00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old woman has experienced difficulty with lactation during the first week after...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has experienced difficulty with lactation during the first week after giving birth to her second child. She successfully breastfed her first child for nine months. She delivered at full term and suffered from a significant postpartum hemorrhage six hours after delivery. She received an IV oxytocin infusion and a blood transfusion. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Posterior pituitary

      Correct Answer: Anterior pituitary

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pituitary Lesions and their Symptoms

      The pituitary gland is a small gland located at the base of the brain that produces and releases hormones that regulate various bodily functions. Lesions in different parts of the pituitary gland can cause a range of symptoms.

      Anterior Pituitary: Ischaemic necrosis of the anterior pituitary can occur following post-partum haemorrhage, leading to varying symptoms of hypopituitarism. The most common initial symptom is low or absent prolactin, resulting in failure to commence lactation. Other symptoms may include amenorrhoea, hypothyroidism, glucocorticoid deficiency, and loss of genital and axillary hair. Treatment requires hormone supplementation and involvement of an endocrinologist.

      Hypothalamus: Lesions in the hypothalamus can cause hyperthermia/hypothermia, aggressive behaviour, somnolence, and Horner syndrome.

      Cerebral Cortex: Lesions in the cerebral cortex are associated with stroke or multiple sclerosis and affect different functions such as speech, movement, hearing, and sight.

      Posterior Pituitary: Lesions in the posterior pituitary are associated with central diabetes insipidus.

      Pituitary Stalk: Lesions in the pituitary stalk are associated with diabetes insipidus, hypopituitarism, and hyperprolactinaemia. The patient presents with galactorrhoea, irregular menstrual periods, and other symptoms related to hyperprolactinaemia due to the lifting of dopamine neurotransmitter release inhibition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A young man with asthma presented to the ED complaining of shortness of...

    Correct

    • A young man with asthma presented to the ED complaining of shortness of breath. He was unable to speak in complete sentences and his PEFR was 50% of predicted. His heart rate was 90/min and respiratory rate was 24/min. Despite using his regular inhaler, he did not experience any relief. The patient was given nebulised salbutamol, oral prednisolone and ipratropium bromide, and his acute treatment was discontinued 10 hours ago. Currently, his PEFR is 80% of predicted and he has been stable on discharge medication. The doctor's notes indicate that he demonstrated proper inhaler technique. What other criteria must he meet before being discharged?

      Your Answer: She needs to be stable on discharge medication for at least 12-24 hours before discharge

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.

      Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      44.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is contraindicated for patients with head injury? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is contraindicated for patients with head injury?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Correct Answer: 5% Dextrose

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Brain Injury

      Patients with severe brain injury should maintain normal blood volume levels. It is important to avoid administering free water, such as dextrose solutions, as this can increase the water content of brain tissue by decreasing plasma osmolality. Elevated blood sugar levels can worsen neurological injury after episodes of global cerebral ischaemia. During ischaemic brain injury, glucose is metabolised to lactic acid, which can lower tissue pH and potentially exacerbate the injury. Therefore, it is crucial to manage blood sugar levels in patients with severe brain injury to prevent further damage. Proper management of brain injury can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 21-year-old student has been diagnosed with schizophrenia.
    What is the most frequent type...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student has been diagnosed with schizophrenia.
      What is the most frequent type of hallucination experienced in schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Gustatory

      Correct Answer: Auditory

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Characteristics of Psychosis: Types of Hallucinations

      Psychosis is a mental health condition that can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations. Hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur without any corresponding sensory stimulation. While they can occur in any sensory modality, auditory hallucinations are particularly common in patients with schizophrenia. However, it is important to note that the presence or absence of one symptom or type of symptom does not determine the psychiatric diagnosis.

      Visual hallucinations are more common in delirium or psychedelic drug intoxication than in schizophrenia. Olfactory and gustatory hallucinations are associated with partial complex seizures, while tactile hallucinations are characteristic of delirium tremens, a severe form of alcohol withdrawal.

      To aid in the diagnosis of schizophrenia, clinicians often use mnemonics. Negative symptoms, also known as type II schizophrenic symptoms, can be remembered with the acronym LESS. Diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia, in the absence of cerebral damage, intoxication, epilepsy, or mania, can be remembered with the acronym DEAD. Positive symptoms, also known as type I schizophrenic symptoms, can be remembered with the acronym THREAD.

      Overall, understanding the characteristics of different types of hallucinations can aid in the evaluation and diagnosis of psychotic patients. However, it is important to consider the overall spectrum of symptoms and the course of the disease when making a diagnosis.

      Understanding the Characteristics of Psychosis: Types of Hallucinations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman comes to her doctor with a similar complaint of anxiety...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to her doctor with a similar complaint of anxiety that has been affecting her sleep and social interactions for several months. She reports feeling restless and agitated but denies any panic attacks. Her medical history is unremarkable. What would be the best initial approach to address her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      The preferred initial pharmacological treatment for generalised anxiety disorder is an SSRI, with sertraline being the recommended choice according to NICE guidance. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline are considered second- or third-line options, while SNRIs like duloxetine may be used if sertraline is ineffective. Beta-blockers like propranolol are typically used as needed for acute anxiety or panic attacks and are not recommended as monotherapy for chronic anxiety.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 19-year-old Afro-Caribbean male with sickle cell disease complains of right upper abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old Afro-Caribbean male with sickle cell disease complains of right upper abdominal pain and exhibits tenderness upon palpation. What diagnostic test should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Pigment Gallstones and High Haem Turnover

      In cases of chronic haemolysis, such as sickle cell disease or thalassaemia, the presence of unconjugated bilirubin in bile can lead to the formation of pigment gallstones. These stones are black in color and are caused by the precipitation of calcium bilirubinate from solution. The high concentration of unconjugated bilirubin in bile is a result of the increased turnover of haemoglobin. This can cause pain and discomfort for the patient. It is important to manage the underlying condition causing the high haem turnover to prevent the formation of pigment gallstones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following drugs does not inhibit cytochrome P450? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs does not inhibit cytochrome P450?

      Your Answer: Ketoconazole

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old ice hockey player was tackled by a member of the opposite...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old ice hockey player was tackled by a member of the opposite team and fell on the ice, hitting the right side of his head. He was disoriented but was able to continue the game. The following evening, his roommate tried to wake him but found him unconscious in a pool of vomit.
      What is the most probable finding in a CT scan of his head?

      Your Answer: Unilateral biconvex-shaped shadow along the lateral cortex

      Explanation:

      Understanding CT Scans: Interpreting Brain Hematomas

      Brain hematomas are a serious medical condition that require prompt diagnosis and treatment. CT scans are often used to identify the location and type of hematoma present in the brain. Here are some key points to keep in mind when interpreting CT scans of brain hematomas:

      Unilateral Biconvex-Shaped Shadow Along the Lateral Cortex
      This is a classic case of an extradural hematoma, which occurs when temporal skull fractures damage the middle meningeal artery. Blood accumulates under arterial pressure, causing separation of the dura from the inner surface of the skull. A lucid period of several hours without symptoms may occur, but rapid blood accumulation will increase intracranial pressure, leading to uncal or transtentorial herniation and death.

      Bilateral Crescent-Shaped Shadow Along the Lateral Cortex
      This is an incorrect interpretation because bilateral accumulation of blood is unlikely when the patient has only injured one side of their head.

      Unilateral Crescent-Shaped Shadow Along the Lateral Cortex
      This describes a subdural hematoma, which occurs when blood accumulates between the inner surface of the dura and the outer arachnoid layer of the leptomeninges. This type of hematoma appears as a crescent-shaped shadow on a CT scan.

      Unilateral Biconvex-Shaped Area Along the Anterior Cortex
      This is also an incorrect interpretation because accumulation of blood occurs beside the torn artery, which is typically located along the lateral cortex.

      Shifting of the Brain Midline Towards the Side of the Lesion
      This is an incorrect interpretation because pressure due to an accumulation of blood will tend to shift the midline of the brain to the opposite side of the lesion.

      In summary, understanding the different types of brain hematomas and their corresponding CT scan appearances is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A doctor is performing a routine check on a 6-month-old baby and finds...

    Incorrect

    • A doctor is performing a routine check on a 6-month-old baby and finds that the hips are positive for Barlow and Ortolani tests. What is the most probable situation for this child?

      Your Answer: Low birth weight

      Correct Answer: Female

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip is more likely to occur in females. Positive Barlow and Ortolani tests are indicative of DDH. High birth weight, breech presentation, and oligohydramnios are risk factors for DDH, while C-section birth is not a relevant factor.

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 15-year-old Scottish resident presents to your Scottish Emergency Department with a 10-hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old Scottish resident presents to your Scottish Emergency Department with a 10-hour history of acute right-sided abdominal pain. On examination, she has acute appendicitis. She is keen to proceed with the recommended surgery. You are unable to contact a parent or any other contact given by the patient.
      What do you need in order to proceed?

      Your Answer: An assessment of competence. A 16-year old may have competence to consent to treatment

      Correct Answer: Nothing; in Scotland, a 16-year-old person is deemed capable of consenting to treatment

      Explanation:

      Capacity to Consent to Treatment in Scotland for 16-Year-Olds

      In Scotland, the Age of Legal Capacity (Scotland) Act 1991 states that all people aged 16 and over are presumed in law to have the capacity to consent to treatment unless there is evidence to the contrary. This means that a 16-year-old person is deemed capable of consenting to treatment without the need for a court order or assessment of competence.

      Furthermore, social workers do not have the power to consent on behalf of any patient, regardless of age. It is important to note that even if it is believed to be in the best interests of the person to have the surgery performed, it cannot be done without their consent if they are over 16 and have capacity.

      Overall, the law in Scotland is clear regarding the age at which a person is deemed to have capacity to consent, providing clarity and protection for 16-year-olds seeking medical treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner, complaining of a lump in...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner, complaining of a lump in her neck. She is a non-smoker and has no significant past medical history. On examination, there is a 2-cm firm, non-tender nodule on the left side of the anterior triangle of the neck, in the area of the thyroid.
      Investigations:
      Thyroid stimulating hormone: 2.5 mu/l (0.4–4.0 mu/l)
      Fine-needle aspiration biopsy: partial papillary architecture with some thyroid follicles present. Thyrocytes are abnormally large with an abnormal nucleus and cytoplasm and frequent mitoses. Psammoma bodies are also demonstrated in the sample.
      Which of the following fits best with the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Papillary thyroid carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Cancer Types and Diagnosis

      Thyroid cancer can be classified into different types based on the cells involved. Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common type, where the papillary architecture of the thyroid is partially preserved. Surgery followed by radioiodine therapy is the standard treatment for this condition. Medullary thyroid carcinoma is less common and results in elevated calcitonin levels. Non-toxic multinodular goitre can be diagnosed through fine-needle aspiration biopsy, which shows colloid nodules. Follicular thyroid carcinoma exhibits variable morphology and is not consistent with fine-needle aspiration biopsy findings. Solitary toxic nodule can be ruled out if thyroid function is within normal limits. Proper diagnosis and treatment can lead to a high survival rate for patients under 40 years of age with papillary thyroid carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old individual complains of numbness and tingling along the ulnar border of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old individual complains of numbness and tingling along the ulnar border of their wrist and forearm. During examination, you observe weak flexion of all digits, including the thumb. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Correct Answer: C8 radiculopathy

      Explanation:

      Unlike named nerve pathology, radiculopathy follows a dermatomal distribution. This means that the pattern of sensory loss cannot be explained by a single named nerve. For example, while the ulnar nerve supplies the ulnar border of the hand and the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve supplies the medial forearm, these areas are actually covered by the C8 dermatome.

      It’s important to note that thumb flexion would not be affected in ulnar nerve lesions, and carpal tunnel syndrome would only affect flexion of the thumb without producing this specific pattern of sensory loss. On the other hand, a cerebrovascular accident would likely result in complete upper limb weakness or numbness.

      Understanding Cervical Spondylosis

      Cervical spondylosis is a prevalent condition that arises from osteoarthritis. It is characterized by neck pain, which can be mistaken for headaches or other conditions. This condition is caused by the degeneration of the cervical spine, which is the part of the spine that is located in the neck. As the spine degenerates, it can cause the vertebrae to rub against each other, leading to pain and discomfort.

      Cervical spondylosis can also cause complications such as radiculopathy and myelopathy. Radiculopathy occurs when the nerves that run from the spinal cord to the arms and legs become compressed or damaged. This can cause pain, numbness, and weakness in the affected area. Myelopathy, on the other hand, occurs when the spinal cord itself becomes compressed or damaged. This can cause a range of symptoms, including difficulty walking, loss of bladder or bowel control, and even paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A local guideline on use of drugs in palliative care includes the following...

    Incorrect

    • A local guideline on use of drugs in palliative care includes the following statement:
      ‘Haloperidol is effective in relieving nausea in patients with end-stage renal failure and should be considered the first-line agent in these patients.’
      The guideline states that this recommendation is based on Level 3 evidence.
      Which statement best describes the type of evidence that supports this recommendation if the patients are elderly?

      Your Answer: Expert consensus using mechanism-based reasoning

      Correct Answer: Case series

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Hierarchy of Evidence-Based Medicine

      In order to determine the strength of evidence behind clinical guidelines, the Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine at the University of Oxford has established a hierarchy of evidence. At the top of the hierarchy is Level 1a evidence, which consists of systematic reviews of randomized trials. At the bottom is Level 5 evidence, which is based on expert consensus.

      Case series fall under Level 3 evidence, while expert consensus using mechanism-based reasoning is classified as Level 4 evidence. The ideal for guideline recommendations is a systematic review of randomized controlled trials, which is classified as Level 1 evidence. Non-randomized cohort studies of good quality are classified under Level 2, while low-quality studies fall under Level 4.

      Randomized, placebo-controlled trials with a narrow confidence interval are Level 1b evidence, while those with less than 80% follow-up are classified as Level 2b evidence. Understanding this hierarchy is crucial for making evidence-based decisions in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with a blood pressure reading...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents with a blood pressure reading of 140/85 mmHg and persistent traces of albuminuria in his urine examination. What is the most suitable course of treatment for this individual?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Nephropathy and the Benefits of ACE Inhibitors

      Diabetic nephropathy is a clinical condition characterized by persistent albuminuria, a decline in the glomerular filtration rate, and elevated arterial blood pressure. To confirm the diagnosis, albuminuria must be present on at least two occasions three to six months apart. Antihypertensive therapy can slow the progression of diabetic glomerulopathy, but ACE inhibitors have been shown to provide superior long-term protection.

      Aside from its cardiovascular benefits, ACE inhibition has also been found to have a significant positive effect on the progression of diabetic retinopathy and the development of proliferative retinopathy. Therefore, ACE inhibitors are a recommended treatment option for patients with diabetic nephropathy. By this condition and the benefits of ACE inhibitors, healthcare professionals can provide better care for their patients with diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old girl presents with haematuria, hearing loss, and poor eyesight caused by...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl presents with haematuria, hearing loss, and poor eyesight caused by lens dislocation. After conducting additional tests, the diagnosis of Alport syndrome is made. What type of collagen is typically affected by a molecular defect in this disease?

      Your Answer: Type IV

      Explanation:

      Types and Effects of Collagen Defects on Human Health

      Collagen is an essential protein that provides structural support to various tissues in the human body. Defects in different types of collagen can lead to various health conditions. Type IV collagen is crucial for the integrity of the basement membrane, and mutations in its genes can cause Alport syndrome, resulting in haematuria, hearing loss, and visual disturbances. Type III collagen defects cause Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, characterized by joint hypermobility, severe bruising, and blood vessel defects. Type I collagen defects lead to osteogenesis imperfecta, characterized by brittle bones, abnormal teeth, and weak tendons. Kniest dysplasia is caused by defects in type II collagen, leading to short stature, poor joint mobility, and eventual blindness. Kindler syndrome is characterized by the absence of epidermal anchoring fibrils due to defects in type VII collagen, resulting in skin fragility. Understanding the effects of collagen defects on human health is crucial for diagnosis and treatment of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 58-year-old woman has developed hypotension and tachycardia, 3 hours after a laparoscopic...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman has developed hypotension and tachycardia, 3 hours after a laparoscopic partial gastrectomy for a distal gastric tumor. Her blood gas analysis shows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
      pCO2 7.1 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      pO2 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      Bicarbonate 29 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Base excess 5 mmol/l –2.0 to +2.0 mmol/l
      What is the most probable diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Hypoventilation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Arterial Blood Gas Results: Causes of Respiratory Failure

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) results can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory status. In the case of type II respiratory failure with respiratory acidosis and hypoxaemia, hypoventilation is the likely cause. This can occur during surgery due to medications and post-operative pain, leading to insufficient ventilation and retention of carbon dioxide.

      Other conditions that can affect ABG results include pulmonary embolus, which causes hypoxaemia and respiratory alkalosis due to increased elimination of CO2. Pulmonary oedema, on the other hand, triggers hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis to compensate for impaired gas exchange. If left untreated, it can progress to type I respiratory failure with acidaemia and hypoxaemia.

      CO2 absorption from pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopic surgery can cause a transient respiratory acidosis, but it would not explain the type II respiratory failure seen in the above scenario. Lung atelectasis, which refers to incomplete lung expansion, can lead to hypoxaemia but drives a hyperventilation response and respiratory alkalosis with type I respiratory failure.

      Understanding the different causes of respiratory failure and their corresponding ABG results can aid in proper diagnosis and management of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
      86.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the most probable diagnosis for a 56-year-old man who has lethargy,...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable diagnosis for a 56-year-old man who has lethargy, haematuria, haemoptysis, hypertension, and a right loin mass, and whose CT scan shows a lesion in the upper pole of the right kidney with a small cystic centre?

      Your Answer: Polycystic kidney disease

      Correct Answer: Renal adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      The most frequent type of renal tumors are renal adenocarcinomas, which usually impact the renal parenchyma. Transitional cell carcinomas, on the other hand, tend to affect urothelial surfaces. Nephroblastomas are extremely uncommon in this age range. While renal adenocarcinomas can cause cannonball metastases in the lungs that result in hemoptysis, this is not a characteristic of PKD.

      Renal Cell Carcinoma: Characteristics, Diagnosis, and Management

      Renal cell carcinoma is a type of adenocarcinoma that develops in the renal cortex, specifically in the proximal convoluted tubule. It is a solid lesion that may be multifocal, calcified, or cystic. The tumor is usually surrounded by a pseudocapsule of compressed normal renal tissue. Spread of the tumor may occur through direct extension into the adrenal gland, renal vein, or surrounding fascia, or through the hematogenous route to the lung, bone, or brain. Renal cell carcinoma accounts for up to 85% of all renal malignancies, and it is more common in males and in patients in their sixth decade.

      Patients with renal cell carcinoma may present with various symptoms, such as haematuria, loin pain, mass, or symptoms of metastasis. Diagnosis is usually made through multislice CT scanning, which can detect the presence of a renal mass and any evidence of distant disease. Biopsy is not recommended when a nephrectomy is planned, but it is mandatory before any ablative therapies are undertaken. Assessment of the functioning of the contralateral kidney is also important.

      Management of renal cell carcinoma depends on the stage of the tumor. T1 lesions may be managed by partial nephrectomy, while T2 lesions and above require radical nephrectomy. Preoperative embolization and resection of uninvolved adrenal glands are not indicated. Patients with completely resected disease do not benefit from adjuvant therapy with chemotherapy or biological agents. Patients with transitional cell cancer will require a nephroureterectomy with disconnection of the ureter at the bladder.

      Reference:
      Lungberg B et al. EAU guidelines on renal cell carcinoma: The 2010 update. European Urology 2010 (58): 398-406.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a sudden-onset, severe, sharp, colicky pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a sudden-onset, severe, sharp, colicky pain in the right iliac fossa, radiating to the right loin and her right labia. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago.
      Which of the following would be most useful as an initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)

      Correct Answer: Urine dipstick

      Explanation:

      Medical Procedures and Conditions: A Brief Overview

      Urine Dipstick

      In cases of suspected renal colic, a urine dipstick should be performed to support the diagnosis and rule out a urinary tract infection. Microscopic haematuria is a common indicator of renal stones.

      Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL)

      DPL is a surgical diagnostic procedure used to detect free-floating fluid in the abdominal cavity, usually blood. It is now performed less frequently due to the increased use of other imaging modalities such as FAST and CT.

      Blood Sugar Levels

      Hypoglycaemia symptoms occur when blood sugar levels fall below 4 mmol/l. Symptoms include hunger, trembling, sweating, confusion, and difficulty concentrating. However, the history provided does not suggest hypoglycaemia or diabetes.

      Rectal Examination

      Digital rectal examination is commonly used to assess the prostate, detect rectal bleeding, and investigate constipation, changes in bowel habit, and problems with urinary or faecal continence. In exceptional circumstances, it may be used to detect the uterus and cervix.

      Vaginal Examination

      Speculum vaginal examination is commonly used to diagnose pregnancy, assess gestational age, detect abnormalities in the genital tract, investigate vaginal discharge, examine the cervix, and take cervical cytology smears.

      Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs)

      UTIs are caused by the presence of bacteria in the urinary tract and can affect the bladder, prostate, or kidneys. Escherichia coli is the most common cause. Abacterial cystitis, or the urethral syndrome, is a type of UTI that does not involve bacteriuria. Complicated and uncomplicated UTIs are differentiated by the presence or absence of renal tract and function abnormalities.

      Overview of Common Medical Procedures and Conditions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      66.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old man presents to the clinic with an 8-month history of uncorrectable...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the clinic with an 8-month history of uncorrectable poor vision. He has a medical history of hypertension, allergic conjunctivitis, and type 1 diabetes mellitus, and has been a heavy smoker for the past 20 years. On examination, his right eye has a visual acuity of 6/30 while the left eye is normal. Fundoscopy reveals increased retinal blood vessels, blot haemorrhages, and hard exudates in the nasal upper quadrant of the right eye. He denies any sudden visual loss or ocular trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is proliferative diabetic retinopathy, as evidenced by the presence of neovascularisation, microaneurysms, and hard exudates on fundoscopy. This condition is more common in type 1 diabetes mellitus. Dry age-related macular degeneration and hypertensive retinopathy are less likely diagnoses, as they do not explain all of the patient’s symptoms and findings.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      97.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 63-year-old man presents with persistent diarrhoea and abdominal pain. During the past...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents with persistent diarrhoea and abdominal pain. During the past week, he experienced several days of reduced bowel movements. Upon further questioning, he admits to occasional blood in his stools.

      On examination, his heart rate is 86 bpm and his temperature is 37.9ºC. There is tenderness in the lower left quadrant. He is admitted and treated. A CT chest, abdomen, and pelvis reveals mural thickening of the colon and pericolic fat stranding in the sigmoid colon.

      What lifestyle recommendations can aid in managing the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Increase fruit and vegetables in his diet

      Explanation:

      Increasing dietary fibre intake, specifically through the addition of fruits and vegetables, is a helpful measure for managing diverticular disease. In the case of this man, his altered bowel habits and presence of blood in his stools, along with the CT scan findings of sigmoid colon inflammation and pericolic fat stranding, indicate acute diverticulitis. This diagnosis is supported by his low-grade fever. Diverticular disease is the most common cause of inflammation in the sigmoid colon, and constipation is a common cause of diverticulosis. Therefore, increasing dietary fibre intake can help prevent constipation and reduce the likelihood of worsening diverticular disease. Restricting fluid intake, reducing alcohol consumption, smoking cessation, and stress reduction are not directly helpful for managing diverticular disease in this patient.

      Understanding Diverticular Disease

      Diverticular disease is a common condition that involves the protrusion of colonic mucosa through the muscular wall of the colon. This typically occurs between the taenia coli, where vessels penetrate the muscle to supply the mucosa. Symptoms of diverticular disease include altered bowel habits, rectal bleeding, and abdominal pain. Complications can arise, such as diverticulitis, haemorrhage, fistula development, perforation and faecal peritonitis, abscess formation, and diverticular phlegmon.

      To diagnose diverticular disease, patients may undergo a colonoscopy, CT cologram, or barium enema. However, it can be challenging to rule out cancer, especially in diverticular strictures. For acutely unwell surgical patients, plain abdominal films and an erect chest x-ray can identify perforation, while an abdominal CT scan with oral and intravenous contrast can detect acute inflammation and local complications.

      Treatment for diverticular disease includes increasing dietary fibre intake and managing mild attacks with antibiotics. Peri colonic abscesses may require surgical or radiological drainage, while recurrent episodes of acute diverticulitis may necessitate a segmental resection. Hinchey IV perforations, which involve generalised faecal peritonitis, typically require a resection and stoma, with a high risk of postoperative complications and HDU admission. Less severe perforations may be managed with laparoscopic washout and drain insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old male smoker presented with chronic dyspnoea. He used to work in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male smoker presented with chronic dyspnoea. He used to work in the shipyard but now has a retired life with his dogs. He was under treatment as a case of COPD, but maximal therapy for COPD failed to bring him any relief. On re-evaluation, his chest X-ray showed fine reticular opacities in the lower zones. A CT scan of his thorax showed interstitial thickening, with some ground glass opacity in the upper lungs.
      Pleural plaques were absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asbestosis

      Correct Answer: Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease (RB-ILD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Interstitial Lung Diseases: A Case Study

      The patient in question presents with dyspnoea and a history of smoking. While COPD is initially suspected, the radiograph and CT findings do not support this diagnosis. Instead, the patient may be suffering from an interstitial lung disease. RB-ILD is a possibility, given the presence of pigmented macrophages in the lung. Asbestosis is also considered, but the absence of pleural plaques makes this less likely. Pneumoconiosis and histoplasmosis are ruled out based on the patient’s history and imaging results. Treatment for interstitial lung diseases can be challenging, with steroids being the primary option. However, the effectiveness of this treatment is debatable. Ultimately, a lung biopsy may be necessary for a definitive diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - As the ward cover foundation year doctor, you receive a fast bleep at...

    Incorrect

    • As the ward cover foundation year doctor, you receive a fast bleep at 2 am for a patient experiencing a tonic clonic seizure. The nurse informs you that the patient, who is in for neuro observations, sustained a head injury six hours ago in the Emergency Department. The patient currently has an IV cannula, but the nurse has already administered PR diazepam as prescribed on the drug chart. The seizure has been ongoing for about 8 minutes now.

      Fifteen minutes ago, the patient's neuro observations were as follows: HR 70, BP 135/65 mmHg, RR 18, O2 97% on room air, and BM 7.0.

      What would be your next course of drug therapy for this patient, who is slightly older than the previous case?

      Your Answer: Midazolam 5 mg buccal

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam 4 mg IV

      Explanation:

      Management Algorithm for Seizures

      It is crucial to have knowledge of the management algorithm for seizures to prevent prolonged seizures that can lead to cerebral damage and hypoxia. The first line of management is a benzodiazepine, which can be repeated if there is no improvement after five minutes of ongoing fitting. Intravenous administration is preferred, but if an IV line is not available, the rectal route is recommended for ease and speed of treatment. Rectal diazepam is commonly prescribed on the PRN section of the drug chart for nursing staff who cannot administer IV drugs.

      In cases where an IV line is present and seizures persist, an IV benzodiazepine such as lorazepam is preferred due to its quick onset and shorter duration of action. Buccal midazolam is now being used in children as a quick and easy route of administration that avoids distressing PR administration. If seizures continue despite two doses of benzodiazepines, phenytoin should be initiated, and senior and expert help is required. If seizures persist, intubation and ventilation may be necessary.

      It is important to remember to obtain an early blood sugar test as hypoglycemic patients may remain refractive to antiepileptic therapies until their sugars are normalized. The acronym ABC then DEFG (Do not ever forget glucose) can help in remembering the order of management steps. Proper management of seizures can prevent further complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 49-year-old farmer presented with progressive dyspnoea. He had a dry cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old farmer presented with progressive dyspnoea. He had a dry cough and exercise intolerance. On examination, few crackles were found in the upper zones of both lungs. Surgical lung biopsy was done which was reported as:
      Interstitial inflammation, chronic bronchiolitis, and two foci of non-necrotizing granuloma.
      What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lung Disorders: Histological Features

      Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis: This lung disorder is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to mouldy hay or other organic materials. A farmer is likely to develop this condition due to exposure to such materials. The histological triad of hypersensitivity pneumonitis includes lymphocytic alveolitis, non-caseating granulomas, and poorly formed granulomas.

      Aspergillosis: This lung disorder is rarely invasive. In cases where it is invasive, lung biopsy shows hyphae with vascular invasion and surrounding tissue necrosis.

      Sarcoidosis: This lung disorder of unknown aetiology presents with non-caseating granuloma. Schumann bodies, which are calcified, rounded, laminated concretions inside the non-caseating granuloma, are found in sarcoidosis. The granulomas are formed of foreign body giant cells. Within the giant cells, there are star-shaped inclusions called asteroid bodies.

      Histiocytosis X: This lung disorder presents with scattered nodules of Langerhans cells. Associated with it are eosinophils, macrophages, and giant cells. The Langerhans cells contain racket-shaped Birbeck granules.

      Tuberculosis: This lung disorder typically has caseating granulomas in the lung parenchyma. There is also fibrosis in later stages. Ziehl–Neelsen staining of the smear reveals acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in many cases. Vasculitic lesions can also be found.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      54.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset back pain that improves with lying down....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset back pain that improves with lying down. She has a history of ulcerative colitis, for which she has just finished a course of steroids following a flare, went through menopause 15 years ago, and has not had symptoms of it since. Her BMI is 20 kg/m².

      Blood tests are taken and an x-ray confirms a vertebral compression fracture. A FRAX® score is calculated to be 12% and a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is arranged which shows the following:

      Calcium 2.3 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Vitamin D 18.2 ng/ml (≥20.0)
      T-score -2.6

      What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and alendronic acid

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D supplements then alendronic acid

      Explanation:

      Calcium supplementation should only be prescribed alongside bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis if the patient’s dietary intake is insufficient.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      60.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - As part of a palliative care attachment for final-year medical students, the consultant...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a palliative care attachment for final-year medical students, the consultant is discussing non-pharmacological options for managing pain symptoms. The focus is on herbal therapies that have been clinically proven to provide analgesic benefits in palliative care.

      Your Answer: Clove oil

      Correct Answer: Capsaicin

      Explanation:

      Natural Remedies for Pain Relief: A Look at Capsaicin, Arnica, Cod Liver Oil, Clove Oil, and Echinacea

      When it comes to managing pain, many people turn to natural remedies. Among these remedies are capsaicin, arnica, cod liver oil, clove oil, and echinacea. Capsaicin, which is found in chilli peppers, has been shown in several studies to be effective in treating neuropathic-type pain. Arnica, on the other hand, has been found to be no more effective than placebo for pain relief. Cod liver oil, when taken with NSAIDs, has not been shown to have a significant analgesic effect for osteoarthritis pain compared to placebo. Clove oil is commonly used for dental pain, gastrointestinal upset, nausea, and vomiting, but there is no published research on its pain relief properties. Finally, echinacea is often used for colds and respiratory infections, but there is no published research on its analgesic effects. While natural remedies can be a helpful addition to pain management, it’s important to do your research and consult with a healthcare professional before trying any new treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man comes to the GP with a recently discovered lump on...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the GP with a recently discovered lump on his abdomen. During the examination, a solitary visible protrusion is observed 5 cm above the belly button in the center. It seems pink and is painless without indications of necrosis. Bowel sounds are audible.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epigastric hernia

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for the patient’s visible protrusion is an epigastric hernia, which is a lump located in the midline between the umbilicus and the xiphisternum. This is supported by the fact that the protrusion is 5 cm above the umbilicus in the midline. Other potential diagnoses such as femoral hernia, para-umbilical hernia, and Spigelian hernia are incorrect as they do not match the location and characteristics of the patient’s protrusion.

      Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematuria and haemoptysis. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with haematuria and haemoptysis. His vital signs are heart rate 88 bpm, blood pressure 170/110 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.8 °C. Urinalysis shows protein and red cell casts. Serum testing reveals antibodies to the glomerular basement membrane. A renal biopsy is conducted.
      What is the probable finding in the renal biopsy?

      Your Answer: ‘Wire looping’ of capillaries

      Correct Answer: Linear immunofluorescence

      Explanation:

      Different Renal Pathologies and their Histological Features

      Nephritic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, haematuria, and hypertension. Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies suggest hypersensitivity angiitis (Goodpasture’s syndrome) as the underlying cause. In hypersensitivity angiitis, crescents are seen on light microscopy of a renal biopsy specimen. Immunofluorescence shows linear IgG deposits along the basement membrane.

      Diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis is characterized by ‘wire looping’ of capillaries. Hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome) shows splitting of the basement membrane and is associated with deafness. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, typically seen in children, shows a ‘lumpy bumpy’ appearance of the glomeruli. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy is characterized by immune complex deposition in the basement membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails to fall into the normal range after three successive measurements at the practice nurse. These were 155/92 mmHg, 158/96 mmHg and 154/94 mmHg. He has a past history of some urinary tract infections as a child. The GP arranges some routine blood tests.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 187 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      USS Left kidney 8.4 cm and appears scarred.
      Right kidney 10.3 cm
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Correct Answer: Chronic reflux nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a 25-Year-Old Man with Renal Issues

      Upon reviewing the history and test results of a 25-year-old man with renal issues, several potential diagnoses can be considered. Chronic reflux nephropathy appears to be the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s history of urinary tract infections as a child, ultrasound scan results, and elevated creatinine levels. Further testing, such as renal tract computed tomography and a voiding cystourethrogram, can confirm this diagnosis.

      Essential hypertension, while a risk factor for reno-vascular disease, would not explain the patient’s creatinine rise or asymmetrical kidneys. Renal artery stenosis, while potentially causing a unilaterally reduced kidney size, is rare in young patients and does not fit with the patient’s history of urinary tract infections. White coat hypertension, which is a transient rise in blood pressure in a medical setting, would not explain the patient’s creatinine rise or reduced kidney size and scarring.

      IgA nephropathy, which typically presents with haematuria following an upper respiratory or other infection, does not fit with the patient’s history of urinary tract infections or lack of haematuria. Therefore, chronic reflux nephropathy remains the most likely diagnosis for this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      73
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old woman, who is receiving doxorubicin chemotherapy for breast cancer, presents with...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman, who is receiving doxorubicin chemotherapy for breast cancer, presents with severe nausea and vomiting as a side effect of the treatment. Upon examination, the patient is afebrile with a blood pressure of 102/76 mmHg and a regular pulse rate of 90 bpm. The patient has a capillary refill time of 2 seconds and dry mucous membranes. Abdominal examination reveals a soft abdomen without palpable masses or tenderness. Bowel sounds are normal. What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) rehydration and IV ondansetron

      Explanation:

      Management of Chemotherapy-Induced Nausea and Vomiting: Treatment Options

      Chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting can be a distressing side-effect for patients undergoing cancer treatment. The use of antiemetics is an important aspect of patient care in managing these symptoms. In cases where the patient is actively vomiting, intravenous (IV) administration of antiemetics and fluids is preferred.

      Ondansetron, a 5-hydroxytryptamine 3 (5HT3) receptor antagonist, is a potent antiemetic that is generally effective and well-tolerated by patients. However, a single dose of IV ondansetron should not exceed 16 mg to avoid the risk of QT prolongation. Ideally, antiemetic therapy should be started before chemotherapy and continued at regular intervals for up to five days.

      Aggressive oral rehydration and oral antiemetics are not appropriate for patients who are actively vomiting. IV rehydration and IV ondansetron are the preferred treatment options in such cases.

      In rare cases where ondansetron cannot be used, metoclopramide, an antidopaminergic antiemetic, may be considered. However, it is not the first choice of antiemetic.

      IV omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is not indicated in the management of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.

      Overall, the goal of treatment is to manage symptoms and provide relief to the patient. With appropriate treatment, symptoms will settle, and the patient can be discharged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with suicidal ideation after a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with suicidal ideation after a fight with her partner. She has a history of relationship problems and frequently argues with loved ones. She denies having any paranoid thoughts or unusual beliefs but reports hearing a voice in her head that describes her negative thoughts. Upon examination, you observe several superficial scars on her forearms. There is no evidence of delusions or abnormal speech. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is borderline personality disorder, which is characterized by a history of self-harm and intense relationships that alternate between idealization and devaluation. Symptoms also include mood swings and the possibility of paranoid thoughts and hallucinations.

      Paranoid personality disorder is not the correct answer, as it primarily involves difficulty trusting others and interpreting situations as threatening. While the patient in question does exhibit some paranoia, their other symptoms are more indicative of borderline personality disorder.

      Schizoid personality disorder is also not the correct answer, as it involves difficulty forming close relationships and a preference for solitude. The patient in question has close relationships with others.

      Schizophrenia is not the correct answer either, as it primarily involves delusions, hallucinations, and disordered thinking.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      34.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Medicine (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (2/3) 67%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Neurosurgery (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Ethics And Legal (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/2) 0%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Renal (1/3) 33%
Clinical Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Surgery (2/3) 67%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Passmed