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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has advanced pancreatic cancer. He is currently taking 40 mg prolonged release morphine twice a day and 15 mg of morphine oral solution three times a day. He is experiencing drowsiness and difficulty swallowing medication. You determine that a continuous subcutaneous infusion of morphine via a syringe driver is necessary. What is the most suitable dosage of subcutaneous morphine in this scenario? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: 30 mg/24 hours, 5 mg for breakthrough pain
Correct Answer: 45 mg/24 hours, 7.5 mg for breakthrough pain
Explanation:Dosage Calculation Errors
Dosage calculation errors can have serious consequences for patients. Here are some examples of errors and how to correct them:
1. 45 mg/24 hours, 7.5 mg for breakthrough pain
To calculate the 24 hour dose, add together the current doses in 24 hours and convert to an equivalent subcutaneous dose. For morphine, divide by 2. The breakthrough dose is 1/6 of the baseline dose.2. 45 mg/24 hours, 10 mg for breakthrough pain
The baseline dose over 24 hours is correct but the breakthrough dose is incorrect. The dose for breakthrough pain is 1/6 of the baseline dose.3. 60 mg/24 hours, 10 mg for breakthrough pain
The 24 hour dose needs to incorporate PRN doses and be adjusted for administration by injection rather than oral.4. 90 mg/24 hours, 15 mg for breakthrough pain
The error made here is not converting the dose from oral to subcutaneous. This is done by dividing the oral dose by 2.5. 30 mg/24 hours, 5 mg for breakthrough pain
The baseline dose needs to include any PRN doses taken. The current regimen should be converted from oral to subcutaneous correctly, but the 30 mg of oral solution taken should also be taken into account. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A woman wants advice about air travel while pregnant. She wants to visit her mother who is unwell. The flight will be 6 hours in duration. She will be 28 weeks pregnant at the time of the flight. There have been no complications during this pregnancy. She wants to know how late into the pregnancy she is allowed to fly.
What would you advise her about air travel for an uncomplicated single pregnancy?Your Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 32 of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 24 of pregnancy
Explanation:Airline Restrictions for Pregnant Passengers
Most airlines have restrictions on pregnant passengers flying beyond a certain gestation period. For single, uncomplicated pregnancies, the limit is usually week 37, while for those carrying twins or more, it is week 32. This is due to the increased risks of medical conditions and the possibility of going into labor while in the air.
In addition to these restrictions, pregnant passengers should also be advised on how to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) during flights longer than four hours. This includes walking when possible, doing in-seat exercises, staying hydrated, and wearing compression stockings. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) provides a helpful patient leaflet on this topic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about warfarin is accurate?
Your Answer: All patients with an INR of greater than 6.0 should be given vitamin K
Correct Answer: Warfarin can be used when breastfeeding
Explanation:Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.
Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimens and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.
Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is taking fluoxetine 20 mg daily for moderately severe depression. She has taken the drug for 2 months and is feeling much better. She now wishes to stop the drug.
Select from the list the single most correct management option.Your Answer: Reduce the dose slowly over 4 weeks and then stop
Correct Answer: Advise continuing fluoxetine 20 mg daily for a further 6 months
Explanation:Preventing Relapse of Depression: The Importance of Continued Treatment
Depression is a serious mental health condition that can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life. While antidepressant treatment can be effective in managing symptoms, it’s important to continue treatment even after recovery to prevent relapse.
Research has shown that a single episode of depression should be treated for at least 6 months after recovery to reduce the risk of relapse. In fact, if antidepressant treatment is stopped immediately on recovery, 50% of patients will experience a relapse of their depressive symptoms.
To prevent relapse, adults should receive the same dose of medication is used for acute treatment. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dosage and duration of treatment. Once the patient has recovered, the medication should be tapered off over a few weeks to avoid any potential withdrawal symptoms.
In conclusion, continued treatment is crucial in preventing relapse of depression. By following the recommended guidelines and working closely with a healthcare provider, individuals can manage their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 72-year-old man with a history of chronic constipation visits the General Practice Surgery with complaints of being unable to pass urine for the past 10 hours. As a result, he has not been drinking fluids and is now dehydrated. Upon examination, you find a tender bladder palpable to his umbilicus and immediately catheterise him. The residual volume is 500 ml. What is the most suitable advice you can provide to this patient regarding his acute retention?
Your Answer: Constipation is the most likely cause
Explanation:Mythbusting Urinary Retention: Common Misconceptions Debunked
Urinary retention is a condition where the bladder is unable to empty completely or at all. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this condition that need to be debunked.
Firstly, severe constipation can lead to urinary retention and should be considered as a cause. Other common causes include prostatic disease, urethral strictures, pelvic tumors, and medications. It is important to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment.
Secondly, suprapubic catheterization is not always indicated for co-existent urinary tract infections. It is only recommended when transurethral catheterization is not possible.
Thirdly, urinary retention may not always be painful. Chronic retention may not cause pain, and even with acute retention, patients may not always report pain.
Lastly, while benign prostatic hyperplasia is the most common cause of urinary retention in men, there are many other causes, and thorough evaluation is needed to identify and treat the underlying cause. Additionally, urinary retention can occur in both men and women.
In conclusion, it is important to dispel these myths surrounding urinary retention to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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A child vomits in the phlebotomy room during a blood draw. What type of chemical should be used to clean up the vomit?
Your Answer: Hypochlorite
Explanation:Managing Body Fluid Spillages
When it comes to managing body fluid spillages, hypochlorite is often recommended. This chlorine-based agent is typically used in granular or powder form and spread over the affected area. However, it’s important to note that chlorine-releasing agents can be hazardous if used in large volumes in confined spaces or mixed with urine. Adequate ventilation is crucial to ensure safety.
In addition to using hypochlorite, it’s recommended that staff wear personal protective equipment such as plastic aprons, gloves, masks, and eye protection when cleaning up body fluids. It’s also important to avoid using mops, as they can spread the contamination further.
Some NHS trusts recommend the use of Virkon, a multipurpose disinfectant that contains oxone, potassium peroxymonosulphate, sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate, sulphamic acid, and inorganic buffers. Virkon is believed to be effective against HIV, hepatitis, and MRSA. By following these guidelines and using appropriate disinfectants, healthcare professionals can effectively manage body fluid spillages and minimize the risk of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 65-year old man comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual decline in his vision over the past month. He reports difficulty reading small print and noticing that straight lines appear distorted. Additionally, he has noticed a grey spot in the center of his vision. Upon examination, his visual acuity is 20/30 in both eyes. Ophthalmoscopy reveals choroidal neovascularization. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:If an individual experiences a combination of age, gradual loss of vision, blurring of small words, and straight lines appearing ‘curvy’, it is important to consider the possibility of age-related macular degeneration. It is possible for visual acuity to remain normal in this case. Wet age-related macular degeneration is characterized by neovascularization.
Acute closed angle glaucoma is typically accompanied by pain, headache, red eye, and the classic symptom of ‘halos around objects’. Retinal artery occlusion is an acute event that usually results in dense central visual loss (if the central retinal artery is occluded) or a sectional visual field defect (if a branch retinal artery is occluded). Diabetic retinopathy is typically seen in individuals with a known diagnosis of diabetes. They may be asymptomatic for a significant period before experiencing symptoms such as floaters, blurring, and distortion. A macular hole presents similarly to age-related macular degeneration, with slow onset central visual loss and sometimes distortion. However, ophthalmoscopy would reveal a well-defined round or oval lesion in the macula with yellow deposits at the base. Choroidal neovascularization is not a characteristic symptom in the scenario described.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with bothersome urinary symptoms of urinary frequency, nocturia and hesitancy. His International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) is 20/35. A recent digital rectal examination (DRE) shows a smoothly enlarged prostate. His blood test results show a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level of 3.5 ng/ml (age-specific normal range for ages 60-69: < 4.0 ng/ml). What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Your Answer: Tamsulosin
Correct Answer: Tamsulosin and finasteride
Explanation:This man is experiencing symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), which is common in men over 45 years old and presents with urinary frequency, nocturia, and hesitancy. Upon examination, his prostate is enlarged but his PSA is normal. Based on his moderate voiding symptoms, he should receive combination therapy with an alpha-blocker (such as tamsulosin) and a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor (such as finasteride). Finasteride works to physically reduce the size of the prostate, but may take up to six months to show improvement, while the alpha-blocker works quickly to relieve symptoms but has no long-term impact. For patients at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor alone should be offered. It is important to counsel patients about common side-effects, including erectile dysfunction and safety issues. Goserelin is not appropriate in this case as it is used in the treatment of prostate cancer. Oxybutynin may be added for patients with a mixture of storage and voiding symptoms that persist after treatment with an alpha-blocker. Tamsulosin alone may be offered for those with mild symptoms not responding to conservative management or those who decline treatment with finasteride. Common side-effects of tamsulosin include dizziness and sexual dysfunction, and it should be used with caution in the elderly and those with a history of postural hypotension or micturition syncope.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a fundamental aspect of clinical governance?
Your Answer: Clinical audit
Correct Answer: Health promotion
Explanation:Although health promotion is crucial, it falls outside the scope of clinical governance.
Understanding Clinical Governance
Clinical governance is a system that holds NHS organizations accountable for improving the quality of their services and ensuring high standards of care. It creates an environment that fosters clinical excellence and continuous improvement. This system is made up of several components, including education and training, clinical audit, clinical effectiveness, research and development, risk management, and openness. Each of these elements plays a crucial role in ensuring that healthcare providers deliver the best possible care to patients. By implementing clinical governance, NHS organizations can identify areas for improvement, measure their progress, and make changes that benefit patients and staff alike. With a focus on quality and safety, clinical governance is an essential part of modern healthcare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The practice nurse is seeking advice on malaria prophylaxis for a 26-year-old female patient who is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception and has a history of anxiety treated with sertraline two years ago. What would be the most suitable recommendation?
Your Answer: Barrier methods should be used in addition to the combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Mefloquine may not be prescribed due to the history of anxiety
Explanation:Strengthened Warnings on the Neuropsychiatric Side-Effects of Mefloquine
Mefloquine, also known as Lariam, is a medication used for the prevention and treatment of certain types of malaria. However, there has been a long-standing concern about its potential neuropsychiatric side-effects. Recently, a review has led to the strengthening of warnings regarding these risks.
Patients taking mefloquine may experience side-effects such as nightmares or anxiety, which could be a sign of a more serious neuropsychiatric event. There have also been reports of suicide and deliberate self-harm in patients taking this medication. Adverse reactions may persist for several months due to the long half-life of mefloquine.
It is important to note that mefloquine should not be used in patients with a history of anxiety, depression, schizophrenia, or other psychiatric disorders. If patients experience any neuropsychiatric side-effects while taking mefloquine, they should stop the medication and seek medical advice. These warnings aim to ensure the safe use of mefloquine in the prevention and treatment of malaria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 11
Correct
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Olivia is a 42-year-old woman who came to see you 6 weeks ago with vertigo following a viral infection. You diagnosed vestibular neuronitis and prescribed a course of prochlorperazine for symptom control.
Olivia comes to see you today with ongoing vertigo. This improved with prochlorperazine but she still experiences attacks of vertigo which usually last hours. There are no new symptoms and neurological examination is normal.
What is the most important aspect of ongoing management for Olivia?Your Answer: Refer for vestibular rehabilitation exercises
Explanation:Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are the recommended treatment for chronic symptoms in vestibular neuronitis, as they are both safe and effective in improving functioning in the medium term. It is important to avoid prolonged use of medication, as it may interfere with the body’s compensatory mechanisms and delay recovery. While a short course of promethazine may help with symptom control, it is unlikely to provide long-term relief for vertigo. Betahistine is only indicated for vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss associated with Ménière’s disease, and is therefore not appropriate for Marcus’s case. Hospital admission is not necessary, as Marcus is not acutely unwell and his symptoms are likely to resolve within a few weeks. However, it is important to refer chronic or recurrent cases for further evaluation to rule out any underlying serious conditions.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presents with bilateral gynaecomastia. He reports a noticeable increase in breast tissue over the past several months. His medical history includes a congenital right-sided crypto-orchidism, which was corrected with orchidopexy during childhood. He also experiences migraines and uses sumatriptan as needed. What is the probable underlying cause of his current symptoms?
Your Answer: Mondor's disease
Correct Answer: Drug-induced
Explanation:Gynaecomastia and Testicular Tumour
This man is likely to have a testicular tumour as the cause of his gynaecomastia. While bilateral breast cancer in a male his age is highly unusual, gynaecomastia can develop due to the hormonal influence of a tumour. Sumatriptan doesn’t cause gynaecomastia, and Mondor’s disease is a thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the breast or chest wall. Physiological changes of puberty occur during puberty and not in the mid-20s, making testicular tumour the most likely option.
The patient’s history of crypto-orchidism is a risk factor for the development of testicular cancer, and he is in the typical age range. However, it should be noted that only a minority of testicular cancers present with gynaecomastia. According to the American Family Physician, approximately 10% of males present with gynaecomastia from tumours that secrete beta human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG). Therefore, further investigation and genital examination are necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 28-year-old man visits the General Practitioner (GP) as a temporary resident and asks for opiate analgesics to manage a sickle-cell crisis. Which of the following choices would be the LEAST suspicious that he is a drug abuser?
Your Answer: Staying for a month with his parents
Explanation:Identifying Drug-Seeking Behavior in Patients: Signs to Look Out For
When dealing with patients, it’s important to be able to identify drug-seeking behavior. One sign to look out for is when a patient claims to be a temporary resident in the area. This is a common tactic used by drug seekers who are just passing through. However, if the patient’s parents are also your patients and they are a stable couple, this can be reassuring.
Other signs to watch for include strange smells such as cannabis, cocaine, or heroin, as well as the smell of acetone or glue on the breath. Additionally, needle tracks or difficult intravenous access may also be present. By being aware of these signs, healthcare professionals can better identify and address drug-seeking behavior in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A new medication aimed at preventing outbreaks of shingles is being tested in clinical trials. One hundred participants are administered the new medication. Over a three-month period, 10 of the participants experience a shingles outbreak. Meanwhile, in the control group, 300 participants are given a placebo. During the same time frame, 50 individuals in the control group experience a shingles outbreak. What is the relative risk of experiencing a shingles outbreak while taking the new medication?
Your Answer: 0.2
Correct Answer: 0.6
Explanation:The experimental event rate (EER) is calculated as 10 events out of 100, resulting in a rate of 0.10. The control event rate (CER) is calculated as 50 events out of 300, resulting in a rate of 0.166. The relative risk is then calculated as the ratio of EER to CER, which is 0.6.
Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials
Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.
To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 14-month-old baby boy receives his first MMR vaccine. If any side-effects occur, what are the most probable symptoms?
Your Answer: Malaise, fever and rash: occurs after 2-3 days and lasts around 1-2 days
Correct Answer: Malaise, fever and rash: occurs after 5-10 days and lasts around 2-3 days
Explanation:MMR Vaccine: Information on Administration, Contraindications, and Adverse Effects
The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule for children.
However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.
While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, some adverse effects may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to note that the benefits of the MMR vaccine far outweigh the risks, as it protects against serious and potentially life-threatening diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with burns on the extensor aspects of his lower legs. He accidentally spilled hot water on himself while wearing shorts. Upon examination, he has pale, pink skin with small blisters forming. The burns are classified as superficial dermal burns. Using a chart, you calculate the TBSA of the burns. What is the minimum TBSA that would require immediate referral to the plastic surgeons?
Your Answer: 15%
Correct Answer: 3%
Explanation:First Aid and Management of Burns
Burns can be caused by heat, electricity, or chemicals. Immediate first aid involves removing the person from the source of the burn and irrigating the affected area with cool water. The extent of the burn can be assessed using Wallace’s Rule of Nines or the Lund and Browder chart. The depth of the burn can be determined by its appearance, with full-thickness burns being the most severe. Referral to secondary care is necessary for deep dermal and full-thickness burns, as well as burns involving certain areas of the body or suspicion of non-accidental injury.
Severe burns can lead to tissue loss, fluid loss, and a catabolic response. Intravenous fluids and analgesia are necessary for resuscitation and pain relief. Smoke inhalation can result in airway edema, and early intubation may be necessary. Circumferential burns may require escharotomy to relieve compartment syndrome and improve ventilation. Conservative management is appropriate for superficial burns, while more complex burns may require excision and skin grafting. There is no evidence to support the use of antimicrobial prophylaxis or topical antibiotics in burn patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 94-year-old woman is receiving visits from district nurses. She has recently developed a grade 2 pressure ulcer on her left buttock which is causing her discomfort. Upon examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, there are no indications of cellulitis, and there is no discharge. The skin surrounding the ulcer is red but not hot to the touch.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient based on her symptoms?Your Answer: Wound dressing, Analgesia, Oral Antibiotics, Nutritional assessment
Correct Answer: Wound dressing, Analgesia, Nutritional assessment
Explanation:When treating pressure ulcers, antibiotics should only be used if there are signs of infection, rather than being routinely prescribed. This is important to consider for an elderly patient with a grade 2 pressure ulcer on their right buttock. Management of pressure ulcers should include wound dressings, appropriate pain relief, and a nutritional assessment. NICE recommends that all patients with pressure ulcers receive a nutritional assessment from a healthcare professional with the necessary skills. Antibiotics should only be used in cases where there is evidence of systemic sepsis, spreading cellulitis, or underlying osteomyelitis. As this patient has a normal temperature and no signs of infection in the wound, oral or IV antibiotics are not necessary.
Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management
Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.
The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.
To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 55-year-old man with osteoarthritis. His symptoms are not adequately managed with regular paracetamol and a topical NSAID. During your discussion of treatment options, he mentions experiencing constipation with previous use of opioid analgesics. As a result, you decide to initiate a brief course of oral anti-inflammatory therapy on an as-needed basis. What is the most suitable initial NSAID to recommend for this patient?
Your Answer: Naproxen 500 mgs BD
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen 400 mg TDS
Explanation:NSAIDs and COX-2 Inhibitors: Balancing Thrombotic and GI Risks
Cyclo-oxygenase-2 selective inhibitors (COX-2 inhibitors) and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief, but they carry different risks. COX-2 inhibitors have an increased risk of thrombotic events, while all NSAIDs are associated with potential serious gastrointestinal (GI) problems. However, there is variation in risk among different NSAIDs.
Diclofenac at high doses and high dose ibuprofen are linked with an increased thrombotic risk, while naproxen and lower doses of ibuprofen have not been shown to increase the risk of myocardial infarction. In terms of GI toxicity, azapropazone has the highest risk, ibuprofen the lowest, and naproxen and diclofenac are intermediate. Selective COX-2 inhibitors provide the lowest risk of serious GI toxicity.
When choosing a pain reliever, the specific indication and patient factors should be considered. Etoricoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, should only be used if a specific indication to avoid a traditional NSAID is present. Ketorolac is licensed for short-term management of postoperative pain. The doses of diclofenac given in the options increase the risk of thrombotic events. The naproxen and ibuprofen doses given provide the lowest thrombotic risk, but ibuprofen has a better GI safety profile and is the cheapest option. Gastroprotection, such as proton-pump inhibitors, should also be considered based on patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic with persistent irregular per vaginal bleeding after starting the progesterone only pill 3 months ago. She reports having her last menstrual period 1 week ago and denies any abdominal pain or abnormal per vaginal discharge. A urine pregnancy test was negative. On examination, her heart rate is 65 beats per minute, blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg, and she is afebrile. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender.
As a male GP, you are faced with the dilemma of performing a speculum examination without a suitable chaperone. The patient declines the only available chaperone, a female receptionist whom she has previously made a complaint against. What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Arrange an urgent admission under gynaecology for speculum examination
Correct Answer: Defer the speculum examination to the following day, when the patient can be seen by a female GP
Explanation:If a patient refuses a chaperone for an intimate examination and you are not comfortable performing the examination without one, it is necessary to make alternative arrangements for the patient to be examined.
As per the current guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare, a speculum examination is necessary for a patient who has been experiencing problematic per vaginal bleeding with hormonal contraception for more than three months. It is crucial to examine and visualize the cervix. However, in this case, the patient has declined a male chaperone, making it a challenging situation.
While referring the patient to another service for the examination is an option, it is not appropriate for an urgent same-day admission as this is a longstanding problem. Additionally, some accident and emergency departments may not be comfortable performing speculum examinations and would refer the patient to the gynaecology department if necessary.
Referring the patient to the two-week wait clinic without examining is not appropriate as the referral may not be necessary.
Continuing with the examination without a chaperone is not advisable, especially if the clinician is uncomfortable doing so, as there is no indication of an emergency presentation.
Proceeding with the examination with a female receptionist chaperoning is not recommended as the patient has declined this and has the capacity to do so. This would be without her consent.
The most appropriate course of action would be to arrange for a suitable colleague to examine the patient the following day. As there is no indication of an acute emergency or evidence of ectopic pregnancy, deferring the examination to the following day is entirely appropriate.
GMC Guidelines on Intimate Examinations and Chaperones
The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided comprehensive guidance on how to conduct intimate examinations and the role of chaperones in the process. Intimate examinations refer to any procedure that a patient may consider intrusive or intimate, such as examinations of the genitalia, rectum, and breasts. Before performing such an examination, doctors must obtain informed consent from the patient, explaining the procedure, its purpose, and the extent of exposure required. During the examination, doctors should only speak if necessary, and patients have the right to stop the examination at any point.
Chaperones are impartial individuals who offer support to patients during intimate examinations and observe the procedure to ensure that it is conducted professionally. They should be healthcare workers who have no relation to the patient or doctor, and their full name and role should be documented in the medical records. Patients may also wish to have family members present for support, but they cannot act as chaperones as they are not impartial. Doctors should not feel pressured to perform an examination without a chaperone if they are uncomfortable doing so. In such cases, they should refer the patient to a colleague who is comfortable with the examination.
It is not mandatory to have a chaperone present during an intimate examination, and patients may refuse one. However, the offer and refusal of a chaperone should be documented in the medical records. If a patient makes any allegations against the doctor regarding the examination, the chaperone can be called upon as a witness. In cases where a patient refuses a chaperone, doctors should explain the reasons for offering one and refer the patient to another service if necessary. The GMC guidelines aim to ensure that intimate examinations are conducted with sensitivity, respect, and professionalism, while also protecting the interests of both patients and doctors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A new drug is released for use in elderly patients. Premarketing trials did not show any serious side-effects of the drug. Select from the list the most appropriate method for identifying any unanticipated adverse drug reactions.
Your Answer: Randomised controlled trial
Correct Answer: Case report
Explanation:The Yellow Card Scheme: Reporting Adverse Drug Reactions
Before a drug is released to the general public, it undergoes trials to assess its effectiveness and safety. However, these trials may only involve a limited number of patients, which means that rare side effects may not be identified. To address this issue, the Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) and the Commission on Human Medicines (CHM) in the UK operate the Yellow Card Scheme.
The Yellow Card Scheme is a system that collects information from both health professionals and the general public on suspected side effects of a medicine. Its success depends on people’s willingness to report adverse drug reactions. This scheme is particularly useful for identifying rare or long-term side effects of a drug, as the number of people taking the drug is much greater than in the trials.
To report a suspected adverse drug reaction, individuals can fill out a Yellow Card online at http://yellowcard.mhra.gov.uk/. By reporting these reactions, individuals can help ensure the safety of drugs on the market and protect the health of the public.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 21
Correct
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A 27-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with complaints of lower back pain and pain and weakness in his lower limbs. He reports that his symptoms have been getting worse for the past five days. About three weeks ago, he had Campylobacter gastroenteritis.
During the examination, the doctor observes diminished or absent reflexes in the legs and hypotonia. The patient's pain and light-touch sensations are also reduced.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)
Explanation:Neurological Disorders: Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Myasthenia Gravis, Multiple Sclerosis, Polymyositis, and Spinal Cord Compression
Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a neurological disorder that causes demyelination and axonal degeneration, resulting in acute, ascending, and progressive neuropathy. It typically presents with symmetrical weakness starting in the lower extremities and may progress to respiratory failure in severe cases. Treatment involves plasma exchange or immunoglobulins and intravenous methylprednisolone, but approximately 20% of patients may experience residual disability and 10% may die from complications.
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is another neurological disorder that causes weakness, but it is characterized by fatigability and doesn’t involve sensory changes. Symptoms range from mild weakness of limited muscle groups to severe weakness of multiple muscle groups.
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a disorder that classically presents with symptoms and signs separated by time and space. Transverse myelitis can occur, resulting in acute weakness or paralysis of both legs, sensory loss, and loss of control of the bowels and bladder.
Polymyositis is a disorder characterized by muscle weakness that starts proximally and progresses over a period of weeks to months. While it may cause muscle aches, it would not normally cause sensory changes.
Symptoms suggestive of spinal cord compression include back pain, paralysis, decreased sensation below the level of compression, and urinary and fecal incontinence or retention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with ulcerative colitis and chronic lower back pain presents with a complaint of a red painful eye. What is the most probable feature that will be observed during the examination?
Your Answer: A dilated pupil
Correct Answer: Photophobia on ophthalmoscopy
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of HLA-B27 Associated Uveitis
HLA-B27 associated uveitis is a condition that affects the eyes and is associated with several symptoms. One of the most common symptoms is photophobia, which is a sensitivity to light that can cause discomfort and pain. Other symptoms include ocular injection, miosis (due to ciliary spasm), normal or near-normal visual acuity, and a normal fundus.
While retinal and vitreous haemorrhages have been reported with severe uveitis, retinal haemorrhages are not a common symptom. Additionally, a dilated pupil is not typically associated with uveitis, as a small pupil is more common in acute anterior uveitis. Chronic uveitis may cause irregular-shaped pupils due to the presence of synechiae.
Profound visual loss is not a common symptom of uveitis, although some blurring of vision may occur with anterior uveitis. More severe loss of vision can occur with posterior uveitis and panuveitis. Finally, purulent discharge is not a symptom of uveitis, as it is typically associated with conjunctivitis.
Overall, understanding the symptoms of HLA-B27 associated uveitis can help individuals recognize the condition and seek appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 23
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for her 6-week postpartum follow-up. She is exclusively breastfeeding and has not had a menstrual period yet. She has heard about using lactational amenorrhoea as a form of contraception and wants to know more about its effectiveness. Assuming she is fully breastfeeding, under 6 months postpartum, and has not yet had a period, what is the approximate efficacy of the lactational amenorrhoea method of contraception?
Your Answer: 98%
Explanation:If a woman is fully or almost fully breastfeeding, under 6 months postpartum, and not experiencing periods yet, lactational amenorrhoea can be a highly effective form of contraception. The UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use (UKMEC) recommends that if these conditions are met, there may be no need for an alternative contraceptive method at this time.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.
The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman comes in for follow-up after a laparoscopic appendectomy that went smoothly. She reports feeling fine and has no issues to report. During the examination, linear, clearly defined abrasions are observed on her forearms and scalp. The patient appears unconcerned about these lesions and has a history of severe anxiety and depression. A punch biopsy is performed, which reveals nonspecific results.
What could be the probable reason for these symptoms?Your Answer: Lichen planus
Correct Answer: Dermatitis artefacta
Explanation:The sudden appearance of linear, well-defined skin lesions with a lack of concern from the patient may indicate dermatitis artefacta, a condition where the lesions are self-inflicted. A punch biopsy has ruled out other potential causes, and the patient’s history of psychiatric disorders supports this diagnosis. Atopic dermatitis is a possibility, but typically presents with additional symptoms such as pruritus and scaly erythematous plaques. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma cannot be ruled out without a biopsy, and lichen planus is unlikely due to the patient’s lack of distress from pruritus.
Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta
Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.
Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.
Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.
Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.
In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with insulin-dependent type 2 diabetes mellitus has visited his GP after experiencing his second severe hypoglycaemic episode. During both episodes, he had limited awareness and required his wife to administer glucose gel. He currently holds a group 1 driving licence. What advice should be given regarding his ability to drive?
Your Answer: Check his blood glucose no less than two hours before starting to drive and every two hours during the journey
Correct Answer: Stop driving immediately and inform the DVLA
Explanation:Individuals with diabetes who have experienced two episodes of hypoglycemia requiring assistance are required to relinquish their driving license.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A circumstance in which a subject in a research project alters their behavior due to the awareness of being monitored is referred to as what?
Your Answer: Simpson's paradox
Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect
Explanation:Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of the following causes of pneumonia is most commonly linked with the onset of erythema multiforme major?
Your Answer: Mycoplasma
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Multiforme
Erythema multiforme is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that is commonly triggered by infections. It can be classified into two forms, minor and major. Previously, Stevens-Johnson syndrome was thought to be a severe form of erythema multiforme, but they are now considered separate entities.
The features of erythema multiforme include target lesions that initially appear on the back of the hands or feet before spreading to the torso. The upper limbs are more commonly affected than the lower limbs, and pruritus, or mild itching, may occasionally be present.
The causes of erythema multiforme can include viruses such as herpes simplex virus, bacteria like Mycoplasma and Streptococcus, drugs such as penicillin and NSAIDs, and connective tissue diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus. Malignancy and sarcoidosis can also be underlying causes.
Erythema multiforme major is the more severe form of the condition and is associated with mucosal involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Correct
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You received a letter from the ophthalmology department regarding Mrs. Patel, an 80-year-old woman who has been listed for cataract surgery. They report that her blood pressure (BP) is raised at 156/94 mmHg and ask you to follow this up, as her BP needs to be well controlled before the operation will be performed.
You have a look at her medication list and see she is already on amlodipine 5mg, losartan 50 mg, and hydrochlorothiazide 12.5mg.
Her most recent renal profile is below.
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 82 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Assuming she is compliant with her medications, what is the next treatment step for her hypertension?Your Answer: Alpha-blocker or beta-blocker
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic with a potassium level greater than 4.5mmol/L, the recommended 4th-line option is to add an alpha- or beta-blocker. It is important to check for postural hypotension and confirm the elevated clinic reading with home/ambulatory BP monitoring for patients with resistant hypertension. Combining an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor with an angiotensin II receptor blocker, such as candesartan, is not recommended. There is no need to switch patients who are already taking bendroflumethiazide to indapamide. Referral to cardiology would be appropriate if the patient remains uncontrolled on the maximum tolerated dose of a 4th antihypertensive.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 29
Correct
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Four middle-aged patients returned from a trip to Spain with symptoms of cough, fever, and general malaise. They had traveled with a group of 60 people and participated in activities such as hiking in the mountains and swimming in rivers. The group stayed in various hotels, but the four patients who fell ill all stayed in the same hotel. Based on this information, what is the most probable organism responsible for their illness?
Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Legionnaires’ Disease: A Deadly Outbreak
Legionnaires’ disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila. The condition was first described in a veterans’ legion conference, where a group of attendees became ill with similar symptoms. The disease is often linked to contaminated air conditioning units, which can spread the bacteria through the air.
Symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease include fever, cough, shortness of breath, muscle aches, and headaches. In severe cases, the disease can lead to respiratory failure, septic shock, and even death. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you experience any of these symptoms, especially if you have been exposed to a potential source of Legionella bacteria.
It is important to note that Weil’s disease and Lyme disease are unlikely to be the cause of the symptoms described in this scenario. Weil’s disease is caused by a different type of bacteria, while Lyme disease is transmitted by ticks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 30
Correct
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An 80-year-old lady came to the clinic complaining of a one day history of right temporal headache, jaw claudication, fever and reduced appetite. She stated that her vision had not worsened.
Upon examination, there was tenderness on palpation of the right scalp at the temporal region and the right temporal artery was palpable and hard. The patient's visual acuity was 6/6 on both eyes according to the Snellen chart.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Start the patient on oral prednisolone
Explanation:Giant Cell Temporal Arteritis: Urgent Management Required
This patient’s history strongly suggests giant cell temporal arteritis (GCA), a medical emergency that requires urgent management. While ophthalmologists may be involved in the management of GCA, their involvement is only necessary if the condition is affecting the patient’s vision. In this scenario, the patient’s vision is not affected.
The recommended course of action is to start the patient on 40-60mg of prednisolone per day (for patients without visual symptoms) and refer them urgently to a physician, typically a Rheumatologist. It is important to note that national guidance should be followed, rather than local variations, when assessing patients in an exam setting. Shared care is recommended, and patients may require treatment for several years.
In addition to steroids, aspirin and PPIs are recommended. However, long-term treatment with oral steroids can increase the risk of osteoporosis, which should be assessed. For more information on national guidance and associated information, CKS provides a comprehensive summary of GCA management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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