand, presents as a non-tender thyroid nodule with normal thyroid function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presents with dysuria. She is in good health with no fever or back pain. She reports no vaginal bleeding and is not experiencing contractions. Her antenatal course has been uncomplicated and she is receiving midwife-led care. She has no known allergies to medications. Urinalysis shows positive nitrites and 2+ leukocytes, indicating a possible urinary tract infection.
What is the most suitable course of action for primary care management?Your Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and immediately treat with a short course of oral antibiotics as per local prescribing guidelines. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure
Explanation:For women with suspected urinary tract infections accompanied by visible or non-visible haematuria, it is recommended to send a midstream urine sample. According to current NICE CKS guidelines, this should be done before starting antibiotics and again seven days after completing treatment to confirm cure. Treatment should be initiated promptly if a UTI is suspected, without waiting for culture results. Referral to the maternity assessment unit is not necessary if there are no indications of early labour. However, if group B streptococcus is identified in the culture, it is important to inform the antenatal care service so that prophylactic antibiotics can be administered during labour and delivery.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 35-year-old immigrant from India presents with fever, night sweats, backache, weight loss, chronic cough, and hemoptysis. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Tuberculosis in the UK: Risk Factors and Diagnosis
Tuberculosis (TB) remains a significant public health concern in the UK, with 8587 cases reported in 2010. Pulmonary TB is the most common form, accounting for 60% of cases. Certain groups are at higher risk, including those who have had close contact with a TB patient, ethnic minorities, homeless individuals, alcoholics and drug abusers, HIV-positive and immunocompromised patients, elderly individuals, young children, and those with other underlying health conditions. TB can be difficult to diagnose, as primary infection is often asymptomatic and secondary infection can present with nonspecific symptoms. A high level of suspicion is necessary to identify TB in at-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old accountant has approached you seeking assistance in quitting smoking. They have inquired about the effectiveness of various treatments. What is the correct statement regarding smoking cessation?
Your Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy increases odds of cessation by 30%
Correct Answer: Counselling alone is of little value
Explanation:Aids for Smoking Cessation
Smoking is linked to depression, and antidepressants are believed to help with smoking cessation. Bupropion is an antidepressant that doubles the odds of quitting, but its mode of action is unknown. Varenicline increases the odds of quitting by a factor of 3, while nicotine replacement therapy nearly doubles the odds. Cytisine, a low-cost aid used in Eastern Europe, may be effective but requires further evaluation. Genetic differences may affect response to NRT. Counselling is widely accepted as an aid, but its effectiveness varies. Overall, there are several aids available for those looking to quit smoking, and it may be helpful to try a combination of methods for the best chance of success.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 16
Correct
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You are requested to assess a 76-year-old male who complains of experiencing a recent onset of yellowish tint in his vision. He mentions being on multiple medications but cannot recall their names. His medical history includes heart failure, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and COPD. Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause of this adverse effect?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Yellow-green vision may be a side effect of digoxin.
The use of digoxin carries a significant risk of toxicity due to its limited therapeutic range. One of the symptoms of toxicity is the appearance of yellow-tinted vision, also known as xanthopsia.
Similarly, sildenafil use may result in cyanopsia or blue-tinted vision.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.
Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.
If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone doesn’t determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the main diagnostic core symptom of depression?
Your Answer: Persistent sadness or low mood most of the time
Correct Answer: Fatigue or loss of energy
Explanation:Core Symptoms of Depression
Depression is a mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. One of the defining characteristics of depression is the presence of core symptoms that are present for more than two weeks. These core symptoms include persistent feelings of sadness or hopelessness, as well as a marked loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable.
It’s important to note that while there are other symptoms of depression, such as changes in appetite or sleep patterns, these are classified as other symptoms and are not considered core symptoms. This means that someone may experience these symptoms without necessarily meeting the criteria for a diagnosis of depression.
If you or someone you know is experiencing persistent feelings of sadness or loss of interest in activities, it’s important to seek help from a mental health professional. Depression is a treatable condition, and with the right support, individuals can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 18
Correct
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A 56-year-old man is evaluated after being diagnosed with hypertension. As part of his assessment, he underwent a series of blood tests to screen for other risk factors:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 3.9 mmol/l
Urea 6.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 91 µmol/l
Fasting glucose 7.7 mmol/l
Total cholesterol 7.2 mmol/l
Upon seeing the fasting glucose result, you order a HbA1c:
HbA1c 31 mmol/mol (5.0%)
What could account for the discrepancy between the HbA1c and fasting glucose levels?Your Answer: Sickle-cell anaemia
Explanation:Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in red blood cells at a rate proportional to the concentration of glucose in the blood. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous three months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, and then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose levels.
The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c, which reports HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached. The table above shows the relationship between HbA1c, average plasma glucose, and IFCC-HbA1c. By using this table, one can calculate the average plasma glucose level by using the formula: average plasma glucose = (2 * HbA1c) – 4.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 19
Correct
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The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her daughter was recently hospitalized with a fever and a non-blanching rash. The diagnosis was meningococcal septicaemia, but the serogroup is currently unknown. The local health protection unit has advised the mother to speak to her GP about chemoprophylaxis for herself.
The mother is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and has a sulphonamide allergy. She received the meningococcal C vaccine during childhood but did not receive the meningococcal B vaccine as it was not available at the time. What is the most appropriate treatment option for her?Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. The recommended choice, according to Public Health England guidelines, is ciprofloxacin, which is taken as a single-dose treatment for both adults and children. It should be given to all close contacts of the index case during the 7 days before the onset of illness, regardless of vaccination status. Rifampicin is an alternative option but is less desirable due to its potential to reduce the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives and the need for multiple doses. Currently, there is no role for administering a vaccine to the patient as the infection serogroup has not been identified. Even if serogroup B infection is confirmed later, the administration of meningococcal B (MenB) vaccine to close contacts is not recommended unless it is a cluster of cases, which would be determined by the local health protection team rather than the GP.
When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 20
Correct
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A 23-year-old man visits your clinic with a concern about spots on his face, neck, and trunk that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved. The patient is becoming increasingly self-conscious about them and seeks treatment. Upon examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, as well as nodules, pustules, and scarring. The patient is in good health, with normal vital signs.
What is the most appropriate initial approach to managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer to dermatology
Explanation:A patient with severe acne, including scarring, hyperpigmentation, and widespread pustules, should be referred to a dermatologist for specialized treatment. In this case, the patient has nodules, pustules, and scarring, indicating the need for consideration of oral isotretinoin. A trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide would not be appropriate for severe and widespread acne, but may be suitable for mild to moderate cases. Same-day hospital admission is unnecessary for a patient with normal observations and no other health concerns. A review in 2 months is not appropriate for severe acne, which should be managed with topical therapies, oral antibiotics, or referral to a dermatologist. Topical antibiotics are also not recommended for severe and widespread acne, and a dermatology referral is necessary for this patient with lesions on the face, neck, and trunk.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are thinking about recommending hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to a 50-year-old woman who is experiencing bothersome menopausal symptoms. What is the accurate statement regarding HRT and the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE)?
Your Answer: Oestrogen only preparations have an increased risk of VTE compared to combined oestrogen + progestogen preparations
Correct Answer: Combined oestrogen + progestogen preparations have an increased risk of VTE compared to oestrogen only preparations
Explanation:In women aged 50-59 who do not use HRT, the background incidence of VTE is 5 cases per 1,000. The use of oestrogen-only HRT increases the incidence by 2 cases per 1,000, while combined HRT increases it by 7 cases per 1,000. According to the BNF, tibolone doesn’t elevate the risk of VTE when compared to combined HRT.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.
Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.
In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents with sudden vision loss in her left eye. She has a history of severe rheumatoid arthritis and is currently on methotrexate, infliximab, and prednisolone. Over the past six weeks, she has been experiencing persistent headaches. Upon examination, bilateral papilloedema is observed, leading to a suspected diagnosis of intracranial hypertension. What is the most probable cause of the intracranial hypertension?
Your Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:The cause of the patient’s intracranial hypertension is likely due to the use of prednisolone. If the optic nerve becomes compressed, sudden loss of vision may occur.
Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.
There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.
Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.
It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 23
Correct
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A 70-year-old man visits his General Practitioner requesting a repeat prescription for his glaucoma eye drops, which were recently changed at the hospital. He also asks for an additional salbutamol inhaler due to his mild asthma becoming more problematic lately. What eye drops is this patient likely to have been prescribed? Choose one answer.
Your Answer: Timolol
Explanation:Managing Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma: Treatment Options and Considerations
Primary open-angle glaucoma is the most common form of glaucoma, characterized by restricted drainage of aqueous humour through the trabecular meshwork, resulting in ocular hypertension and gradual visual field loss. To manage this condition, drugs are available that reduce ocular hypertension through different mechanisms. Typically, a topical β blocker like timolol or a prostaglandin analogue such as latanoprost is the first-line treatment. However, it may be necessary to combine these drugs or add others like sympathomimetics (brimonidine), carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (dorzolamide), or miotics (pilocarpine) later on. It’s important to note that topical β blockers should not be used in patients with asthma or obstructive airways disease unless there are no other suitable treatment options due to the risk of systemic absorption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the highest ranked source of evidence in the hierarchy of evidence based medicine?
Your Answer: Randomised, double blind, placebo-controlled trial
Correct Answer: Meta-analysis
Explanation:Hierarchy of Evidence Grades
The strength of evidence provided by different study types is ranked in a hierarchy. This hierarchy is important to understand when making clinical decisions based on research. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) documents these evidence grades in Chapter 6 of their Guidelines manual (PMG6).
The strongest level of evidence is provided by meta-analyses, followed by randomized controlled trials (RCTs), controlled studies without randomization, quasi-experimental studies, non-experimental descriptive studies, and finally expert committee reports, opinions, and clinical experience.
It is crucial to consider the strength of evidence when interpreting research findings and applying them to clinical practice. By understanding the hierarchy of evidence grades, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions that are based on the most reliable and robust evidence available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has advanced pancreatic cancer. He is currently taking 40 mg prolonged release morphine twice a day and 15 mg of morphine oral solution three times a day. He is experiencing drowsiness and difficulty swallowing medication. You determine that a continuous subcutaneous infusion of morphine via a syringe driver is necessary. What is the most suitable dosage of subcutaneous morphine in this scenario? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: 30 mg/24 hours, 5 mg for breakthrough pain
Correct Answer: 45 mg/24 hours, 7.5 mg for breakthrough pain
Explanation:Dosage Calculation Errors
Dosage calculation errors can have serious consequences for patients. Here are some examples of errors and how to correct them:
1. 45 mg/24 hours, 7.5 mg for breakthrough pain
To calculate the 24 hour dose, add together the current doses in 24 hours and convert to an equivalent subcutaneous dose. For morphine, divide by 2. The breakthrough dose is 1/6 of the baseline dose.2. 45 mg/24 hours, 10 mg for breakthrough pain
The baseline dose over 24 hours is correct but the breakthrough dose is incorrect. The dose for breakthrough pain is 1/6 of the baseline dose.3. 60 mg/24 hours, 10 mg for breakthrough pain
The 24 hour dose needs to incorporate PRN doses and be adjusted for administration by injection rather than oral.4. 90 mg/24 hours, 15 mg for breakthrough pain
The error made here is not converting the dose from oral to subcutaneous. This is done by dividing the oral dose by 2.5. 30 mg/24 hours, 5 mg for breakthrough pain
The baseline dose needs to include any PRN doses taken. The current regimen should be converted from oral to subcutaneous correctly, but the 30 mg of oral solution taken should also be taken into account. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 26
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father. The boy has been complaining of an itchy bottom, so his father suspected threadworm infection and got some mebendazole over the counter. Despite a dose of the medication, he continues to have itching. External examination is normal.
What is the most effective test to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Adhesive tape test
Explanation:To investigate for threadworms when the diagnosis is unclear, the recommended method is the adhesive tape test. While lab confirmation is not typically necessary for diagnosis, the adhesive tape test can be used to confirm the presence of threadworm eggs. This involves applying clear adhesive tape to the perianal skin first thing in the morning, before washing or using the toilet, and sending the sample to the lab for microscopy. It may be necessary to repeat the test if initial results are inconclusive. Serology is not a reliable method for diagnosing threadworms, and skin scrape and skin swab tests are not commonly used in the UK.
Threadworms: A Common Infestation Among Children in the UK
Infestation with threadworms, also known as pinworms, is a prevalent condition among children in the UK. The infestation occurs when individuals swallow eggs present in their environment. Although around 90% of cases are asymptomatic, some possible features include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls.
Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.
The recommended management for threadworm infestation is a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is used as a first-line treatment for children over six months old, with a single dose given unless the infestation persists. By following these guidelines, individuals can effectively manage and prevent the spread of threadworms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 27
Correct
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A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. He is being treated with radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
What is the most important factor influencing this patient's prognosis?Your Answer: Response to treatment
Explanation:Hodgkin’s lymphoma can be cured in the majority of patients, especially those who respond well to treatment. A prompt and complete response to chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy is the most important factor in predicting a patient’s prognosis. Residual masses may not always indicate persisting disease, as fibrosis can persist after effective therapy. Patients who relapse after initial successful treatment can sometimes be treated with further chemotherapy, stem cell transplantation, and/or radiotherapy. The duration of initial remission is a factor in the success of retreatment. Bulky disease, a high ESR, male gender, and stage IV disease are associated with a poorer prognosis. Other adverse prognostic factors include age ≥ 45 years, low haemoglobin, low lymphocyte count, low albumin, high WCC, mixed-cellularity or lymphocyte-depleted histology, and B symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately relates to the QALY measurement?
Your Answer: It is a means of quantifying the side effects of drugs
Correct Answer: It can be used to measure the cost effectiveness of treatments
Explanation:The QALY: Measuring Cost Effectiveness of Treatments
The QALY (Quality-Adjusted Life Year) is a tool used to measure the clinical effectiveness of different treatments and compare their cost effectiveness. It takes into account the quality of life factors of a patient, such as pain level, mobility, mood, and ability to carry out daily activities, and assigns equal weight to each factor. The resulting quality of life rating ranges from negative values (worst possible health) to 1 (best possible health).
The QALY can be used to determine how many extra months or years of life a patient might gain from a treatment of reasonable quality. It is also used to calculate the cost effectiveness of a treatment, by dividing the extra cost of the treatment by the additional QALY gained. For example, if a new drug costs £10,000 and provides an additional 0.7 QALY, the cost per QALY gained would be £10,000/0.7 = £14,285.
NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) considers each drug on a case-by-case basis, but generally considers treatments costing more than £20,000-30,000 per QALY to be not cost effective. The QALY is a valuable tool in determining the most effective and efficient treatments for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has come to see you to discuss whether he requires antibiotics prior to undergoing a root canal procedure. His dentist has suggested that he consult with his GP due to his history of infective endocarditis. Upon reviewing his electronic medical record, you discover that he has hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Additionally, he has native valvular heart disease and his previous infection was caused by staphylococcus. Presently, he appears to be in good health and is not experiencing any acute medical problems.
As per NICE guidelines, what treatment is recommended in this case?Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: No specific treatment
Explanation:In the UK, it is not standard practice to use antibiotic prophylaxis as a preventive measure against infective endocarditis during dental or other procedures.
Changes in Antibiotic Prophylaxis for Infective Endocarditis
In 2008, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released new guidelines regarding antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis. These guidelines significantly altered the list of procedures for which prophylaxis is recommended. According to NICE, dental procedures, gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract procedures, and respiratory tract procedures no longer require prophylaxis. However, NICE does recommend that any infections in individuals at risk of infective endocarditis be promptly investigated and treated to reduce the risk of developing endocarditis. Additionally, if an individual at risk of infective endocarditis is receiving antimicrobial therapy due to a suspected infection at the site of a gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedure, they should be given an antibiotic that covers organisms that cause infective endocarditis.
It is important to note that these recommendations differ from those of the American Heart Association and European Society of Cardiology, which still advocate for antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients undergoing dental procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You receive a clinic letter from psychiatry regarding a 65-year-old patient who you referred with severe depression. The psychiatrist would like you to switch from fluoxetine to venlafaxine (a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor).
What is the most appropriate way to make this change?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cross-taper sertraline and imipramine
Explanation:Cross-tapering is recommended when switching from an SSRI to a TCA to avoid interactions and the risk of serotonin syndrome. Completing withdrawal of sertraline without introducing imipramine is not advised. Direct switch and waiting periods are not appropriate. Waiting 7 days is only necessary when switching from fluoxetine to a TCA.
Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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