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Question 1
Correct
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A mother brings in her four-week-old baby for review. She has noticed that the baby's eyes have been watering a lot over the last few days. She describes clear fluid running out of both eyes. The baby was born at term by vaginal delivery and is doing well. On examination, the baby's sclerae are white, corneas are clear, and red reflex is present bilaterally. The conjunctiva is not inflamed and there is no purulent discharge.
What is the most probable reason for the baby's watery eyes?Your Answer: Delayed development of the nasolacrimal ducts
Explanation:Babies often experience watery eyes due to the delayed development of their nasolacrimal ducts. This typically occurs 1-2 weeks after birth when tear production begins. Instead of draining properly, tears overflow and run out of the eye. Fortunately, this condition usually resolves by the time the baby reaches 12 months of age. Massaging the side of the nose gently can help to open the nasolacrimal duct. It is rare for babies to experience allergic conjunctivitis, which would involve inflammation of the conjunctiva. Watery eyes are not a symptom of amblyopia, although squinting is common in young babies and should be monitored until it resolves by 4 months of age. Ophthalmia neonatorum, on the other hand, causes severe conjunctivitis with eyelid swelling and purulent discharge.
Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants
Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that causes persistent watery eyes in infants. It occurs when there is an imperforate membrane, usually at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. This condition affects around 1 in 10 infants, with symptoms typically appearing at around one month of age.
Fortunately, nasolacrimal duct obstruction can be managed with simple techniques. Parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct, which can help to alleviate symptoms. In fact, around 95% of cases resolve on their own by the time the child reaches one year of age.
However, in cases where symptoms persist beyond this point, it may be necessary to seek further medical intervention. In such cases, it is recommended to refer the child to an ophthalmologist for consideration of probing. This procedure is typically done under a light general anaesthetic and can help to resolve any remaining issues with the nasolacrimal duct.
Overall, while nasolacrimal duct obstruction can be concerning for parents, it is a manageable condition that typically resolves on its own. By understanding the causes and treatment options for this condition, parents can help to ensure their child’s eyes stay healthy and comfortable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents to your clinic with a red eye. She complains of gradual onset of one-sided redness with severe, boring pain that radiates to her forehead. The pain worsens with eye movements and disrupts her sleep. She also experiences watering of the eye and sensitivity to light, but her vision is unaffected. She has no prior history of this condition and is generally healthy. Upon examination, her visual acuity is normal, but her left eye shows diffuse redness and tenderness. Both pupils react normally. What is the next appropriate step in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Same day specialist assessment
Explanation:The patient has red eye and a working diagnosis of scleritis, which requires a same day specialist assessment. Features of serious causes of red eye include moderate to severe eye pain or photophobia, marked redness of one eye, and reduced visual acuity. Oral cetirizine may be useful in allergic conjunctivitis, while chloramphenicol drops are used in severe infective conjunctivitis. Fusidic acid drops are an alternative treatment option for infective conjunctivitis. Episcleritis is a possible differential diagnosis but is unlikely due to the patient’s severe pain.
Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. Some causes of red eye require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Here are some key distinguishing features of different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and a semi-dilated pupil. The patient may also see haloes and have a hazy cornea.
Anterior uveitis has an acute onset and is accompanied by pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may be worse on movement. It may be associated with an underlying autoimmune disease such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is characterized by purulent discharge, while viral conjunctivitis has a clear discharge.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and is characterized by a red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 3
Correct
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a swollen lower right eyelid. He complains of a gritty sensation in his eye, but now he is experiencing pain and blurred vision. Upon examination, the right eyelid is inflamed, red, and has crusted margins. The patient's left eye has reduced visual acuity. The doctor suspects blepharitis.
As per the latest NICE CKS recommendations, what would be the subsequent appropriate steps for managing this condition?Your Answer: Refer for same-day ophthalmology assessment
Explanation:If a patient with blepharitis experiences symptoms of corneal disease, such as blurred vision and pain, they should be referred for ophthalmological assessment on the same day, as per the current NICE CKS guidance. Other reasons for referral include sudden onset visual loss, acute redness and pain in the eye, persistent localized disease despite optimal primary care treatment, obvious eyelid margin asymmetry or deformities, deterioration in vision, associated cellulitis, associated conditions like Sjögren’s syndrome, or diagnostic uncertainty.
Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues such as blepharitis, styes, chalazions, entropion, and ectropion. Blepharitis is an inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Styes are infections that occur in the glands of the eyelids, with external styes affecting the sebum-producing glands and internal styes affecting the Meibomian glands. Chalazions, also known as Meibomian cysts, are retention cysts that present as painless lumps in the eyelid. While most cases of chalazions resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.
When it comes to managing styes, there are different types to consider. External styes are usually caused by a staphylococcal infection in the glands of Zeis or Moll, while internal styes are caused by an infection in the Meibomian glands. Treatment typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only recommended if there is an associated conjunctivitis.
Overall, eyelid problems can be uncomfortable and even painful, but with proper management and treatment, they can be resolved effectively. It’s important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old teacher presents to the out-of-hours General Practice with complaints of conjunctivitis. She wears contact lenses. She has been using over-the-counter Brolene® drops for the last two days to try to treat the problem herself, but now finds her vision blurred in the affected eye. On examination, she has florid keratoconjunctivitis and visual acuity of 6/36 in her affected eye. Fluorescein stain is taken up centrally.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Corneal ulcer
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Unilateral Eye Condition
One possible diagnosis for a patient with a unilateral eye condition is a corneal ulcer, which can be caused by contact lens use and may lead to serious complications if left untreated. However, other conditions should also be considered. Viral conjunctivitis, which is typically bilateral and accompanied by copious discharge, may follow a viral upper respiratory tract infection. Chlamydial conjunctivitis, on the other hand, is not usually unilateral and doesn’t involve fluorescein uptake. A dendritic ulcer, caused by herpes simplex virus, is characterized by small branching epithelial dendrites and doesn’t exhibit central fluorescein uptake. Finally, a foreign body may cause similar symptoms, but would typically be visible upon examination and not involve central fluorescein staining. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat a patient’s eye condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents with an acutely painful red left eye. She denies any history of foreign body injury and has had no coryzal symptoms. There is a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus which is currently controlled with hydroxychloroquine. The patient is afebrile and examination reveals an erythematous injected sclera with a bluish hue. The pupils are equal and reactive and the visual acuity is maintained bilaterally. There is no significant discharge noted.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma
Correct Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:Based on the patient’s history of autoimmune disease, severe pain and redness in the eye, and bluish hue, it is likely that they are experiencing scleritis. This is a serious condition that requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist. Episcleritis, which is less severe and typically painless, can be ruled out due to the patient’s symptoms. Acute angle closure glaucoma is also a possibility, but the patient’s clear and reactive pupils suggest otherwise. It is important to check the intraocular pressure to rule out glaucoma. While a foreign body injury is a potential cause of eye pain and redness, the lack of a history of eye injury and absence of discharge make this diagnosis less likely.
Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Other common symptoms include watering and photophobia, which is sensitivity to light. In some cases, scleritis can also lead to a gradual decrease in vision.
Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady, who has a history of hay fever, visited your clinic complaining of bilateral itchy, watery, and red eyes that have been bothering her for the past three days. She reported no discharge and no changes in her vision. You prescribed topical ocular mast cell stabilizers, but she returned two days later, stating that her symptoms have not improved. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Refer to an ophthalmologist
Correct Answer: Continue with the same treatment
Explanation:Vernal Conjunctivitis and Treatment Options
A patient with a history of hay fever who presents with itchy, red, and watery eyes may be suffering from vernal conjunctivitis, which is often associated with hay fever or atopy. In such cases, topical mast cell stabilizers are a good option for treatment. However, it is important to inform the patient that the drops may not take immediate effect and may take a few days to work. Ocular topical antibiotics would not be appropriate for vernal conjunctivitis. If the condition worsens despite treatment, ophthalmology referral should be considered. It is important to note that vernal conjunctivitis is a chronic condition that requires long-term management, and patients should be advised accordingly. By providing appropriate treatment and advice, clinicians can help patients manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 7
Correct
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Each one of the following is typical of optic neuritis, except:
Your Answer: Sudden onset of visual loss
Explanation:It is rare for optic neuritis to cause sudden visual loss, as the typical progression of visual loss occurs over a period of days rather than hours.
Understanding Optic Neuritis: Causes, Features, Investigation, Management, and Prognosis
Optic neuritis is a condition that causes a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days. It is often associated with multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. Other features of optic neuritis include poor discrimination of colors, pain that worsens with eye movement, relative afferent pupillary defect, and central scotoma.
To diagnose optic neuritis, an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast is usually performed. High-dose steroids are the primary treatment for optic neuritis, and recovery typically takes 4-6 weeks.
The prognosis for optic neuritis is dependent on the number of white-matter lesions found on an MRI. If there are more than three lesions, the five-year risk of developing multiple sclerosis is approximately 50%. Understanding the causes, features, investigation, management, and prognosis of optic neuritis is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the most common visual field defect associated with multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer: Increased blind spot
Correct Answer: Central scotoma
Explanation:Visual Field Defects and Their Causes
Central scotoma is a condition where there is a reduced vision in the central area, which can interfere with daily activities such as reading and driving. This condition is often caused by a lesion between the optic nerve head and the chiasm and is commonly associated with retrobulbar neuritis and optic atrophy.
Tunnel vision, on the other hand, is a condition where there is a loss of peripheral vision, resulting in a narrow field of vision. This condition is often seen in patients with glaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, and those who have undergone retinal panphotocoagulation.
Papilloedema, which is an increase in pressure around the optic nerve, can cause an increased blind spot, which may lead to optic atrophy. Finally, optic chiasma compression can cause bitemporal hemianopia, which is a condition where there is a loss of vision in both temporal fields. Understanding these visual field defects and their causes is crucial in diagnosing and treating patients with visual impairments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 9
Correct
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A 75-year-old Caucasian lady comes to the clinic with a complaint of left vision becoming wavy and blurry for the past week. She reports that her venetian blinds appear distorted with her left eye. She has no other medical issues. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Urgent ophthalmology referral
Explanation:Macular Degeneration: A Common Cause of Distorted Vision in Elderly Patients
An elderly patient complaining of wavy distorted vision should raise suspicion of macular degeneration, a common age-related eye condition. There are two types of macular degeneration: dry and wet. Unfortunately, there is no treatment for the dry type, but patients can be advised on good lighting and the use of magnifying glasses to aid their vision. However, patients should be aware that there is a 10% chance of the dry type converting into the more aggressive wet type.
The wet type of macular degeneration can be treated with anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) injections, which are given directly into the eye. This treatment aims to stabilize the condition and prevent further loss of central vision. While it is not a cure, a large minority of patients may experience some improvement in their vision. Therefore, it is crucial to refer patients with suspected macular degeneration to an ophthalmologist urgently, as delays may impact the prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a factor that increases the risk of primary open-angle glaucoma?
Your Answer: Family history
Correct Answer: Hypermetropia
Explanation:Hypermetropia is linked to acute angle closure glaucoma, while myopia is linked to primary open-angle glaucoma.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris doesn’t cover the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals, with up to 10% of those over 80 years of age affected. Genetics, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, myopia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and corticosteroid use are all risk factors for POAG. POAG may present with peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping, which can be detected during routine optometry appointments.
Fundoscopy signs of POAG include optic disc cupping, optic disc pallor, bayonetting of vessels, and cup notching. Optic disc cupping occurs when the cup-to-disc ratio is greater than 0.7, indicating a loss of disc substance. Optic disc pallor indicates optic atrophy, while bayonetting of vessels occurs when vessels have breaks as they disappear into the deep cup and reappear at the base. Cup notching usually occurs inferiorly where vessels enter the disc, and disc haemorrhages may also be present.
The diagnosis of POAG is made through a series of investigations, including automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy. If POAG is suspected, referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for further evaluation and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about conditions that affect the eyelids is true?
Your Answer: Bell’s palsy resolves completely
Correct Answer: Chlamydial infections may cause entropion
Explanation:Common Misconceptions about Eye Conditions
Entropion and Chlamydial Infections: Contrary to popular belief, entropion is not usually caused by scarring below the eye, but rather by weakness of the small muscles around the eyelid, which is more common in older individuals. Additionally, chlamydial infections may cause entropion, but it is typically associated with trachoma, not inclusion conjunctivitis.
Bell’s Palsy and Facial Nerve Palsy: Bell’s palsy doesn’t always resolve completely, and some patients may experience long-term sequelae such as facial asymmetry and drooling of saliva. Facial nerve palsy doesn’t cause an inability to open the eyes fully, but rather poor eyelid closure, which may require surgery.
Ptosis: Ptosis can be congenital or acquired, and the most common cause of congenital ptosis is myogenic, not neurogenic. Acquired ptosis is usually due to aponeurotic causes, such as involution with age or a disinsertion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 12
Correct
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A 44-year-old man comes to your clinic with a complaint of diplopia on left, right and down gaze for the past three months. He reports that this symptom worsens towards the end of the day. Additionally, he mentions that his family members have noticed that his speech has become more slurred over the last three months. He also reports difficulty drinking water over the past month. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this man's condition?
Your Answer: Referral to a physician urgently
Explanation:Myasthenia: A Medical Emergency
This case presents with diplopia that worsens towards the end of the day, without following any pattern of cranial nerve palsies. This suggests fatigue and raises the possibility of myasthenia. The patient also experiences slurring speech and difficulties in swallowing, indicating that the extraocular muscles and bulbar function are affected.
Myasthenia is a medical emergency that requires urgent referral to a physician or neurologist for further investigations and treatment. Failure to do so may result in aspiration pneumonia, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, prompt action is necessary to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for his annual review and is found to have new vessel formation at the optic disc. His visual acuity in both eyes is unaffected (6/9) and his blood pressure is 155/84 mmHg. His HbA1c level is 68 mmol/mol (8.4%). What is the primary intervention that should be taken for this patient?
Your Answer: Follow-up ophthalmoscopy in 3 months
Correct Answer: Laser therapy
Explanation:An ophthalmologist should be urgently referred for panretinal photocoagulation as the patient is suffering from proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in adults aged 35-65 years-old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls, causing damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage leads to increased vascular permeability, which causes exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovasculization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischaemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are typically classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularisation, which may lead to vitreous haemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. For maculopathy, intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors are used if there is a change in visual acuity. Non-proliferative retinopathy is managed through regular observation, while severe/very severe cases may require panretinal laser photocoagulation. Proliferative retinopathy is treated with panretinal laser photocoagulation, intravitreal VEGF inhibitors, and vitreoretinal surgery in severe or vitreous haemorrhage cases. Examples of VEGF inhibitors include ranibizumab, which has a strong evidence base for slowing the progression of proliferative diabetic retinopathy and improving visual acuity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 14
Correct
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A 55-year-old man has recently joined the practice after moving with his job from another region. He reports experiencing deteriorating vision and struggles with mobility, particularly at night. He was previously diagnosed with retinitis pigmentosa. During the examination, he wears thick glasses, and his visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes (meaning he can read most of the Snellen chart). What is the most suitable management option? Choose ONE option only.
Your Answer: Refer to Ophthalmology for an assessment
Explanation:Understanding Retinitis Pigmentosa: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Retinitis pigmentosa is a hereditary condition that affects the photoreceptor and retinal pigment epithelium, leading to impaired night vision, constricted visual fields, and reduced visual acuity. The condition typically manifests between the ages of 10 and 30, with retinal hyperpigmentation in a bone-spicule configuration being a characteristic finding. While there is currently no cure for retinitis pigmentosa, referral to an ophthalmologist is advisable to monitor for exacerbating factors such as cataract, glaucoma, and cystic macular edema. It is important to note that peripheral vision is lost first, and any loss of central vision tends to occur later. Patients may be registered as partially sighted and put in touch with social services for low visual aids. Optometrists may not be able to improve vision beyond the best possible with lenses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male presents to your clinic with a painful, red left eye that has been bothering him for the past week. He denies any history of trauma to the eye, but the pain has been progressively worsening. The pain is exacerbated by eye movement and he is experiencing photophobia. He also reports a possible decrease in vision in the affected eye. The patient has no significant medical history.
Upon examination, the left eye appears diffusely red and is tearing. Visual acuity is decreased in the left eye, but there are no abnormalities on staining. The left pupil reaction is slower than the right, but the shape appears normal. The anterior chamber appears normal.
What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Topical ganciclovir and urgent referral to ophthalmology
Correct Answer: Same day urgent referral to an ophthalmologist
Explanation:Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Other common symptoms include watering and photophobia, which is sensitivity to light. In some cases, scleritis can also lead to a gradual decrease in vision.
Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a painful and red left eye. She denies any recent trauma to the eye but reports seeing floaters and experiencing discomfort when moving her eye. She also notes blurred vision. This is the fourth time she has experienced these symptoms.
Upon examination, the left eye appears red and the pupil is irregular. The patient's visual acuity is slightly worse in the left eye compared to the right. Corneal staining reveals no abnormalities, but there are some cells present in the anterior chamber.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient, and what is the recommended management plan?Your Answer: Prescribe chloramphenicol eye drops and arrange same day assessment at eye casualty
Correct Answer: Arrange same day assessment in eye casualty
Explanation:If a patient displays symptoms consistent with anterior uveitis, such as a red and painful eye with reduced vision and flashes/floaters, urgent referral for assessment by an ophthalmologist on the same day is the most appropriate course of action. Anterior uveitis is characterized by inflammation in the anterior segment of the eye, with the presence of cells in the aqueous humour and an abnormally shaped or differently sized pupil compared to the unaffected eye. While the pain is not as severe as scleritis, prompt evaluation by a specialist is crucial for proper treatment.
Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man presents with left-sided shoulder pain. He has a medical history of hypertension, osteoarthritis, and COPD. During the examination, he shows good range of motion in the shoulder but experiences pain on the lateral aspect of the shoulder that radiates down to the upper arm and forearm. Additionally, he has some muscle wasting in his hand and a left-sided ptosis and miosis. What is the most suitable investigation to request next?
Your Answer: Nerve conduction studies
Correct Answer: Chest x ray
Explanation:Horner’s Syndrome and Shoulder Pain in a Patient with COPD
This patient with COPD, likely due to significant cigarette smoking, presents with shoulder pain, small muscle wasting in the hand, and Horner’s syndrome. These symptoms suggest a lesion affecting the cervical sympathetic plexus, which could be caused by an apical lung tumor invading the area. Therefore, an urgent chest x-ray should be requested to confirm the diagnosis of Pancoast’s syndrome.
In addition to Horner’s syndrome, the clinician should also be alert to the presence of a hoarse voice and bovine cough, which may indicate invasion of the recurrent laryngeal nerve and vocal cord paralysis. While brainstem disease can also cause Horner’s syndrome, CT or MRI scanning of the head would only be useful in such instances.
A plain film of the shoulder may reveal adjacent lung apex and reveal a tumor, but it is not designed to pick up chest pathology. Therefore, a chest x-ray is necessary based on the overall clinical picture. Syringomyelia can also cause Horner’s syndrome and wasting and weakness of the hands and arms, along with loss of pain and temperature sensation over the trunk and arms. An MRI scan can confirm this diagnosis. Nerve conduction studies have no role in this instance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents with sudden vision loss in her left eye. She has a history of severe rheumatoid arthritis and is currently on methotrexate, infliximab, and prednisolone. Over the past six weeks, she has been experiencing persistent headaches. Upon examination, bilateral papilloedema is observed, leading to a suspected diagnosis of intracranial hypertension. What is the most probable cause of the intracranial hypertension?
Your Answer: Infliximab
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:The cause of the patient’s intracranial hypertension is likely due to the use of prednisolone. If the optic nerve becomes compressed, sudden loss of vision may occur.
Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.
There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.
Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.
It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old diabetic man is seen in the Diabetes Clinic with decreased visual acuity. When referred to the Eye Clinic, the Ophthalmologist inquires about the patient's risk factors for macular edema.
What is the most significant risk factor? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: Hypercholesterolaemia
Correct Answer: Proteinuria
Explanation:Factors Associated with Macular Edema in Diabetes
In diabetes, macular edema is a common cause of visual loss and can result from various factors such as macular capillary non-perfusion, vitreous hemorrhage, and distortion or traction detachment of the retina. The severity of diabetic retinopathy, male gender, higher glycosylated hemoglobin, proteinuria, higher systolic and diastolic blood pressure, and smoking history are all associated with a higher incidence of macular edema, according to The Wisconsin Epidemiologic Study of Diabetic Retinopathy.
Contrary to popular belief, low glycosylated hemoglobin is not associated with macular edema. However, hypercholesterolemia and other cardiovascular risk factors can influence the onset and progression of retinopathy and should be monitored. While peripheral vascular disease is a risk factor for diabetes, it is not directly associated with macular edema. Overall, understanding the factors associated with macular edema in diabetes can help healthcare professionals identify and manage patients at risk for this complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 20
Correct
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An 80-year-old lady came to the clinic complaining of a one day history of right temporal headache, jaw claudication, fever and reduced appetite. She stated that her vision had not worsened.
Upon examination, there was tenderness on palpation of the right scalp at the temporal region and the right temporal artery was palpable and hard. The patient's visual acuity was 6/6 on both eyes according to the Snellen chart.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Start the patient on oral prednisolone
Explanation:Giant Cell Temporal Arteritis: Urgent Management Required
This patient’s history strongly suggests giant cell temporal arteritis (GCA), a medical emergency that requires urgent management. While ophthalmologists may be involved in the management of GCA, their involvement is only necessary if the condition is affecting the patient’s vision. In this scenario, the patient’s vision is not affected.
The recommended course of action is to start the patient on 40-60mg of prednisolone per day (for patients without visual symptoms) and refer them urgently to a physician, typically a Rheumatologist. It is important to note that national guidance should be followed, rather than local variations, when assessing patients in an exam setting. Shared care is recommended, and patients may require treatment for several years.
In addition to steroids, aspirin and PPIs are recommended. However, long-term treatment with oral steroids can increase the risk of osteoporosis, which should be assessed. For more information on national guidance and associated information, CKS provides a comprehensive summary of GCA management.
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- Eyes And Vision
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