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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man, who had been working abroad in the hard metal industry, presented with progressive dyspnoea. A chest X-ray showed diffuse interstitial fibrosis bilaterally. What is the typical cellular component found in a bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) of this patient?
Your Answer: Eosinophils
Correct Answer: Giant cells
Explanation:Understanding Giant Cell Interstitial Pneumonia in Hard Metal Lung Disease
Hard metal lung disease is a condition that affects individuals working in the hard metal industry, particularly those exposed to cobalt dust. Prolonged exposure can lead to fibrosis and the development of giant cell interstitial pneumonia (GIP), characterized by bizarre multinucleated giant cells in the alveoli. These cannibalistic cells are formed by alveolar macrophages and type II pneumocytes and can contain ingested macrophages. While cobalt exposure can also cause other respiratory conditions, GIP is a rare but serious complication that may require lung transplantation in severe cases. Understanding the significance of different cell types found in bronchoalveolar lavage can aid in the diagnosis and management of this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Correct
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A 60-year-old man comes to you with complaints of increasing shortness of breath on exertion over the past year. During the examination, you observe early finger clubbing and bibasal fine crackles on auscultation. You suspect that he may have pulmonary fibrosis.
What is the imaging modality considered the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary fibrosis?Your Answer: High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest
Explanation:Imaging Modalities for Pulmonary Fibrosis and Pulmonary Embolus
When it comes to diagnosing pulmonary fibrosis and pulmonary embolus, there are several imaging modalities available. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest is considered the gold standard for suspected pulmonary fibrosis as it provides detailed images of the lung parenchyma. On the other hand, computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the gold standard for suspected pulmonary embolus. A chest X-ray may be useful initially for investigating patients with suspected pulmonary fibrosis, but HRCT provides more detail. Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) chest scan is used for certain patients with suspected pulmonary embolus, but not for pulmonary fibrosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) chest is not commonly used for either condition, as HRCT remains the preferred imaging modality for pulmonary fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection two weeks ago. She experienced a burning sensation in her chest during coughing. About a week ago, she coughed up a teaspoonful of yellow sputum with flecks of blood. The next morning, she had a small amount of blood-tinged sputum but has not had any subsequent haemoptysis. Her cough is resolving, and she is starting to feel better. She has no history of respiratory problems and has never smoked cigarettes. On examination, there are no abnormalities found in her chest, heart, or abdomen. Her chest x-ray is normal.
What would be your recommendation at this point?Your Answer: Observation only
Explanation:Acute Bronchitis
Acute bronchitis is a type of respiratory tract infection that causes inflammation in the bronchial tubes. This condition is usually caused by viral infections, with up to 95% of cases being attributed to viruses such as adenovirus, coronavirus, and influenzae viruses A and B. While antibiotics are often prescribed for acute bronchitis, there is little evidence to suggest that they provide significant relief or shorten the duration of the illness.
Other viruses that can cause acute bronchitis include parainfluenza virus, respiratory syncytial virus, coxsackievirus A21, rhinovirus, and viruses that cause rubella and measles. It is important to note that in cases where there is no evidence of bronchoconstriction or bacterial infection, and the patient is not experiencing respiratory distress, observation is advised.
Overall, the causes and symptoms of acute bronchitis can help individuals take the necessary steps to manage their condition and prevent its spread to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is diagnosed with right-sided pleural effusion. The aspirated sample reveals a protein level of 15g/l. What could be the potential reason for the pleural effusion?
Your Answer: Right-sided pneumonia
Correct Answer: Renal failure
Explanation:Differentiating between transudate and exudate effusions in various medical conditions
Effusions can occur in various medical conditions, and it is important to differentiate between transudate and exudate effusions to determine the underlying cause. A transudate effusion is caused by increased capillary hydrostatic pressure or decreased oncotic pressure, while an exudate effusion is caused by increased capillary permeability.
In the case of renal failure, the patient has a transudative effusion as the effusion protein is less than 25 g/l. Inflammation from SLE would cause an exudate effusion, while pancreatitis and right-sided mesothelioma would also cause exudative effusions. Right-sided pneumonia would result in an exudate effusion as well.
Therefore, understanding the type of effusion can provide valuable information in diagnosing and treating various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Correct
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You are the Foundation Year 2 doctor on a general practice (GP) attachment when a 65-year-old man presents, complaining of malaise, cough and breathlessness. He says these symptoms have been present for 2 days, and he has brought up some yellow-coloured sputum on a few occasions. He reports no pain and no palpitations and is coping at home, although he has taken 2 days off work. He has no long-standing conditions but smokes five cigarettes a day and has done so for the last 15 years. He has no known allergies. On examination, he is alert and orientated, and has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 126/84 mmHg and a temperature of 38.1 °C. There is bronchial breathing and crepitations on auscultation, particularly on the right-hand side of the chest, and heart sounds are normal.
What would be the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: 5-day course of amoxicillin
Explanation:Treatment and Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia
Community-acquired pneumonia is a common respiratory infection that can be effectively managed in the community with appropriate treatment and management. The severity of the infection can be assessed using the CRB-65 score, which takes into account confusion, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. A score of zero indicates low severity and suggests that oral antibiotics and community treatment should suffice. However, admission to hospital may be necessary in certain cases.
The first-choice antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia is amoxicillin, although a macrolide may be considered in patients with penicillin allergy. Flucloxacillin may be added if there is suspicion of a staphylococcal infection or associated influenzae.
It is important to provide safety-netting advice to patients, advising them to return if symptoms worsen or do not improve on antibiotics. Additionally, the absence of wheeze on auscultation and no history of respiratory disease suggests that a salbutamol inhaler is not necessary.
While the CURB-65 score is commonly used, the CRB-65 score is more practical in community settings as it does not require laboratory analysis. Overall, prompt and appropriate treatment and management can effectively manage community-acquired pneumonia in the community.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Correct
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After reviewing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in clinic, the respiratory consultant discusses the anatomy of the lungs with a group of undergraduate students.
With regard to the lungs, which one of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: The lungs receive a dual blood supply
Explanation:Facts about the Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a vital organ responsible for respiration. Here are some important facts about their anatomy:
– The lungs receive a dual blood supply from the pulmonary artery and the bronchial arteries. A pulmonary embolus may only result in infarction when the circulation is already inadequate.
– The left lung has two lobes, while the right lung has three. The horizontal fissure is present only in the right lung.
– Each lung has ten bronchopulmonary segments, which can be selectively removed surgically if diseased.
– The right bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left bronchus, making it more likely for foreign bodies to enter it. Aspiration pneumonia and abscess formation are common in the apical segment of the right lower lobe.Important Facts about the Anatomy of the Lungs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits the Respiratory Outpatients Department complaining of a dry cough and increasing breathlessness. During the examination, the doctor observes finger clubbing, central cyanosis, and fine end-inspiratory crackles upon auscultation. The chest X-ray shows reticular shadows and peripheral honeycombing, while respiratory function tests indicate a restrictive pattern with reduced lung volumes but a normal forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1): forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio. The patient's pulmonary fibrosis is attributed to which of the following medications?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Bleomycin
Explanation:Drug-Induced Pulmonary Fibrosis: Causes and Investigations
Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition characterized by scarring of the lungs, which can be caused by various diseases and drugs. One drug that has been linked to pulmonary fibrosis is bleomycin, while other causes include pneumoconiosis, occupational lung diseases, and certain medications. To aid in diagnosis, chest X-rays, high-resolution computed tomography (CT), and lung function tests may be performed. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause. However, drugs such as aspirin, ramipril, spironolactone, and simvastatin have not been associated with pulmonary fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential risks of certain medications and to monitor for any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) presents to the Emergency Department with fever, dyspnea, and overall feeling unwell. The attending physician suspects Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. What is the most characteristic clinical feature of this condition?
Your Answer: Desaturation on exercise
Explanation:Understanding Pneumocystis jirovecii Pneumonia: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is a fungal infection that affects the lungs. While it is rare in healthy individuals, it is a significant concern for those with weakened immune systems, such as AIDS patients, organ transplant recipients, and individuals undergoing certain types of therapy. Here are some key symptoms and diagnostic features of this condition:
Desaturation on exercise: One of the hallmark symptoms of P. jirovecii pneumonia is a drop in oxygen levels during physical activity. This can be measured using pulse oximetry before and after walking up and down a hallway.
Cavitating lesions on chest X-ray: While a plain chest X-ray may show diffuse interstitial opacification, P. jirovecii pneumonia can also present as pulmonary nodules that cavitate. High-resolution computerised tomography (HRCT) is the preferred imaging modality.
Absence of cervical lymphadenopathy: Unlike some other respiratory infections, P. jirovecii pneumonia typically does not cause swelling of the lymph nodes in the neck.
Non-productive cough: Patients with P. jirovecii pneumonia may experience a dry, non-productive cough due to the thick, viscous nature of the secretions in the lungs.
Normal pulmonary function tests: P. jirovecii pneumonia does not typically cause an obstructive pattern on pulmonary function tests.
By understanding these symptoms and diagnostic features, healthcare providers can more effectively diagnose and treat P. jirovecii pneumonia in at-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Correct
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After a tennis match, a thin 25-year-old woman complains of left-sided chest pain that radiates into her abdomen. The physical examination reveals reduced air entry at the left base of the lung with hyper-resonant percussion sounds at the left side of the chest. The abdominal examination shows generalised tenderness. A few minutes later she develops cyanosis.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Tension pneumothorax
Explanation:Differentiating Tension Pneumothorax from Other Conditions: Clinical Features and Management
Tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency that occurs when the pressure in the pleural space exceeds atmospheric pressure during both inspiration and expiration. This can lead to impaired venous return, reduced cardiac output, and hypoxemia. The development of tension pneumothorax is not dependent on the size of the pneumothorax, and clinical presentation can be sudden and severe, with rapid, labored respiration, cyanosis, sweating, and tachycardia.
It is important to differentiate tension pneumothorax from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Acute pancreatitis, ectopic pregnancy, myocardial infarction, and pulmonary embolism can all cause abdominal pain and other non-specific symptoms, but they do not typically present with decreased air entry and hyper-resonant percussion note, which are indicative of pneumothorax.
Prompt management of tension pneumothorax is crucial and involves inserting a cannula into the pleural space to remove air until the patient is no longer compromised, followed by insertion of an intercostal tube. Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) guidelines recommend using a cannula of at least 4.5 cm in length for needle thoracocentesis in patients with tension pneumothorax. The cannula should be left in place until bubbling is confirmed in the underwater-seal system to ensure proper function of the intercostal tube.
In summary, recognizing the clinical features of tension pneumothorax and differentiating it from other conditions is essential for prompt and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Correct
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A 14-year-old male is brought in with acute severe asthma. During examination, it is noted that his peripheral pulse volume decreases during inspiration. What is the most probable reason for this clinical finding?
Your Answer: Reduced left atrial filling pressure on inspiration
Explanation:Pulsus Paradoxus
Pulsus paradoxus is a medical condition where there is an abnormal drop in blood pressure during inhalation. This occurs when the right heart responds directly to changes in intrathoracic pressure, while the filling of the left heart depends on the pulmonary vascular volume. In cases of severe airflow limitation, such as acute asthma, high respiratory rates can cause sudden negative intrathoracic pressure during inhalation. This enhances the normal fall in blood pressure, leading to pulsus paradoxus.
It is important to understand the underlying mechanisms of pulsus paradoxus to properly diagnose and treat the condition. By recognizing the relationship between intrathoracic pressure and blood pressure, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to manage the symptoms and prevent complications. With proper management, patients with pulsus paradoxus can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man was in a car accident and was taken to the Emergency Department where a chest tube was inserted to drain fluid. The thoracic wall is composed of several structures, including the skin, external intercostal muscle, internal intercostal muscle, innermost intercostal muscle, parietal pleura, and visceral pleura. What is the correct order of structures that the tube would pass through during the procedure?
Your Answer: 2-3-1-5-4
Correct Answer: 2-5-1-3-4
Explanation:Correct Order of Structures Traversed in Chest Drain Insertion
When inserting a chest drain, it is important to know the correct order of structures that will be traversed. The order is as follows: skin, external intercostal muscle, internal intercostal muscle, innermost intercostal muscle, and parietal pleura.
The external intercostal muscles are encountered first in chest drain insertion before the internal and innermost intercostal muscles, as suggested by their names. The skin is the first structure to be traversed by the tube. The parietal pleura lines the inner surface of the thoracic cavity and is the outer boundary of the pleural cavity. The chest drain tip should enter the pleural cavity which is bound by the parietal and visceral pleura. The parietal pleura is therefore encountered before reaching the visceral pleura. The visceral pleura should not be penetrated in chest drain insertion.
Knowing the correct order of structures to be traversed during chest drain insertion is crucial to ensure the procedure is done safely and effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Correct
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A 60-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath, nocturnal cough and wheezing for the past week. He reports that these symptoms began after he was accidentally exposed to a significant amount of hydrochloric acid fumes while working in a chemical laboratory. He has no prior history of respiratory issues or any other relevant medical history. He is a non-smoker.
What initial investigation may be the most useful in confirming the diagnosis?Your Answer: Methacholine challenge test
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Reactive Airways Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS)
Reactive Airways Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS) is a condition that presents with asthma-like symptoms after exposure to irritant gases, vapours or fumes. To diagnose RADS, several tests may be performed to exclude other pulmonary diagnoses and confirm the presence of the condition.
One of the diagnostic criteria for RADS is the absence of pre-existing respiratory conditions. Additionally, the onset of asthma symptoms should occur after a single exposure to irritants in high concentration, with symptoms appearing within 24 hours of exposure. A positive methacholine challenge test (< 8 mg/ml) following exposure and possible airflow obstruction on pulmonary function tests can also confirm the diagnosis. While a chest X-ray and full blood count may be requested to exclude other causes of symptoms, they are usually unhelpful in confirming the diagnosis of RADS. Peak flow is also not useful in diagnosis, as there is no pre-existing reading to compare values. The skin prick test may be useful in assessing reactions to common environmental allergens, but it is not helpful in diagnosing RADS as it occurs after one-off exposures. In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic tests can help confirm the diagnosis of RADS and exclude other pulmonary conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 13
Correct
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A 52-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency Department with an acute exacerbation. He is experiencing severe shortness of breath and his oxygen saturation levels are at 74% on room air. The medical team initiates treatment with 15 litres of high-flow oxygen and later transitions him to controlled oxygen supplementation via a 28% venturi mask. What is the optimal target range for his oxygen saturation levels?
Your Answer: 88–92%
Explanation:Understanding Oxygen Saturation Targets for Patients with COPD
Patients with COPD have specific oxygen saturation targets that differ from those without respiratory problems. The correct range for a COPD patient is 88-92%, as they rely on low oxygen concentrations to drive their respiratory effort. Giving them too much oxygen can potentially remove their drive to breathe and worsen their respiratory situation. In contrast, unwell individuals who are not at risk of type 2 respiratory failure have a target of 94-98%. A saturation target of 80% is too low and can cause hypoxia and damage to end organs. Saturations of 90-94% may indicate a need for oxygen therapy, but it may still be too high for a patient with COPD. It is vital to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) in hypoxia to check if the patient is a chronic CO2 retainer. Understanding these targets is crucial in managing patients with COPD and ensuring their respiratory effort is not compromised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 14
Correct
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A previously healthy 85-year-old woman is hospitalised and undergoes surgery to replace the broken hip that she sustained as a result of falling down stairs. Upon discharge to a nursing home 10 days later, she is unable to ambulate fully and, about a month later, she dies suddenly.
Which of the following is most likely to be the immediate cause of death found at post-mortem examination?Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Likely Cause of Sudden Death in an Elderly Patient with Fracture
Immobilisation after a fracture in elderly patients increases the risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can lead to pulmonary embolism. In the case of a sudden death, pulmonary embolism is the most likely cause. Pneumonia with pneumococcus is also a risk for elderly patients in hospital, but the absence of signs and symptoms of infection makes it less likely. Tuberculosis is also unlikely as there were no signs of an infectious disease. Congestive heart failure is a possibility in the elderly, but it is unlikely to cause sudden death in this scenario. While malignancy is a risk for older patients, immobilisation leading to pulmonary thromboembolism is the most likely cause of sudden death in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man experiences sudden right-sided chest pain while exercising. The pain persists in the Emergency Department, but he is not short of breath. There is no past medical history of note. Observations are recorded:
temperature 36.6 °C
heart rate (HR) 90 bpm
blood pressure (BP) 115/80 mmHg
respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths/minute
oxygen saturation (SaO2) 99%.
A chest X-ray reveals a 1.5 cm sliver of air in the pleural space of the right lung.
Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Aspirate the air with a needle and syringe
Correct Answer: Consider prescribing analgesia and discharge home with information and advice
Explanation:Management Options for Primary Pneumothorax
Primary pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The management of primary pneumothorax depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Here are some management options for primary pneumothorax:
Prescribe analgesia and discharge home with information and advice: This option can be considered if the patient is not breathless and has only a small defect. The patient can be discharged with pain relief medication and given information and advice on how to manage the condition at home.
Admit for a trial of nebulised salbutamol and observation: This option is not indicated for a patient with primary pneumothorax, as a trial of salbutamol is not effective in treating this condition.
Aspirate the air with a needle and syringe: This option should only be attempted if the patient has a rim of air of >2 cm on the chest X-ray or is breathless. Aspiration can be attempted twice at a maximum, after which a chest drain should be inserted.
Insert a chest drain: This option should be done if the second attempt of aspiration is unsuccessful. Once air has stopped leaking, the drain should be left in for a further 24 hours prior to removal and discharge.
Insert a 16G cannula into the second intercostal space: This option is used for tension pneumothoraces and is not indicated for primary pneumothorax.
In conclusion, the management of primary pneumothorax depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. It is important to choose the appropriate management option to ensure the best outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old postal worker with asthma visits his GP for his annual asthma review. He reports experiencing breathlessness during his morning postal round for the past few months. Despite a normal examination, the GP advises him to conduct peak flow monitoring. The results show a best PEFR of 650 L/min and an average of 439 L/min, with a predicted PEFR of 660 L/min. What is the most likely interpretation of these PEFR results?
Your Answer: Occupational asthma
Correct Answer: Suboptimal therapy
Explanation:Differentiating Between Respiratory Conditions: A Guide
When assessing a patient with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider various conditions that may be causing their symptoms. One key factor to consider is the patient’s peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR), which should be above 80% of their best reading. If it falls below this level, it may indicate the need for therapy titration.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is unlikely in a young patient without smoking history, and clinical examination is likely to be abnormal in this condition. On the other hand, variability in PEFR is a hallmark of asthma, and the reversibility of PEFR after administering a nebulized dose of salbutamol can help differentiate between asthma and COPD.
Occupational asthma is often caused by exposure to irritants or allergens in the workplace. Monitoring PEFR for two weeks while working and two weeks away from work can help diagnose this condition.
Interstitial lung disease may cause exertional breathlessness, but fine end inspiratory crackles and finger clubbing would be present on examination. Additionally, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis typically presents after the age of 50, making it unlikely in a 36-year-old patient.
Finally, an acute exacerbation of asthma would present with a shorter duration of symptoms and abnormal clinical examination findings. By considering these factors, healthcare providers can more accurately diagnose and treat respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male smoker presented with chronic dyspnoea. He used to work in the shipyard but now has a retired life with his dogs. He was under treatment as a case of COPD, but maximal therapy for COPD failed to bring him any relief. On re-evaluation, his chest X-ray showed fine reticular opacities in the lower zones. A CT scan of his thorax showed interstitial thickening, with some ground glass opacity in the upper lungs.
Pleural plaques were absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Asbestosis
Correct Answer: Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease (RB-ILD)
Explanation:Differentiating Interstitial Lung Diseases: A Case Study
The patient in question presents with dyspnoea and a history of smoking. While COPD is initially suspected, the radiograph and CT findings do not support this diagnosis. Instead, the patient may be suffering from an interstitial lung disease. RB-ILD is a possibility, given the presence of pigmented macrophages in the lung. Asbestosis is also considered, but the absence of pleural plaques makes this less likely. Pneumoconiosis and histoplasmosis are ruled out based on the patient’s history and imaging results. Treatment for interstitial lung diseases can be challenging, with steroids being the primary option. However, the effectiveness of this treatment is debatable. Ultimately, a lung biopsy may be necessary for a definitive diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 18
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with haemoptysis over the last 2 days. He has had a productive cough for 7 years, which has gradually worsened. Over the last few winters, he has been particularly bad and required admission to hospital. Past medical history includes pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) at age 20. On examination, he is cyanotic and clubbed, and has florid crepitations in both lower zones.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Diagnosing Respiratory Conditions: Bronchiectasis vs. Asthma vs. Pulmonary Fibrosis vs. COPD vs. Lung Cancer
Bronchiectasis is the most probable diagnosis for a patient who presents with copious sputum production, recurrent chest infections, haemoptysis, clubbing, cyanosis, and florid crepitations at both bases that change with coughing. This condition is often exacerbated by a previous history of tuberculosis.
Asthma, on the other hand, is characterized by reversible obstruction of airways due to bronchial muscle contraction in response to various stimuli. The absence of wheezing, the patient’s age, and the presence of haemoptysis make asthma an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
Pulmonary fibrosis involves parenchymal fibrosis and interstitial remodelling, leading to shortness of breath and a non-productive cough. Patients with pulmonary fibrosis may develop clubbing, basal crepitations, and a dry cough, but the acute presentation and haemoptysis in this case would not be explained.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive disorder characterized by airway obstruction, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema. However, the absence of wheezing, smoking history, and acute new haemoptysis make COPD a less likely diagnosis.
Lung cancer is a possibility given the haemoptysis and clubbing, but the long history of productive cough, florid crepitations, and previous history of TB make bronchiectasis a more likely diagnosis. Overall, a thorough evaluation of symptoms and medical history is necessary to accurately diagnose respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired plumber presents with progressive shortness of breath, haemoptysis and weight loss. He has a smoking history of 25 pack years.
A focal mass is seen peripherally in the left lower lobe on chest X-ray (CXR).
Serum biochemistry reveals:
Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l)
Potassium (K+): 3.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
Corrected Ca2+: 3.32 mmol/l (normal range: 2.20–2.60 mmol/l)
Urea: 6.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5–6.5 mmol/l)
Creatinine: 76 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l)
Albumin: 38 g/l (normal range: 35–55 g/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Alveolar cell bronchial carcinoma
Correct Answer: Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma
Explanation:Understanding Squamous Cell Bronchial Carcinoma and Hypercalcemia
Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a type of non-small cell lung cancer that can cause hypercalcemia, a condition characterized by elevated levels of calcium in the blood. This occurs because the cancer produces a hormone that mimics the action of parathyroid hormone, leading to the release of calcium from bones, kidneys, and the gut. Focal lung masses on a chest X-ray can be caused by various conditions, including bronchial carcinoma, abscess, tuberculosis, and metastasis. Differentiating between subtypes of bronchial carcinoma requires tissue sampling, but certain features of a patient’s history may suggest a particular subtype. Small cell bronchial carcinoma, for example, is associated with paraneoplastic phenomena such as Cushing’s syndrome and SIADH. Mesothelioma, on the other hand, is linked to asbestos exposure and presents with pleural thickening or malignant pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Overall, a focal lung mass in a smoker should be viewed with suspicion and thoroughly evaluated to determine the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 20
Correct
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A 75-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of difficulty breathing. Upon examination, you observe that his trachea is centralized and there is decreased chest expansion on the left side, accompanied by a dull percussion note and diminished breath sounds. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pleural effusion
Explanation:Clinical Signs for Common Respiratory Conditions
Pleural effusion, pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, and pulmonary edema are common respiratory conditions that require accurate diagnosis for proper management. Here are the clinical signs to look out for:
Pleural effusion: trachea central or pushed away from the affected side, reduced chest expansion on the affected side, reduced tactile vocal fremitus on the affected side, ‘stony dull’ or dull percussion note on the affected side, reduced air entry/breath sounds on the affected side, reduced vocal resonance on the affected side.
Pneumothorax: trachea central or pushed away from the affected side, reduced chest expansion on the affected side, reduced tactile vocal fremitus on the affected side, hyper-resonant percussion note on the affected side, reduced air entry/breath sounds on the affected side, reduced vocal resonance on the affected side.
Pulmonary embolism: respiratory examination is likely to be normal, there may be subtle signs related to the pulmonary embolism, eg pleural rub, or due to a chronic underlying chest disease.
Pneumonia: trachea central, chest expansion likely to be normal, increased tactile vocal fremitus over area(s) of consolidation, dull percussion note over areas of consolidation, reduced air entry/bronchial breath sounds/crepitations on auscultation.
Pulmonary edema: trachea central, chest expansion normal, normal vocal fremitus, resonant percussion note, likely to hear coarse basal crackles on auscultation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath, which is predominantly worse on the right side. He has been experiencing these symptoms for about 24 hours, but they have worsened since he woke up this morning. The patient reports that the pain is worse on inspiration and that he has never experienced chest pain before. He is mostly bedridden due to obesity but has no history of respiratory issues. The patient is currently receiving treatment for newly diagnosed prostate cancer. There is a high suspicion that he may have a pulmonary embolus (PE). His vital signs are as follows:
Temperature 36.5 °C
Blood pressure 136/82 mmHg
Heart rate 124 bpm
Saturations 94% on room air
His 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia and nothing else.
What would be the most appropriate initial step in managing this case?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography
Correct Answer: Rivaroxaban
Explanation:Treatment Options for Suspected Pulmonary Embolism
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In cases where there is a high clinical suspicion of a PE, treatment with treatment-dose direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as rivaroxaban or apixaban or low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) should be administered before diagnostic confirmation of a PE on computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography (CTPA). Thrombolysis with alteplase may be necessary in certain cases where there is a massive PE with signs of haemodynamic instability or right heart strain on ECG. Intravenous (IV) unfractionated heparin is not beneficial in treating a PE. While a chest X-ray may be useful in the workup for pleuritic chest pain, the priority in suspected PE cases should be administering treatment-dose DOAC or LMWH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 22
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has a small cell lung cancer. Her serum sodium level is 128 mmol/l on routine testing (136–145 mmol/l).
What is the single most likely cause for the biochemical abnormality?Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Hyponatraemia: Differential Diagnosis
Hyponatraemia is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. There are several possible causes of hyponatraemia, including the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), primary adrenal insufficiency, diuretics, polydipsia, and vomiting.
SIADH is a common cause of hyponatraemia, particularly in small cell lung cancer patients. It occurs due to the ectopic production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to impaired water excretion and water retention. This results in hyponatraemia and hypo-osmolality.
Primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison’s disease, can also cause hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, and hypotension. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.
Diuretics, particularly loop diuretics and bendroflumethiazide, can also cause hyponatraemia. However, there is no information to suggest that the patient is taking diuretics.
Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, can also lead to hyponatraemia. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.
Vomiting is another possible cause of hyponatraemia, but there is no information in the question to support this as a correct answer.
In summary, hyponatraemia can have several possible causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 23
Correct
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A middle-aged overweight woman visits the clinic accompanied by her husband. She expresses concern about feeling excessively tired during the day and experiencing frequent episodes of sleepiness.
Her husband reports that she snores heavily at night and sometimes stops breathing. Additionally, her work performance has been declining, and she is at risk of losing her job.
What is the most suitable initial step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Continuous Positive Airways Pressure (CPAP)
Explanation:Obstructive Sleep Apnoea and its Treatment
The presence of heavy snoring, apnoea attacks at night, and daytime somnolence suggests the possibility of obstructive sleep apnoea. The recommended treatment for this condition is continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP), which helps maintain airway patency during sleep. In addition to CPAP, weight loss and smoking cessation are also helpful measures. Surgery is not necessary for this condition.
Long-term oxygen therapy is indicated for individuals with chronic hypoxia associated with chronic respiratory disease to prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension. However, bronchodilators are not useful in this case. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 24
Correct
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A 62-year-old female patient complains of breathlessness and weight loss over the past three months. She is a smoker who consumes 10 cigarettes per day. During the examination, you observe clubbing of the fingers and a few crackles in the chest. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Respiratory Causes of Clubbing
Clubbing is a condition where the fingertips and nails become enlarged and rounded. It is often associated with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases. One of the respiratory causes of clubbing is pulmonary fibrosis, which is characterized by weight loss and breathlessness. Other respiratory causes include bronchiectasis, empyema, bronchial carcinoma, and mesothelioma. These conditions can also lead to weight loss and breathlessness, making it important to seek medical attention if these symptoms are present. On the other hand, cardiovascular causes of clubbing include cyanotic congenital heart disease and infective endocarditis. It is important to identify the underlying cause of clubbing in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 25
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner complaining of feeling unwell for the past two days. He reports having a sore throat, general malaise, and nasal congestion, but no cough or fever. During the examination, his pulse rate is 70 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.3 °C. The doctor notes tender, swollen anterior cervical lymph nodes. What investigation should the doctor consider requesting?
Your Answer: Throat swab
Explanation:Investigations for Upper Respiratory Tract Infections: A Case Study
When a patient presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection, it is important to consider appropriate investigations to differentiate between viral and bacterial causes. In this case study, a young boy presents with a sore throat, tender/swollen lymph nodes, and absence of a cough. A McIsaac score of 3 suggests a potential for streptococcal pharyngitis.
Throat swab is a useful investigation to differentiate between symptoms of the common cold and streptococcal pharyngitis. Sputum culture may be indicated if there is spread of the infection to the lower respiratory tract. A chest X-ray is not indicated as a first-line investigation, but may be later indicated if there is a spread to the lower respiratory tract. Full blood count is not routinely indicated, as it is only likely to show lymphocytosis for viral infections. Viral testing is not conducted routinely, unless required for public health research or data in the event of a disease outbreak.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is admitted to hospital with sudden-onset shortness of breath. His oxygen saturation levels are 82%, respiratory rate (RR) 25 breaths/min (normal 12–18 breaths/min), his trachea is central, he has reduced breath sounds in the right lower zone. Chest X-ray reveals a 2.5 cm translucent border at the base of the right lung.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Needle aspiration
Correct Answer: Intrapleural chest drain
Explanation:Management of Spontaneous Pneumothorax in a Patient with COPD
When a patient with COPD presents with a spontaneous pneumothorax, prompt intervention is necessary. Smoking is a significant risk factor for pneumothorax, and recurrence rates are high for secondary pneumothorax. In deciding between needle aspiration and intrapleural chest drain, the size of the pneumothorax is crucial. In this case, the patient’s pneumothorax was >2 cm, requiring an intrapleural chest drain. Intubation and NIV are not necessary interventions at this time. Observation alone is not sufficient, and the patient requires urgent intervention due to low oxygen saturation, high respiratory rate, shortness of breath, and reduced breath sounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He had visited his GP a week ago, complaining of malaise, headache, and myalgia for the past three days. Despite being prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted and he developed a dry cough and fever. On the day of referral, he reported mild dyspnea, a global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. During the examination, a maculopapular rash was observed on his upper body, and fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest. Mild neck stiffness was also noted. His vital signs showed a fever of 39°C and a blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Hb: 84 g/L (130-180)
- WBC: 8 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 210 ×109/L (150-400)
- Reticulocytes: 8% (0.5-2.4)
- Na: 137 mmol/L (137-144)
- K: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (60-110)
- Bilirubin: 19 µmol/L (1-22)
- Alk phos: 130 U/L (45-105)
- AST: 54 U/L (1-31)
- GGT: 48 U/L (<50)
The chest x-ray revealed patchy consolidation in both mid-zones. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?Your Answer: Co-trimoxazole
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Mycoplasma Pneumonia: Symptoms, Complications, and Treatment
Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that commonly affects individuals aged 15-30 years. It is characterized by systemic upset, dry cough, and fever, with myalgia and arthralgia being common symptoms. Unlike other types of pneumonia, the white blood cell count is often within the normal range. In some cases, Mycoplasma pneumonia can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as haemolytic anaemia, renal failure, hepatitis, myocarditis, meningism and meningitis, transverse myelitis, cerebellar ataxia, and erythema multiforme.
One of the most common complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia is haemolytic anaemia, which is associated with the presence of cold agglutinins found in up to 50% of cases. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies in paired sera. Treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin or erythromycin, with tetracycline or doxycycline being alternative options.
In summary, Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including haemolytic anaemia and extrapulmonary manifestations. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies, and treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman of Chinese descent is referred to a Respiratory Physician by her General Practitioner due to a productive cough with mucopurulent sputum and occasional blood tinges. She has also been experiencing shortness of breath lately. Her medical history shows that she had a similar episode of shortness of breath and productive cough a year ago, and had multiple bouts of pneumonia during childhood. What is the most reliable test to confirm the probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Bronchoscopy
Correct Answer: High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Bronchiectasis: Understanding Their Uses and Limitations
Bronchiectasis is a respiratory condition that can be challenging to diagnose. While there are several diagnostic tests available, each has its own uses and limitations. Here, we will discuss the most common tests used to diagnose bronchiectasis and their respective roles in clinical practice.
High-Resolution Computed Tomography (HRCT) Chest
HRCT chest is considered the gold-standard imaging test for diagnosing bronchiectasis. It can identify bronchial dilation with or without airway thickening, which are the main findings associated with this condition. However, more specific findings may also point to the underlying cause of bronchiectasis.Chest X-Ray
A chest X-ray is often the first imaging test ordered for patients with respiratory symptoms. While it can suggest a diagnosis of bronchiectasis, it is not the gold-standard diagnostic test.Autoimmune Panel
Autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, Sjögren syndrome, and inflammatory bowel disease can cause systemic inflammation in the lungs that underlies the pathology of bronchiectasis. While an autoimmune panel may be conducted if bronchiectasis is suspected, it is not very sensitive for this condition and is not the gold standard.Bronchoscopy
Bronchoscopy may be used in certain cases of bronchiectasis, particularly when there is localized bronchiectasis due to an obstruction. It can help identify the site of the obstruction and its potential cause, such as foreign-body aspiration or luminal-airway tumor.Pulse Oximetry
Pulse oximetry is a useful tool for assessing the severity of respiratory or cardiac disease. However, it is not specific for any particular underlying pathology and is unlikely to help make a diagnosis. It is primarily used to guide clinical management.In conclusion, while there are several diagnostic tests available for bronchiectasis, each has its own uses and limitations. HRCT chest is the gold-standard test, while other tests may be used to support a diagnosis or identify potential underlying causes. Understanding the role of each test can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after he suddenly collapsed while playing soccer, complaining of pleuritic chest pain and difficulty in breathing. Upon examination, the patient appears pale and short of breath. His pulse rate is 120 bpm and blood pressure is 105/60 mmHg. Palpation reveals a deviated trachea to the right, without breath sounds over the left lower zone on auscultation. Percussion of the left lung field is hyper-resonant.
What would be the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?Your Answer: Observe the patient and arrange a chest X-ray
Correct Answer: Oxygen and aspirate using a 16G cannula inserted into the second anterior intercostal space mid-clavicular line
Explanation:A pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space between the parietal and visceral pleura. It can be primary or secondary, with the latter being more common in patients over 50 years old, smokers, or those with underlying lung disease. Symptoms include sudden chest pain, breathlessness, and, in severe cases, pallor, tachycardia, and hypotension. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax is more common in young adult smokers and often recurs. Secondary pneumothorax is associated with various lung diseases, including COPD and α-1-antitrypsin deficiency. A tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency that can lead to respiratory or cardiovascular compromise. Diagnosis is usually made through chest X-ray, but if a tension pneumothorax is suspected, treatment should be initiated immediately. Management varies depending on the size and type of pneumothorax, with larger pneumothoraces requiring aspiration or chest drain insertion. The safest location for chest drain insertion is the fifth intercostal space mid-axillary line within the safe triangle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A previously fit 36-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with a 4-day history of shortness of breath, a productive cough and flu-like symptoms. There is no past medical history of note. He is a non-smoker and exercises regularly. On examination, he appears unwell. There is reduced chest expansion on the left-hand side of the chest and a dull percussion note over the lower lobe of the left lung. The GP suspects a lobar pneumonia.
Which organism is likely to be responsible for this patient’s symptoms?Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:Common Causes of Community-Acquired Pneumonia
Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is a lower respiratory tract infection that can be acquired outside of a hospital setting. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can result in lobar or bronchopneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is another cause of CAP, often presenting with flu-like symptoms and a dry cough. Haemophilus influenzae can also cause CAP, as well as other infections such as otitis media and acute epiglottitis. Legionella pneumophila can cause outbreaks of Legionnaires disease and present with flu-like symptoms and bibasal consolidation on a chest X-ray. While Staphylococcus aureus is not a common cause of respiratory infections, it can cause severe pneumonia following influenzae or in certain populations such as the young, elderly, or intravenous drug users. Proper classification of the type of pneumonia can help predict the responsible organism and guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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