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Question 1
Correct
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A 6-month-old girl has poorly demarcated erythematous patches, with scale and crusting on both cheeks. Milder patches are also to be found on the limbs and trunk. The limbs are predominantly affected in the flexures. The child has been scratching and has disturbed sleep because of the itch.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Atopic eczema
Explanation:Distinguishing Skin Conditions: Atopic Eczema, Impetigo, Acute Urticaria, Psoriasis, and Scabies
When examining a child with skin complaints, it is important to distinguish between different skin conditions. Atopic eczema is a common cause of skin complaints in young children, presenting with poorly demarcated erythematous lesions, scale, and crusting. It typically affects the face in young children and only starts to predominate in the flexures at an older age.
Impetigo, on the other hand, would cause lesions in a less widespread area and present with a yellow/golden crust. Acute urticaria would cause several raised smooth lesions that appear rapidly, without crust or scale. Psoriasis produces well-demarcated lesions, which are not seen in atopic eczema.
Scabies would normally produce a more widespread rash with papules and excoriation, and sometimes visible burrows. It would not produce the scaled crusted lesions described in atopic eczema. By understanding the unique characteristics of each skin condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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As a healthcare practitioner, it is important to assess pregnancy risk in women. When prescribing certain drugs, it is necessary to determine a woman's risk of pregnancy. What criteria can be used to reasonably determine that a woman is not currently pregnant if there are no signs or symptoms of pregnancy and she is within the first 7 days of a natural menstrual period, less than 4 weeks postpartum (non-breastfeeding), fully breastfeeding and amenorrhoeic AND less than 6 months postpartum, within the first 7 days after an abortion, miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy or uterine evacuation for gestational trophoblastic disease, has not had intercourse for >14 days AND has a negative high-sensitivity urine pregnancy test (able to detect hCG levels around 20 mIU/ml), or has been correctly and consistently using a reliable method of contraception?
Your Answer: She has not had intercourse for >14 days AND has a negative high-sensitivity urine pregnancy test (able to detect hCG levels around 20 mIU/ml)
Correct Answer: She is fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic AND less than 6 months postpartum
Explanation:Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview
Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).
Barrier methods, such as condoms, act as a physical barrier and can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). However, their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people. Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation but increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and certain types of cancer. The progesterone-only pill thickens cervical mucous, but irregular bleeding is a common side effect.
LARCs include implantable contraceptives, injectable contraceptives, and intrauterine devices (IUDs). The implantable contraceptive and injectable contraceptive both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous, with the implant lasting up to three years and the injection lasting 12 weeks. The IUD decreases sperm motility and survival, while the intrauterine system (IUS) prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous, with irregular bleeding being a common side effect.
In summary, understanding the different types of contraception available and their methods of action can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits your GP practice, who is typically healthy. He had come to see you a few weeks ago with a viral infection, during which you recorded his clinic blood pressure as 168/105 mmHg. You have since arranged for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM), blood tests, urine dip, an ECG, and are now reviewing the results with him.
The ABPM average shows his blood pressure to be 157/100 mmHg. You have also conducted blood tests to check his plasma glucose, electrolytes, creatinine, estimated glomerular filtration rate, serum total cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol. His renal function and glucose levels are normal, and a urine dip for protein and ECG are also normal. Upon checking the back of his eyes, you find that the fundi are normal. His QRisk is calculated to be 28%.
You discuss potential treatment options with the patient. What should be included in your management plan?Your Answer: Offer amlodipine, lifestyle advice, atorvastatin and aim for clinic BP <135/85 mmHg
Correct Answer:
Explanation:As a primary prevention measure for cardiovascular disease, it is recommended to discuss and suggest statin therapy to the patient. The target for clinic blood pressure should be less than 140/90 mmHg and less than 135/85 mmHg for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. To achieve this, amlodipine and lifestyle advice should be offered along with atorvastatin.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding hand, foot and mouth disease is incorrect?
Your Answer: Palm and sole lesions tend to occur before oral ulcers
Explanation:Oral lesions typically manifest before palm and sole lesions in cases of hand, foot and mouth disease.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.
The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a middle-aged diabetic woman who is experiencing painful neuropathic symptoms in her feet.
The patient has been receiving routine monitoring at the clinic due to her poorly controlled diabetes, high blood pressure, and renal dysfunction.
She reports that she was prescribed amitriptyline a few weeks ago, which provided significant relief for her symptoms. However, she had to discontinue its use due to bothersome adverse effects.
What would be the most suitable medication to consider next for managing her symptoms?Your Answer: Duloxetine
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Neuropathic Pain Management
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain in non-specialist settings. The recommended drugs for painful neuropathy are amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, and pregabalin. If one of these drugs fails due to poor tolerance or effectiveness, then one of the other three should be tried. Phenytoin and valproate were previously used but are not currently recommended. Carbamazepine is only used for trigeminal neuralgia. Nortriptyline is not included in the latest guidelines. These guidelines aim to provide healthcare professionals with evidence-based recommendations for the management of neuropathic pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You see a 10-year-old child in afternoon surgery. He presents with pain over his left tibia. Although he plays football with his friends regularly, there is no history of significant injury.
Which one of the following would be a red-flag prompting early referral?Your Answer: Rest pain
Correct Answer: History of a bruise over the site
Explanation:Bone Tumours and Osteochondrosis: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Rest pain, back pain, and unexplained limp may indicate the presence of a bone tumour and require immediate attention from a paediatrician. In such cases, referral or x-ray may be necessary to determine the cause of the symptoms. Osteochondrosis of the tibial tubercles, previously known as Osgood-Schlatters syndrome, typically presents with bilateral tibial tuberosity pain that subsides with rest.
Bone tumours are most commonly found in the limbs, particularly around the knee in the case of osteosarcoma. If persistent localised bone pain and/or swelling is present, an x-ray should be taken to rule out the possibility of a bone tumour. If a bone tumour is suspected, an urgent referral should be made.
It is important to note that a history of injury should not be assumed to exclude the possibility of a bone sarcoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Correct
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What conditions or treatments are linked to a higher risk of osteoporosis and fractures?
Your Answer: Undiagnosed coeliac disease
Explanation:Osteoporosis and Fracture Risk Factors
Undiagnosed or untreated coeliac disease can lead to malabsorption and increase the risk of osteoporosis and fractures. On the other hand, skimmed milk contains more calcium per pint than full fat milk, and bendroflumethiazide can improve calcium retention and bone mineral density. It is important to note that irritable bowel syndrome doesn’t cause malabsorption or increased fracture risk, unlike coeliac disease or inflammatory bowel diseases. Lastly, hyperthyroidism can increase the risk of osteoporosis, but hypothyroidism doesn’t unless it is over-replaced. By understanding these risk factors, individuals can take steps to prevent osteoporosis and fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up. Despite being on ramipril 10 mg od, amlodipine 10 mg od, and indapamide 2.5mg od, his latest blood pressure reading is 168/98 mmHg. He also takes aspirin 75 mg od and metformin 1g bd for type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has a BMI of 34 kg/m², smokes 10 cigarettes/day, and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol per week. His most recent HbA1c level is 66 mmol/mol (DCCT - 8.2%). What is the most probable cause of his persistent hypertension?
Your Answer: His alcohol intake
Correct Answer: His raised body mass index
Explanation:A significant proportion of individuals with resistant hypertension have an underlying secondary cause, such as Conn’s syndrome.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 30-year-old man and 29-year-old woman in a relationship are both known to have sickle cell trait. They inquire about the likelihood of sickle cell disease in any offspring they may have.
What is the most probable risk of sickle cell disease in their children?Your Answer: 1 in 4
Explanation:Understanding the Inheritance of Sickle Cell Disease
Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects the shape of red blood cells, causing them to become rigid and sickle-shaped. The inheritance of this disease is complex and involves the interaction of two genes, one from each parent. Here is a breakdown of the probabilities of inheritance:
1 in 4 chance of having sickle cell disease: If both parents have sickle cell trait, there is a 1 in 4 chance of their child inheriting two copies of the abnormal gene and developing sickle cell disease.
1 in 2 chance of having sickle cell trait: If one parent has sickle cell trait and the other has normal hemoglobin, there is a 1 in 2 chance of their child inheriting one copy of the abnormal gene and becoming a carrier of sickle cell trait.
3 in 4 chance of inheriting the gene: Regardless of whether the child develops the disease or not, there is a 3 in 4 chance of inheriting at least one copy of the abnormal gene.
No risk for 1 in 4 children: There is a 1 in 4 chance of a child inheriting two copies of the normal hemoglobin gene and having neither the disease nor the trait.
No sex-linked inheritance: Sickle cell disease is not inherited in a sex-linked pattern, meaning both males and females are equally likely to be affected.
Understanding the probabilities of inheritance can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about 'spots' on the head of his penis. He mentions that they have always been present and have not changed in any way. The patient confirms that he is not sexually active and has never had any sexual partners.
During the examination, the GP observes several flesh-coloured papules on the corona of the penis. The GP diagnoses the patient with pearly penile papules.
What is the most important advice the GP can offer the patient?Your Answer: Pearly penile papules are caused by the herpes simplex virus and a viral swab should be undertaken
Correct Answer: Pearly penile papules are benign and do not need to be investigated
Explanation:Pearly penile papules are a common and harmless occurrence that do not require any medical intervention. These small bumps, typically measuring 1-2 mm in size, are found around the corona of the penis and are not a cause for concern. Although patients may worry about their appearance, they are asymptomatic and do not indicate any underlying health issues.
It is important to note that pearly penile papules are not caused by any sexually transmitted infections, and therefore, routine sexual health screenings are not necessary. Screening should only be conducted if there is a genuine concern or suspicion of an infection. Typically, sexual health initiatives target individuals between the ages of 18 and 25.
Understanding STI Ulcers
Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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What is the conclusion of the randomised placebo-controlled trial conducted by experienced vascular surgeons comparing a specific carotid surgery technique to another operation?
Your Answer: Efficacy
Explanation:The Importance of Sham Surgery in Clinical Trials
Sham surgery, also known as placebo surgery, is a simulated surgical procedure that excludes the step believed to be therapeutically necessary. In clinical trials of surgical interventions, sham surgery serves as a crucial scientific control.
An experienced group of vascular surgeons conducted a study on the effectiveness of sham surgery in carotid surgery. However, it has been challenging to prove its usefulness outside areas of expertise. It is often difficult to generalize the findings of a study group to everyday practice.
Efficacy refers to the effect of something under ideal or laboratory conditions. It is important to note that this study did not comment on mortality rates. Overall, sham surgery plays a vital role in clinical trials and helps ensure the validity of surgical interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following methods of economic evaluation utilize the incremental cost-effectiveness ratio (ICER)?
Your Answer: Cost-benefit analysis
Correct Answer: Cost-effectiveness analysis
Explanation:Inputs in Economic Evaluation Studies
In economic evaluation studies, inputs refer to the resources used in delivering a healthcare intervention. There are three main types of costs associated with these inputs: direct, indirect, and intangible costs. Direct costs are those that are directly related to the intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, and travel costs for the patient. Indirect costs are those that are incurred due to the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work or reduced work productivity, as well as time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are those that are difficult to measure, such as pain or suffering experienced by the patient.
Understanding the different types of costs is important in economic evaluation studies as it allows for a comprehensive assessment of the costs associated with a healthcare intervention. By considering all types of costs, decision-makers can make informed decisions about the most cost-effective interventions to implement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female with ulcerative colitis is discovered to have anti-smooth muscle antibodies.
What is the most suitable subsequent test for this patient?Your Answer: Liver function test
Correct Answer: Order an urgent endoscopy
Explanation:Next Investigation for Women with Suspected Autoimmune Hepatitis
The most appropriate next investigation for this woman is to conduct liver function tests (LFTs) to assess if there are any features of autoimmune hepatitis. This includes checking for raised levels of bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT), and alkaline phosphatase. If any of these levels are elevated, further diagnostic imaging or a liver biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis.
Autoimmune hepatitis is often seen in individuals with other autoimmune disorders such as ulcerative colitis. Therefore, it is important to conduct these tests to determine the underlying cause of the woman’s symptoms and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a history of GORD symptoms presents to the clinic after a three month trial of omeprazole 20 mg. Further investigations have revealed that he has a hiatus hernia. The decision is made to continue his omeprazole treatment and he is advised to lose weight as his BMI is 32.
Despite losing 5 kg over the past six months, he has visited the clinic twice for antibiotics due to lower respiratory tract infections. He has also been experiencing a nocturnal cough and possible asthma symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?Your Answer: Advise him to prop up the head of the bed at night
Correct Answer: Increase his omeprazole to 40 mg
Explanation:Indications for Surgical Repair of Hiatus Hernia
Indications for surgical repair of hiatus hernia include recurrent respiratory tract infection due to reflux. It is also considered in patients who have a para-oesophageal hernia because of the risk of strangulation.
Given this patient’s young age and the fact that he has attended twice in six months with symptoms of respiratory tract infection, surgical referral for laparoscopic fundoplication is advised. This procedure can help alleviate symptoms of reflux and prevent further respiratory tract infections. It is important to consider surgical intervention in cases where conservative management has failed or when there is a risk of complications such as strangulation. Proper evaluation and management of hiatus hernia can improve the quality of life for patients and prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old patient presents with diarrhoea and is examined to reveal dry mucous membranes. The caregiver reports a decrease in wet nappies. The medical team decides to administer oral rehydration therapy. What is the recommended amount to be given over a 4-hour period, in addition to the usual maintenance fluids?
Your Answer: 20 ml/kg
Correct Answer: 50 ml/kg
Explanation:Managing Diarrhoea and Vomiting in Children
Diarrhoea and vomiting are common in young children, with rotavirus being the most common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. The 2009 NICE guidelines provide recommendations for managing these symptoms in children. Diarrhoea typically lasts for 5-7 days and stops within 2 weeks, while vomiting usually lasts for 1-2 days and stops within 3 days. When assessing hydration status, NICE suggests using normal, dehydrated, or shocked categories instead of the traditional mild, moderate, or severe categories.
Children younger than 1 year, especially those younger than 6 months, infants who were of low birth weight, and those who have passed six or more diarrhoeal stools in the past 24 hours or vomited three times or more in the past 24 hours are at an increased risk of dehydration. Infants who have stopped breastfeeding during the illness and children with signs of malnutrition are also at risk. Features suggestive of hypernatraemic dehydration include jittery movements, increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, convulsions, and drowsiness or coma.
If clinical shock is suspected, children should be admitted for intravenous rehydration. For children with no evidence of dehydration, continue breastfeeding and other milk feeds, encourage fluid intake, and discourage fruit juices and carbonated drinks. If dehydration is suspected, give 50 ml/kg low osmolarity oral rehydration solution (ORS) solution over 4 hours, plus ORS solution for maintenance, often and in small amounts. It is also important to continue breastfeeding and consider supplementing with usual fluids (including milk feeds or water, but not fruit juices or carbonated drinks). Stool culture should be done in certain situations, such as when septicaemia is suspected or there is blood and/or mucous in the stool, or when the child is immunocompromised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A study examines the effectiveness of bisphosphonates in managing pain caused by bone metastases in a group of 120 patients. Among them, 40 patients were treated with conventional therapy involving NSAIDs and radiotherapy, while the remaining 80 patients received bisphosphonates. Out of these 80 patients, 40 experienced considerable pain relief. What are the odds of a patient with bone metastases receiving significant pain relief from bisphosphonates?
Your Answer: 0.5
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:Out of the 80 patients who were given bisphosphonates, 40 experienced significant pain relief. This means that the remaining 40 patients did not experience significant pain relief. The odds of experiencing significant pain relief after taking bisphosphonates in this group of patients is 1:1.
Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio
When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.
In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.
For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.
Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 17
Correct
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A 20-year-old patient comes in requesting to start taking a combined oral contraceptive pill. During the consultation, she mentions having experienced migraine with aura in the past. She asks why the combined oral contraceptive pill is not recommended for her. How should you respond?
Your Answer: Significantly increased risk of ischaemic stroke
Explanation:Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors
Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.
When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.
In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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According to the UK immunisation schedule, at what age would you administer the pneumococcal polysaccharide (PPV) vaccine to an otherwise healthy individual?
Your Answer: 12 weeks and 1 year
Correct Answer: 65 years of age
Explanation:Understanding the Pneumococcal Vaccine
The pneumococcal vaccine is an important immunization that helps protect against pneumococcal disease, which can cause serious illnesses such as pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections. However, it’s important to note that there are two types of pneumococcal vaccines – the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV).
The PCV vaccine is given to children under the age of 2, with the first dose administered at 12 weeks old and a booster at 1 year. On the other hand, the PPV vaccine is given to individuals over the age of 2, with otherwise healthy individuals receiving it at 65 years of age. It’s important to know which vaccine to administer as the immune response to each vaccine is different.
In addition to the recommended age groups, individuals with certain medical conditions such as chronic respiratory or heart disease, diabetes, and immunosuppression are also eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. Surgeries will carry both vaccines in stock, so it’s crucial to be aware of the appropriate vaccine to administer based on age and medical history. By understanding the pneumococcal vaccine and its administration, we can help protect ourselves and others from serious illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 19
Correct
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A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a noticeable bulge in his groin area. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, the doctor observes a reducible lump with a cough impulse above and medial to the pubic tubercle. The patient reports no pain or other symptoms.
What is the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer: Routine surgical referral
Explanation:Referral for surgical repair is the recommended course of action for inguinal hernias, even if they are not causing any symptoms. This patient, who has an inguinal hernia, should be referred for surgery as they are fit and well. Physiotherapy referral, reassurance and safety netting, and ultrasound scan are not appropriate in this case.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.
The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.
After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A study is conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new medication for treating high cholesterol. Two groups of patients are randomly assigned, one group taking the established drug for 6 months and the other taking the new drug for 6 months. Cholesterol levels are measured before and after the treatment. After a one-month break from medication, the groups switch medications and cholesterol levels are measured again. The difference in cholesterol levels before and after each medication is calculated for each patient. Which statistical test is most suitable for analyzing the results?
Your Answer: Chi-squared test
Correct Answer: Student's paired t-test
Explanation:A crossover study is being conducted where the same patients are being compared based on parametric data, with medication being swapped halfway through the study. Therefore, the appropriate statistical test to use would be the Student’s paired t-test.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his parents for a consultation. He has been diagnosed with otitis media with effusion (OME), or ‘glue ear’. Insertion of ventilation tubes (grommets) has been recommended. His parents are unsure whether to proceed and ask the GP about the benefits.
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), which of the following is most improved due to this procedure?
Your Answer: Speech and language development
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The Short and Long-Term Effects of Grommet Insertion for Otitis Media with Effusion
Grommet insertion is a common surgical procedure for children with otitis media with effusion (OME). However, it is important to understand the short and long-term effects of this procedure.
Short-term hearing improvement is the only proven benefit of grommet insertion, with evidence showing improvement for up to 12 months after surgery. However, the effect diminishes after six months and grommets only remain effective while they are in place, which is usually an average of ten months.
In terms of behaviour and cognitive development, there is no evidence-based association between grommet insertion and improvement. Adaptations at school, such as seating arrangements, can help with educational attainment for children with OME.
Similarly, there is little evidence that grommet insertion improves speech and language development in the long term. Instead, parents and caregivers should focus on supporting speech and language development through activities such as daily reading.
Overall, while grommet insertion can provide short-term hearing improvement, it is important to consider other factors when making decisions about treatment for OME.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In education literature there is much discussion over the notion of ICE (Ideas, Concerns, and Expectation).
Why do teachers use this phrase?Your Answer: To address non-verbal cues
Correct Answer: To meet the criteria on the MRCGP marking schedule
Explanation:Understanding the Patient Agenda with ICE
Patients attend medical appointments for various reasons, and it is crucial for doctors to address their concerns and expectations to be effective communicators. This is known as the Patient Agenda, which can be explored using the Ideas, Concerns, and Expectations (ICE) instrument.
For instance, a patient with a sore throat may have different reasons for attending. It could be due to their belief that any illness should be brought to the doctor’s attention or a worry that the sore throat is a symptom of a more severe condition.
As doctors, it is essential to understand the patient’s agenda to provide appropriate care. However, asking patients what they think is wrong may not always yield helpful responses. Some patients may respond with You’re the doctor, you tell me, which can be uncomfortable.
In conclusion, understanding the patient agenda and using ICE can help doctors address patients’ concerns and expectations effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 23
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic after receiving a positive pregnancy test. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and this is her second pregnancy. During her first pregnancy, she had gestational diabetes. She has no medical conditions and no family history of diabetes or hypertension. Her BMI is 23 kg/m². As per the current NICE guidelines, what investigation should be arranged in primary care?
Your Answer: Arrange an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first OGTT is normal
Explanation:For women who have had gestational diabetes in a previous pregnancy, it is recommended that they undergo an OGTT as soon as possible after their initial booking, and then again at 24-28 weeks. If the first test is normal, they may also be offered early self-monitoring of blood glucose as an alternative. Women who have other risk factors for gestational diabetes, such as a BMI over 30 kg/m², a previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or more, a first degree relative with diabetes, or a minority ethnic family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes, but no previous history of gestational diabetes, should be offered an OGTT at 24-28 weeks.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A new screening test called FingerChol has been developed to diagnose hyperlipidaemia with a point-of-care finger-prick test. To evaluate the effectiveness of the test, 200 participants aged 50 and above are screened with the FingerChol test. These patients also undergo the gold-standard test (formal lipid profile blood test) for comparison.
The results obtained are shown in the table below:
Hyperlipidaemic Not hyperlipidaemic
Positive FingerChol test 60 40
Negative FingerChol test 20 80
What is the positive predictive value of the FingerChol test for this population?Your Answer: 80%
Correct Answer: 60%
Explanation:The positive predictive value (PPV) is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the total number of positive test results, which represents the probability of actually having the disease if the test result is positive. For example, if there are 30 true positives and 20 false positives, the PPV would be 60%.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 25
Correct
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Sophie is a 82-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and hypertension. She visits her GP after experiencing a 10-minute episode where she couldn't move her left arm. Her arm function has since returned to normal and her neurological examination is unremarkable.
What is the most accurate diagnosis for Sophie based on the given information?Your Answer: Neurological dysfunction caused by a transient episode of brain ischaemia
Explanation:The definition of a TIA has been updated to focus on the affected tissue rather than the duration of symptoms. It is now defined as a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction resulting from restricted blood flow to the brain, spinal cord, or retina, without causing acute tissue damage. An ischaemic stroke, on the other hand, is characterized by neurological dysfunction caused by cerebral infarction, while multiple sclerosis is defined by neurological dysfunction caused by demyelination. Finally, a functional neurological disorder is characterized by transient symptoms of psychological origin.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.
Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.
Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman has plaques of psoriasis on her face.
Select the single most suitable preparation for her to apply.Your Answer: Hydrocortisone cream 1%
Explanation:Treatment of Facial Psoriasis: Precautions and Options
When it comes to treating psoriasis on the face, it is important to keep in mind that the skin in this area is particularly sensitive. While various preparations can be used, some may cause irritation, staining, or other unwanted effects. For instance, calcipotriol can irritate the skin, betamethasone can lead to skin atrophy, and coal tar and dithranol can cause staining. Therefore, milder options are typically preferred, such as hydrocortisone or clobetasone butyrate. These may also be combined with an agent that is effective against Candida for flexural psoriasis.
It is important to note that corticosteroids should only be used for a limited time (1-2 weeks per month) to treat facial psoriasis. If short-term moderate potency corticosteroids do not provide satisfactory results or if continuous treatment is needed, a calcineurin inhibitor such as pimecrolimus cream or tacrolimus ointment may be used for up to 4 weeks. However, it is worth noting that these options do not have a license for this particular indication. Overall, caution and careful consideration of the options are key when treating psoriasis on the face.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 35-year-old male visits his GP with a complaint of persistent nasal discharge on his right side and facial pressure that worsens when he bends forward. He frequently breathes through his mouth because his nose is obstructed. He has a history of asthma and has been smoking for 6 pack-years.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Referral to ENT
Explanation:Unilateral symptoms should raise concern for patients with chronic rhinosinusitis. The typical presentation includes facial pain, frontal pressure worsened by bending forward, clear nasal discharge (if due to allergies), and difficulty breathing through the nose. Post-nasal drip may also cause a chronic cough. However, if the symptoms are only on one side, it is considered a red flag and warrants a referral to an ENT specialist. The standard management for chronic sinusitis involves avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and irrigating the nasal passages with saline solution. Loratadine may be helpful if the cause is related to allergies.
Understanding Chronic Rhinosinusitis
Chronic rhinosinusitis is a common condition that affects approximately 10% of the population. It is characterized by inflammation of the nasal passages and paranasal sinuses that lasts for 12 weeks or more. There are several factors that can predispose individuals to this condition, including atopy, nasal obstruction, recent infections, swimming/diving, and smoking.
Symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and post-nasal drip. Treatment options include avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution. However, it is important to be aware of red flag symptoms such as unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite treatment, and epistaxis, which may require further evaluation and management.
In summary, chronic rhinosinusitis is a common inflammatory disorder that can cause significant discomfort and impact quality of life. Understanding the predisposing factors and symptoms, as well as appropriate management strategies, can help individuals effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old beauty therapist has come to see you because she is constantly arguing with her partner. They have been living together for the past six months. She says that the arguments are making her feel miserable and that her only enjoyment in life is her work and occasional nights out clubbing with her friends.
She says that her boyfriend resents her lifestyle and is very possessive of her time. She feels depressed when she arrives home and he is there, unless he is working a late shift or it is a night out with her friends. On examination, she appears physically fit, tanned, and smartly dressed. She talked about her partner's deficiencies for most of the consultation. Her past medical history includes a tonsillectomy and Chickenpox as a child. She is a non-smoker and visits the gym three times a week. A colleague advised her to visit you to help her with her problems.
What would be the most appropriate way to manage this patient?Your Answer: Advise relationship counselling
Correct Answer: Advise her to take St John's wort
Explanation:Relationship Issues vs. Depression: Understanding the Difference
There is no clear indication of depression in this patient’s history. Despite experiencing disharmony in her relationship, she is still able to lead a normal life and enjoy most of it. Therefore, there is no need to prescribe antidepressants or refer her to a psychiatrist. Instead, offering support and guidance towards relationship counseling is the best course of action. It is important to understand the difference between relationship issues and depression, as they require different approaches to treatment. By addressing the root cause of the problem, the patient can work towards resolving her relationship issues and improving her overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 29
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A 27-year-old male patient complains of bloating and changes in his bowel movements. He has been maintaining a food diary and suspects that his symptoms may be due to a food allergy. Laboratory results reveal normal full blood count, ESR, and thyroid function tests. Anti-endomysial antibodies are negative. What is the most appropriate test to explore the possibility of a food allergy?
Your Answer: Skin prick test
Explanation:Skin prick testing is the preferred initial approach as it is cost-effective and can assess a wide range of allergens. Although IgE testing is useful in food allergy, it is specific IgE antibodies that are measured rather than total IgE levels.
Types of Allergy Tests
Allergy tests are used to determine the specific allergens that trigger an individual’s allergic reactions. There are several types of allergy tests available, each with its own advantages and limitations. The most commonly used test is the skin prick test, which is easy to perform and inexpensive. Drops of diluted allergen are placed on the skin, and a needle is used to pierce the skin. If a patient has an allergy, a wheal will typically develop. This test is useful for food allergies and pollen allergies.
Another type of allergy test is the radioallergosorbent test (RAST), which determines the amount of IgE that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. Results are given in grades from 0 (negative) to 6 (strongly positive). This test is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (such as pollen), and wasp/bee venom.
Skin patch testing is another type of allergy test that is useful for contact dermatitis. Around 30-40 allergens are placed on the back, and irritants may also be tested for. The patches are removed 48 hours later, and the results are read by a dermatologist after a further 48 hours.
Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, for example if there is extensive eczema or if the patient is taking antihistamines. Overall, the choice of allergy test depends on the individual’s specific needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to you with elevated blood pressure. He has a history of chronic kidney disease and his estimated glomerular filtration rate was 53 ml/min six weeks ago. His albumin:creatinine ratio was 35 mg/mmol. He denies experiencing any chest pain or shortness of breath. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 172/94 mmHg and fundoscopy is unremarkable. What is the optimal course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Patients who have chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and an albumin:creatinine ratio exceeding 30 mg/mmol should be initiated on a renin-angiotensin antagonist. These medications have been proven to have positive impacts on both cardiovascular outcomes and renal function. While the other drugs are also utilized for hypertension, they do not offer the same advantages and are not the primary choice for individuals with chronic kidney disease.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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