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Question 1
Incorrect
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What combination of findings would be expected in a patient with equal bilateral otosclerosis?
Your Answer: Rinne positive both sides with central Weber
Correct Answer: Rinne negative both sides with central Weber
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis and its Effects on Hearing
Otosclerosis is a condition that leads to conductive deafness, which means that bone conduction is better than air conduction. When testing for this condition, you would expect to see bilateral negative Rinne with central Weber. However, if the disease is in its early stages, the Rinne test may be equivocal. It is important to note that the second and third options do not make sense in the context of otosclerosis. Understanding the effects of otosclerosis on hearing can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old university student comes to your clinic with a complaint of back pain that has been bothering her for the past six months. She denies any bladder or bowel dysfunction. She reports experiencing severe pain in her left shoulder that radiates down her left arm whenever she drinks alcohol.
Upon examination, there is no kyphosis or scoliosis, and palpation of the spine and lumbar area is unremarkable. Sensation in her legs is normal, and her reflexes are intact.
What condition is indicated by the symptom of pain during or after alcohol consumption?Your Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma
Explanation:Alcohol-Associated Pain in Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Pain during or after drinking alcohol has been linked to Hodgkin’s lymphoma since the 1950s. This pain typically occurs in affected lymph nodes and can be sharp or dull, with a radiating distribution. While it only occurs in 2-3% of people with HL, it is considered pathognomonic due to its high specificity. Alcohol-associated pain has also been noted in other conditions such as TB lymphadenitis, cervical carcinoma, and bronchial adenocarcinoma. In some cases, HL may present with nonspecific back pain. If a patient reports alcohol-associated pain, a full history and examination should be conducted to look for other symptoms of HL, including lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents with complaints of feeling tired and lethargic for the past six months. She also reports experiencing generalised abdominal discomfort and constipation. Despite denying depression, her academic performance has declined this year. On examination, she appears pale and thin, with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg and no postural drop in BP. Her laboratory results show a Hb of 134 g/L (115-165), WBC of 4.8 ×109/L (4-11), Platelet of 290 ×109/L (150-400), ESR of 7 mm/hr (<10), Na of 131 mmol/L (135-144), K of 2.7 mmol/L (3.4-4.5), Urea of 3.0 mmol/L (3-7), Creat of 90 µmol/L (50-100), Bicarbonate of 35 mmol/L (20-28), Alkaline phosphatase of 90 IU/L (50-110), Bilirubin of 12 µmol/L (0-17), AST of 30 IU/L (5-40), and Albumin of 36 g/L (33-44). Her CXR is normal. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Conn's syndrome
Correct Answer: Pheochromocytoma
Explanation:Diagnosis Considerations for a Patient with Anorexia Nervosa
This patient is presenting with anorexia nervosa and self-induced vomiting, which can explain the low levels of sodium, potassium, and alkalosis. It is important to note that hypoalbuminemia may not be present until later stages of the disease.
When considering other potential diagnoses, Addison’s disease can cause hyponatremia and hyperkalemic acidosis, but the patient’s clinical presentation doesn’t align with this diagnosis. Additionally, there is no postural drop in blood pressure, which is not supportive of Addison’s disease.
Cushing’s disease can cause hypokalemic alkalosis, but again, the patient’s presentation doesn’t fit with this diagnosis.
Conn’s syndrome, which is associated with adrenal adenoma, can cause hypertension and hypokalemia. However, this diagnosis is not likely in this case.
In summary, the patient’s symptoms and laboratory results are consistent with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa with self-induced vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You see a 3-year-old boy who presents with fever, irritability and offensive smelling urine. You suspect a urinary tract infection, but his mother is unable to obtain a clean catch urine sample.
What is the recommended method of obtaining a urine sample if a clean catch is not possible in a 3-year-old boy with suspected urinary tract infection?Your Answer: Urine collection pad
Correct Answer: Sanitary towels
Explanation:Diagnosing UTI in Children
UTI can be challenging to diagnose in children, especially in preverbal ones. While offensive smelling urine is a rare symptom, general symptoms such as fever, poor feeding, and vomiting are more common. Therefore, obtaining a urine sample is crucial for accurate diagnosis. NICE recommends obtaining a clean catch urine sample for urine collection. If this is not possible, collection pads are advised. However, it is important to note that cotton wool balls, gauze, and sanitary towels should not be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Correct
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What is a true statement about the intranasal flu vaccine for children?
Your Answer: It is a live vaccine
Explanation:The live vaccine for influenza is administered intranasally.
influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.
For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.
The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Who is authorized to sign the DVLA Notification form for healthcare professionals?
Your Answer: The patient
Correct Answer: A practice manager
Explanation:DVLA Form 3854: Who Can Complete It?
The DVLA accepts submissions of the Notification form for health professionals form DOM 3854 completed by a nurse, as long as they provide an active NMC number. However, some specialist reports may require a registered medical practitioner’s counter-signature before acceptance.
Typically, the patient’s GP completes DVLA medical reports. However, opticians or optometrists can also complete this particular form, provided they supply their GOC number.
To summarize, the DVLA Form 3854 can be completed by nurses and optometrists, but some specialist reports may require a registered medical practitioner’s counter-signature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with sudden shortness of breath. An ambulance is called and a brief medical history is obtained. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy recently. The following are her vital signs:
- Blood pressure: 100/60 mmHg
- Respiratory rate: 28 breaths per minute
- Temperature: 36.8ºC
- Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air
While waiting for the ambulance, the patient is given oxygen through a face mask and an ECG is performed. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the expected ECG finding?Your Answer: T-wave inversions V1-V4
Correct Answer: Sinus tachycardia
Explanation:Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. One of the most common signs of PE is an elevated heart rate, which can be caused by the increased demand on the right ventricle of the heart. This can lead to a range of other symptoms, including shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing.
Another common sign of PE is the presence of S1Q3T3 on an electrocardiogram (ECG). This is characterized by a deep S-wave in lead I, a Q-wave in lead III, and an inverted T-wave in lead III. While this finding is associated with PE, it is not specific to the condition and may not be present in all cases.
T-wave inversions in leads V1-V4 can also be a sign of right ventricular strain, which can occur as a result of the increased demand on the heart caused by PE. However, this is not the most common finding in cases of PE.
Pulmonary embolism can be difficult to diagnose as it can present with a variety of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were common clinical signs in patients diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. The Well’s criteria for diagnosing a PE use tachycardia rather than tachypnea. All patients with symptoms or signs suggestive of a PE should have a history taken, examination performed, and a chest x-ray to exclude other pathology.
To rule out a PE, the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) can be used. All criteria must be absent to have a negative PERC result, which reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. If the suspicion of PE is greater than this, a 2-level PE Wells score should be performed. A score of more than 4 points indicates a likely PE, and an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged. If the CTPA is negative, patients do not need further investigations or treatment for PE.
CTPA is now the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease. D-dimer levels should be considered for patients over 50 years old. A chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. The sensitivity of V/Q scanning is around 75%, while the specificity is 97%. Peripheral emboli affecting subsegmental arteries may be missed on CTPA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A 47-year-old male presents with frequent episodes of waking up in distress. He reports feeling breathless and his heart racing late at night. These episodes are causing him significant worry. His wife notes that he snores loudly and sometimes stops if he changes position. Additionally, he has been taking short naps during the day which is impacting his work as an IT technician. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and obesity.
What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Polysomnography (PSG)
Explanation:Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.
To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.
Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old intravenous drug user comes to the clinic after being released from prison. During his time there, he injected heroin and was forced to share needles. He reports experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past two weeks, including fever, joint and muscle pain, and a sore throat. He also had a rash, but it has since disappeared. Upon examination, he has lymph nodes in his neck and armpits, but his chest is clear. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: HIV seroconversion illness
Explanation:Early Detection of HIV: Recognizing Flu-Like Symptoms and Other Risk Factors
Flu-like symptoms in individuals with known risk factors for HIV should not be ignored. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve prognosis and reduce the risk of transmission. The initial seroconversion illness may be mild and last for about two weeks, after which patients may feel relatively well but continue to unknowingly transmit the virus. This illness typically occurs between one and six weeks after infection and presents with symptoms such as fever, malaise, myalgia, pharyngitis, headaches, diarrhea, neuralgia or neuropathy, lymphadenopathy, and a maculopapular rash. In rare cases, meningoencephalitis may occur. Acute infection may also be asymptomatic.
Other conditions such as tuberculosis, subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE), hepatitis C, and glandular fever may present with similar symptoms. However, individuals with a high risk of HIV infection should consider it as the most likely diagnosis. SBE may be suspected in intravenous drug abusers who present with a murmur, particularly tricuspid regurgitation. Hepatitis C may be asymptomatic initially but should be considered if there is jaundice.
In conclusion, recognizing flu-like symptoms and other risk factors for HIV is crucial for early detection and treatment. It is important to seek medical attention and get tested if any of these symptoms are present, as early intervention can make a significant difference in both individual prognosis and the risk of transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A 76-year-old male presents to your clinic with complaints of overactive bladder symptoms. After a thorough investigation, you decide to initiate medication for his symptoms. His blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, his pulse is 72 bpm and regular. Urodynamic studies reveal no urinary retention, and recent blood tests show normal renal and liver function. The patient is currently taking medications for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. However, due to his age and medication regimen, you want to avoid prescribing a medication with a high anticholinergic burden. What medication would you consider starting for this patient's overactive bladder symptoms?
Your Answer: Mirabegron
Explanation:Mirabegron, a beta 3 agonist, is recommended by NICE as a second option medication for overactive bladder symptoms, following antimuscarinics. However, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as hypertension (including severe cases) and tachycardia. The other drugs listed are also used for overactive bladder symptoms, but they are anticholinergics.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 38-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of persistent blockage of his right nostril, accompanied by sneezing and rhinorrhea, six weeks after recovering from a cold. Upon examination, a large polyp is observed in the right nostril, while the left nostril appears normal. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Urgent referral to ENT
Explanation:Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The most common features of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. However, if a patient experiences unilateral symptoms or bleeding, further investigation is always necessary.
If a patient is suspected of having nasal polyps, they should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination. Treatment typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. With proper management, most patients with nasal polyps can experience relief from their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 12
Correct
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A 23 year old female presents for a routine contraception pill check. She has been taking co-cyprindiol for the past year. Her blood pressure and BMI are normal, she doesn't smoke, and has no personal or family history of stroke, venous thromboembolism, or migraine. She previously had acne but reports it has been clear for the past 4 months and wishes to continue on the same pill. She is in a committed relationship. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Discontinue co-cyprindiol and change to standard combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:The MHRA recommends discontinuing co-cyprindiol (Dianette) 3-4 cycles after acne has cleared due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. It should not be used solely for contraception. However, the patient still requires contraception, and a combined pill may offer better contraceptive coverage than a progesterone-only pill, while also providing some benefit for her skin. Other contraceptive options should also be considered.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 19-year-old male student presents with a purulent urethral discharge and tests positive for Chlamydia. He has had a number of partners over the past 12 months. Who should be contacted as part of routine contact tracing?
Your Answer: All partners from the 4 weeks prior to the onset of symptoms
Explanation:For symptomatic men, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the 4 weeks before the onset of symptoms. For women and asymptomatic men, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the last 6 months or the most recent sexual partner.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient presents for a medication review. He has been diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder and was initially prescribed sertraline, but this was discontinued due to gastrointestinal side effects. He has since been taking venlafaxine for a week but has reported experiencing headaches and blurred vision. What is the most appropriate course of action to manage his condition?
Your Answer: Reduce the dose of venlafaxine
Correct Answer: Switch to pregabalin
Explanation:For generalised anxiety disorder, pregabalin is suggested as a third line treatment option. If the patient is unable to tolerate SSRIs and SNRIs, pregabalin can be considered as an alternative. However, amitriptyline is not recommended for this condition.
Dealing with anxiety and depression is a common issue, and initial treatments may not always be effective. It is important for healthcare professionals to be knowledgeable about second and third line treatments, which may be initiated by some GPs or prescribed after specialist advice. The GP is responsible for ongoing monitoring and safety, including being aware of potential drug interactions.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 15
Correct
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Which one of the following statement regarding the 2010 Mental Capacity Act is incorrect?
Your Answer: Applies to patients of any age
Explanation:The Mental Capacity Act is not applicable to minors. It is important to presume that all patients have the ability to make decisions, regardless of their condition, until it is demonstrated otherwise.
The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.
To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.
When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What amount of corticosteroid cream should be recommended for a teenager with eczema on both legs for a two-week treatment with once daily application?
Your Answer: 30 g
Correct Answer: 100 g
Explanation:Proper Application of Topical Corticosteroids
Topical corticosteroids are effective in treating skin conditions, but it is important to apply them correctly. The cream or ointment should be spread thinly on the affected area, but enough should be used to cover it completely. To determine the appropriate amount, the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu). One ftu is approximately 0.5 g and is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand.
For example, treating both legs for two weeks requires 14 ftus or 7 g per daily dose. This means that a prescription for 100 g is needed. It is important to know the correct quantity of cream to be prescribed and the volumes used for various parts of the body, as these have been tested in past examinations. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using topical corticosteroids safely and effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 17
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman visits your clinic with a complaint of continuous ringing in her ears. She had previously sought medical attention for her lower back pain and was prescribed naproxen and paracetamol. However, the paracetamol was later substituted with co-codamol and then with co-dydramol. Which medication is the probable cause of her recent symptom?
Your Answer: Naproxen
Explanation:High doses of aspirin and other NSAIDs can lead to tinnitus, although the frequency of this side effect is unknown. Co-codamol and co-dydramol are not known to cause tinnitus, but they can cause other side effects such as drowsiness, respiratory depression, and addiction. Melatonin is generally well-tolerated, but it can cause side effects such as changes in behavior, headaches, and sleep disturbances. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these medications and to consult with a healthcare professional if any concerns arise.
Tinnitus is a condition where a person perceives sounds in their ears or head that do not come from an external source. It affects approximately 1 in 10 people at some point in their lives and can be distressing for patients. While it is sometimes considered a minor symptom, it can also be a sign of a serious underlying condition. The causes of tinnitus can vary, with some patients having no identifiable underlying cause. Other causes may include Meniere’s disease, otosclerosis, conductive deafness, positive family history, sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss, acoustic neuroma, hearing loss, drugs, and impacted earwax.
To assess tinnitus, an audiologist may perform an audiological assessment to detect any underlying hearing loss. Imaging may also be necessary, with non-pulsatile tinnitus generally not requiring imaging unless it is unilateral or there are other neurological or ontological signs. Pulsatile tinnitus, on the other hand, often requires imaging as there may be an underlying vascular cause. Management of tinnitus may involve investigating and treating any underlying cause, using amplification devices if associated with hearing loss, and psychological therapy such as cognitive behavioural therapy or joining tinnitus support groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old gentleman recently began taking donepezil for his moderate dementia. His family became worried when they noticed he was more confused than usual. During examination, he displayed muscle rigidity, sweating, tremors, and was pyrexial. Repeated BP readings were: 160/90, 100/70, 150/80. A urine dipstick test came back negative, and his lung fields were clear upon auscultation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Correct Answer: Pneumonia
Explanation:Clues and Considerations for Patients on AChE Inhibitors
When a patient presents with unexplained pyrexia, autonomic dysfunction, and muscle rigidity, a GP should take note of recent medication changes, such as the initiation of donepezil. These symptoms may indicate a serious adverse reaction to acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors, which are becoming more commonly prescribed. In such cases, the GP should discuss the case with the on-call medical team for an immediate review.
To better understand the potential side effects of AChE inhibitors, it is helpful to review the CKS link provided below. This resource outlines both common and rare adverse reactions to these medications, which can range from gastrointestinal disturbances to more serious neurological symptoms. By staying informed and vigilant, healthcare providers can help ensure the safe and effective use of AChE inhibitors for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Samantha, a 48-year-old woman, visits you for her annual medication review.
Samantha has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Her current medications include lisinopril 10 mg, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg, and atorvastatin 40 mg. She has no known drug allergies.
During the review, Samantha expresses her concern about her persistent headaches and occasional dizziness. Upon further questioning, she reveals that she has been experiencing stress at work and difficulty sleeping due to worrying about her job security.
You diagnose mild anxiety and discuss starting an anxiolytic. Samantha agrees, and you prescribe lorazepam 0.5mg as needed.
What other step is important in managing Samantha's condition at this point?Your Answer: Prescribe zopiclone for no more than 7 days
Correct Answer: Prescribe lansoprazole
Explanation:When prescribing medication to a patient who is already taking an NSAID, such as aspirin, it is important to assess their risk for gastrointestinal bleeding. According to NICE guidelines, patients with 1-2 risk factors are considered moderate risk and should either be prescribed a COX-2 inhibitor alone or a PPI. One risk factor is taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), so in this case, the patient should be prescribed lansoprazole along with citalopram.
It is important to note that taking both citalopram and amitriptyline can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome. While co-codamol may be helpful for the patient’s back pain, it would be best to assess the pain before prescribing pain relief.
Gabapentin is not necessary in this situation, and Z drugs like zopiclone should not be the first choice for managing sleep difficulties associated with depression.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher has been experiencing bouts of coughing for the past week, after recovering from a mild respiratory illness. The coughing fits have been so intense that they have caused vomiting and symptoms of a possible rib fracture. The teacher is concerned that he may have contracted pertussis from his students, but he remembers being vaccinated against it as a child. Can you explain the level of protection provided by childhood immunizations?
Your Answer: Immunity following immunisation only wanes in the elderly and immunocompromised
Correct Answer: Immunity following immunisation usually wanes within 3 years
Explanation:Pertussis Immunity and Vaccination
Pertussis immunity tends to decrease over time, and even if a person was vaccinated as a child, they can still contract the disease as an adult. The duration of immunity following acellular pertussis vaccination is not entirely clear, but it is suggested to last for five to six years. However, a booster given in the second year of life can prolong immunity to six to nine years. For this reason, a booster dose was introduced into the childhood immunisation schedule in 2001. Children born before November 1996 would not have received the booster dose, and their immunity is likely to have waned.
When pertussis vaccination was first introduced in the 1950s, a whole-cell pertussis vaccine was used. In 2001, the booster introduced was an acellular vaccine, and in 2004, the primary course whole-cell vaccine was replaced by the five component diphtheria/tetanus/acellular pertussis/inactivated polio/Haemophilus influenza type b (DTaP/IPV/Hib) vaccine. Adults who received the unboosted whole-cell pertussis primary course and nothing since are highly likely to have waning immunity.
Despite the waning of immunity, it is still important to immunise children. This is because immunisation can help protect them during the time of greatest vulnerability to the effects of pertussis infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 21
Correct
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A 35-year-old man has depression which has not responded to an MAOI. You stop the MAOI (which is of the non reversible kind) and wish to prescribe an SSRI.
How long should you wait before starting the SSRI?Your Answer: 14 days
Explanation:Switching between MAOIs and SSRIs
When switching from an MAOI to an SSRI, it is important to wait at least two weeks before starting the new medication. This is because MAOIs can inactivate the enzymes that break down certain neurotransmitters, such as noradrenaline and 5HT. It can take up to two weeks for these enzymes to resume normal activity after stopping an MAOI, and during this time there is a risk of severe drug reactions if an SSRI is started too soon. Therefore, it is crucial to allow enough time for the body to adjust before switching between these types of antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You have been feeling unwell with weight loss and lethargy over the past few months; a few weeks ago you had a needle stick and are worried you may have HIV. Unfortunately, a subsequent HIV test proves positive.
Which of the following is true with respect to your obligations?Your Answer: No practice restrictions are necessary
Correct Answer: You should consult a suitably qualified colleague and take their advice on practice restrictions
Explanation:GMC Guidelines on Prescribing for Patients with Chronic Illnesses
The General Medical Council (GMC) has set clear guidelines regarding the prescribing of medication for patients with serious chronic illnesses. According to these guidelines, it is not appropriate for a doctor or a member of their family to prescribe medication for a patient with a serious chronic illness.
Furthermore, if a doctor has a serious condition that could potentially be passed on to their patients, they must consult with a qualified colleague and follow their recommendations. It is not acceptable for a doctor to rely solely on their own assessment of potential infection risks.
In summary, the GMC guidelines emphasize the importance of ensuring that patients receive appropriate and safe care, particularly when it comes to prescribing medication for those with chronic illnesses. Doctors must always act in the best interests of their patients and seek advice from qualified colleagues when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 23
Correct
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A 63-year-old man presents with a three-month history of palpitation. He reports feeling his heart skip a beat regularly but denies any other symptoms such as dizziness, shortness of breath, chest pain, or fainting.
Upon examination, his chest is clear and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Heart sounds are normal and there is no peripheral edema. His blood pressure is 126/64 mmHg and his ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with no P waves and a heart rate of 82/min.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Assessment using ORBIT bleeding risk tool and CHA2DS2-VASc tool
Explanation:To determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation, it is necessary to conduct an assessment using both the CHA2DS2-VASc tool and the ORBIT bleeding risk tool. This applies to all patients with atrial fibrillation, according to current NICE CKS guidance. Therefore, the option to commence on apixaban and bisoprolol is not correct.
The patient’s symptoms and ECG findings indicate atrial fibrillation, but there is no indication for a 24-hour ECG. Therefore, referral for a 24-hour ECG and commencing on apixaban and bisoprolol is not necessary.
As there are no signs or symptoms of heart failure and no evidence of valvular heart disease on examination, referral for an echocardiogram and commencing on apixaban and bisoprolol is not the appropriate option.
The patient is currently haemodynamically stable.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents for medical review. She has a medical history of hypertension, angina, and osteoarthritis. Her current medications include aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 5 mg OD, bisoprolol 10 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg OD, paracetamol 1g QDS, and topical ketoprofen gel PRN. She reports that despite using paracetamol and topical NSAID, she still experiences pain in her hands and knees due to osteoarthritis. What would be the most appropriate next step in her pharmacological management?
Your Answer: Prescribe an oral 'traditional' NSAID (for example, ibuprofen)
Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral paracetamol and codeine combination (for example, co-codamol)
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Osteoarthritis
Here we have a patient with knee and hand osteoarthritis who is currently taking oral paracetamol and a topical anti-inflammatory but still experiences symptoms. The next step in treatment options would be an oral NSAID, COX-2 inhibitor, or opioid analgesic. However, since the patient has a cardiac history and is already taking aspirin, an opioid analgesic would be the safest option. It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of NSAID use, particularly their potential gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity.
To add an opioid analgesic, oral codeine can be prescribed and combined with paracetamol in a co-codamol. It is recommended to initiate patients on separate products, starting at a low dose and titrating as needed. This allows for determining what works best for the patient and avoiding unnecessary medication with increased side-effect risk. Dose reduction of paracetamol is also gaining momentum in patients aged 70 or over, which should be considered when using co-products.
In summary, the pharmacological management of osteoarthritis should be carefully considered, taking into account the patient’s medical history and potential risks and benefits of different treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is concerned about the impact on her life expectancy.
Which of the following features is most likely to suggest that the end of life is approaching (ie within the next 12 months)?Your Answer: Ankle oedema
Correct Answer: The doctor feels he will die soon
Explanation:The Gold Standards Framework (GSF) Prognostic Indicator Guidance aims to identify patients who are nearing the end of their life. The first step is to ask the surprise question to determine if the doctor would be surprised if the patient were to die in the next few months, weeks, or days. If the answer is no, measures should be taken to improve the patient’s quality of life. If the answer is yes, two further steps outline general indicators of decline and specific indicators for different diseases. For COPD, at least two of the following indicators should be present: severe disease, recurrent hospital admissions, long-term oxygen therapy criteria, MRC grade 4/5, signs and symptoms of right heart failure, combination of other factors, or more than six weeks of systemic steroids for COPD in the preceding six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 26
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with low back pain that radiates down her legs. She reports no loss of sensation or movement. Her ESR is elevated and serum rheumatoid factor is negative. X-ray of the spine reveals anterior squaring of the vertebrae.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Differentiating between Ankylosing Spondylitis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Lumbar Disc Prolapse, Spinal Stenosis, and Paget’s Disease
When examining X-rays of the spine, certain abnormalities can suggest specific conditions. For example, irregularity and loss of cortical margins, widening of the joint space, and subsequent marginal sclerosis, narrowing, and fusion of the sacroiliac joint may indicate ankylosing spondylitis. Anterior squaring of the vertebrae, or loss of normal concavity of the anterior border of a vertebral body, may also be present in ankylosing spondylitis, particularly in the lumbar spine.
Rheumatoid arthritis, on the other hand, typically affects peripheral joints such as the hips, knees, hands, and feet. It is more common in women and often presents in the fifth decade of life.
Lumbar disc prolapse and spinal stenosis can both cause a reduction in joint space. Lumbar disc prolapse may present with sciatica, while spinal stenosis may cause pseudoclaudication, or discomfort and pain in the legs on walking that is relieved by rest and bending forwards. Spinal stenosis is more common in older individuals.
Paget’s disease, which is typically diagnosed after the age of 40, may present with bone pain, deformity, deafness, and pathological fractures. While it can be associated with vertebral body squaring, it usually involves individual vertebrae. Diagnosis is established by a raised serum alkaline phosphatase level and normal liver function tests.
In summary, careful examination of X-rays can help differentiate between various spinal conditions, including ankylosing spondylitis, rheumatoid arthritis, lumbar disc prolapse, spinal stenosis, and Paget’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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For elderly patients who fast during Ramadan, what is the correct approach to managing type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: Sulfonylureas should be stopped during Ramadan
Correct Answer: Around 4 out of 5 patients Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan
Explanation:Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.
To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.
Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are investigating a 70-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result arrived today as 2200 ng/litre.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to on-call cardiologist
Explanation:NT-proBNP Guidelines for Heart Failure Diagnosis
NICE guidelines provide clear instructions for the interpretation of NT-proBNP levels in the diagnosis of heart failure. An NT-proBNP level above 2000ng/litre indicates a poor prognosis and requires urgent referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 2 weeks. For levels between 400 and 2000 ng/litre, referral should be made within 6 weeks. However, an NT-proBNP level less than 400 ng/litre makes a diagnosis of heart failure less likely. It is important to keep in mind that certain factors such as obesity, Afro-Caribbean family origin, and medication use can reduce the reading. Therefore, careful consideration of these factors is necessary when interpreting NT-proBNP levels. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure timely and accurate diagnosis of heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A home visit is requested by the husband of a 72-year-old woman who is experiencing difficulty walking. Upon arrival, the patient reports weakness in her left arm since mid-morning and displays some facial asymmetry when smiling. Apart from a history of hypertension managed with ramipril, she is generally healthy. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dial 999 for emergency admission
Explanation:The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.
Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.
Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic after discovering that she is pregnant. She had the Mirena coil inserted for heavy periods approximately nine months ago. She inquires about whether she needs to have her Mirena coil removed.
What is the appropriate guidance concerning the removal of the Mirena coil?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Mirena coil should not be removed if the pregnancy is diagnosed after 12 weeks gestation
Explanation:Contraception and Pregnancy
When a woman becomes pregnant while using contraception, it is usually recommended to stop or remove the method. However, it is important to note that contraceptive hormones do not typically harm the fetus.
If an intrauterine method is in place when pregnancy is diagnosed, the woman should be informed of the potential risks of leaving it in-situ, such as second-trimester miscarriage, preterm delivery, and infection. While removal in the first trimester carries a small risk of miscarriage, it may reduce the risk of adverse outcomes. If the threads of the intrauterine contraceptive are visible or can be retrieved, it should be removed up to 12 weeks gestation, but not after this point.
Overall, it is important for women to discuss their contraceptive options with their healthcare provider and to inform them if they suspect they may be pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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