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  • Question 1 - A 63-year-old male had routine bloods done. He is a known type 2...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old male had routine bloods done. He is a known type 2 diabetic and takes metformin 500mg BD and atorvastatin 20 mg ON. His blood results showed cholesterol at 7.2 mmol/L with raised triglycerides. His Hba1c increased from 72 mmol/L three months ago to 81 mmol/L currently. His urea and electrolytes are stable. He reports no significant changes in his diet and is compliant with his medications.

      What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his medication regimen?

      Your Answer: Increase metformin to 500mg TDS and repeat bloods in three months

      Explanation:

      To manage hyperlipidaemia, it is important to address any accompanying hyperglycaemia. The patient’s abnormal cholesterol levels could be a result of his deteriorating diabetic condition. Therefore, the best course of action would be to maintain the current statin dosage and adjust the metformin dosage accordingly. By treating the hyperglycaemia, there is a possibility of improving the patient’s cholesterol levels.

      Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines

      Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      37
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  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old man presents with a rash on his penis. He reports having...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a rash on his penis. He reports having the rash on his glans penis for approximately 6 months, with no growth and no associated itching, pain, or discharge. He is in good health otherwise.

      During the examination, a well-defined, shiny, moist, orange-red plaque is observed on the glans penis. Pin-point red lesions are present within and surrounding the lesion. The patient is uncircumcised.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Zoon's balanitis

      Explanation:

      Zoon’s balanitis is a benign condition affecting uncircumcised men, presenting with orange-red lesions with pinpoint redder spots on the glans and adjacent areas of the foreskin. It may be secondary to other conditions such as lichen sclerosus or erythroplasia of Queyrat. Differential diagnoses include lichen sclerosus, seborrhoeic dermatitis, and psoriasis.

      Understanding Zoon’s Balanitis

      Zoon’s balanitis, also known as plasma cell balanitis, is a chronic condition that affects the head of the penis. It is commonly seen in middle-aged or elderly men who are not circumcised. The condition is characterized by erythematous, well-defined, and shiny patches that appear on the head of the penis.

      Although Zoon’s balanitis is generally benign, a biopsy may be necessary to rule out other possible diagnoses. Circumcision is often the most effective treatment for this condition. However, carbon dioxide laser therapy and topical corticosteroids may also be used to manage the symptoms.

      In summary, Zoon’s balanitis is a chronic condition that affects the head of the penis. It is typically seen in older men who are not circumcised. While circumcision is the most effective treatment, other options such as laser therapy and topical corticosteroids may also be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      28.1
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  • Question 3 - A 5-year-old boy presents with a history of poor urinary stream. He has...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy presents with a history of poor urinary stream. He has no other obvious abnormalities.
      Select the single investigation from this list that would be most helpful in this case.

      Your Answer: Micturating cystourethrography

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Urinary Tract Obstruction in Children

      Urinary tract obstruction in children can lead to a poor urinary stream, indicating a blockage in the urinary system. The most common cause of this condition in boys is posterior urethral valves (PUVs), which are folds of urothelium that obstruct the bladder. PUVs can range in severity, from life-threatening to asymptomatic, but can lead to end-stage renal disease in 30% of patients. Vesicoureteric reflux, the backward flow of urine from the bladder into the kidneys, is also common in PUV patients.

      Antenatal ultrasound has increased the diagnosis of PUVs, with most cases recognized during the second and third trimester. Delayed presentation can include urinary infection, enuresis, voiding pain or dysfunction, and an abnormal urinary stream. Neurogenic bladder, caused by a birth defect involving the spinal cord, can also lead to urinary retention, leakage, and infection. Urethral calculi and strictures are less common causes of urinary tract obstruction in children, but should still be considered in the differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      21.5
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man presents with a painful and red right eye that started...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a painful and red right eye that started 10 days ago. He complains of a foreign body sensation but cannot recall any incident of something entering his eye. His eye is swollen and tearing, and he experiences blurred vision and light sensitivity. Despite washing his eye with water daily, there has been no improvement. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and hypertension and wears contact lenses regularly. He denies having a history of cold sores.

      During the examination, the patient's right eye appears diffusely red, and his visual acuity is slightly reduced. The pupil reaction is normal, but there is a small, circular area on the cornea that takes up the dye.

      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urgent, same day ophthalmology assessment

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms and signs that are consistent with a corneal ulcer, the most appropriate course of action is to urgently refer them to an ophthalmologist for assessment on the same day. Typically, a corneal ulcer is seen in patients who wear contact lenses and experience a foreign body sensation in the eye, along with a red eye and an ulcer on staining. While ophthalmic herpes may present similarly, the ulcer would be dendritic, and the patient would have a history of facial herpes. In such cases, the treatment involves aciclovir and topical ganciclovir, along with same-day ophthalmology assessment.

      A corneal ulcer is a condition where there is a defect in the cornea, usually caused by an infection. This is different from a corneal abrasion, which is a defect in the cornea caused by physical trauma. Risk factors for corneal ulcers include using contact lenses and having a vitamin A deficiency, which is more common in developing countries.

      The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can be caused by bacterial, fungal, viral, or Acanthamoeba infections. Bacterial keratitis, fungal keratitis, and viral keratitis (such as herpes simplex or herpes zoster) can lead to a dendritic ulcer. Acanthamoeba keratitis is often associated with contact lens use.

      Symptoms of a corneal ulcer include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and watering of the eye. The cornea may also show focal fluorescein staining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      33.4
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  • Question 5 - A 6 month-old girl was seen 3 days earlier with a fever of...

    Correct

    • A 6 month-old girl was seen 3 days earlier with a fever of 39 oC but no localising symptoms and signs. The fever responded well to ibuprofen and paracetamol and has resolved. The mother was warned to watch out for a rash and returns anxious because small pink spots have appeared on her body, arms and legs. The spots blanch on pressure.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Roseola Infantum: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis

      Roseola infantum is a common viral infection that primarily affects children between the ages of 6 months and 1 year. Caused by the herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6), this highly contagious illness is characterized by a sudden onset of high fever, which can reach up to 40°C and last for 3-4 days. Once the fever subsides, a rash of small pink spots typically appears on the body, arms, and legs, but not on the face. The rash usually lasts for about 12-14 hours and may be accompanied by a sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in the neck.

      While the initial fever may cause concern for parents and healthcare providers, the sudden drop in temperature and the appearance of the characteristic rash are reassuring signs of roseola. However, it is important to rule out more serious conditions before making a diagnosis. With proper understanding of the symptoms, causes, and diagnostic process, parents and healthcare providers can effectively manage and treat roseola infantum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      275.2
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  • Question 6 - Which drug from the list provides the LEAST mortality benefit in chronic heart...

    Correct

    • Which drug from the list provides the LEAST mortality benefit in chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      The Role of Digoxin in Congestive Heart Failure Treatment

      Digoxin, a medication commonly used in the past for congestive heart failure, has lost its popularity due to the lack of demonstrated mortality benefit in patients with this condition. However, it has shown a reduction in hospitalizations for congestive heart failure. Therefore, it is recommended to maximize the use of other therapies such as ACE inhibitors, β blockers, and spironolactone before considering digoxin. If the ACE inhibitor cannot be tolerated, an angiotensin II receptor antagonist like candesartan can be used as an alternative. Digoxin should only be considered as a third-line treatment for severe heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction after first- and second-line treatments have been exhausted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      16.4
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  • Question 7 - A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic worried about red discoloration of his...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic worried about red discoloration of his urine. He was diagnosed with a DVT two months ago and has been taking warfarin, with his most recent INR test two days ago showing a result of 2.7. During the examination, no abnormalities are found, but his dipstick urine test shows +++ of blood and + protein. A urine culture comes back negative. What is the probable cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bladder carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Consideration of Occult Neoplasia in a Patient with Unexplained Haematuria and Previous DVT

      This patient is presenting with unexplained haematuria and has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of underlying occult neoplasia of the renal tract. The most likely diagnoses in this case are bladder cancer or renal carcinoma, as it is uncommon for prostate cancer to present with haematuria.

      It is important to note that warfarin alone is an unlikely cause of the haematuria, as the patient’s international normalized ratio (INR) is within the target range. Further investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the haematuria and to rule out any potential neoplastic processes. Proper diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing further complications and improving the patient’s overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      27.3
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  • Question 8 - You are evaluating a 5-year-old girl with constipation during a routine check-up. During...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 5-year-old girl with constipation during a routine check-up. During the abdominal examination, you observe a small lump in her right lower abdomen. The child doesn't seem to be in any discomfort when you touch it.

      The mother informs you that a previous doctor had also noticed this lump but had assured her that it was probably due to constipation and nothing to worry about.

      The child is healthy otherwise, and the mother has no specific concerns.

      What is the most suitable next step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Request an abdominal ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Discuss him with the on-call paediatric registrar

      Explanation:

      If a child has a palpable abdominal mass or an unexplained enlarged abdominal organ, it is important to refer them urgently (<48 hours) for specialist assessment to check for neuroblastoma and Wilms' tumour. The correct course of action would be to discuss the case with the on-call paediatric registrar. It is crucial to rule out malignancy as the cause of the mass, as neuroblastomas can metastasize quickly and are often diagnosed too late. While constipation may be a possible cause, it is important not to overlook the possibility of a neuroblastoma, which can even cause constipation. A 2-week review is not appropriate, and a routine referral would cause unnecessary delay. Paediatrics can arrange an abdominal ultrasound scan much quicker than primary care, and an abdominal x-ray is not recommended due to the high radiation exposure, especially for a young child. Understanding Neuroblastoma in Children Neuroblastoma is a type of cancer that affects children and is responsible for 7-8% of childhood malignancies. It develops from neural crest tissue found in the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system. Typically, the disease is diagnosed in children around 20 months old and presents with a range of symptoms, including abdominal mass, weight loss, bone pain, and hepatomegaly. In some cases, paraplegia and proptosis may also occur. To diagnose neuroblastoma, doctors will typically look for raised levels of urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA). Additionally, calcification may be visible on an abdominal x-ray, and a biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis. Overall, neuroblastoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. By understanding the symptoms and diagnostic process, parents and caregivers can work with healthcare providers to ensure that children receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      26.3
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman visits the clinic and asks for progestogen-only birth control due...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits the clinic and asks for progestogen-only birth control due to her mother's recent breast cancer diagnosis.

      What are the characteristics of progestogen-only contraception?

      Your Answer: Causes headaches less commonly than the combined oral contraceptive

      Correct Answer: Causes HDL levels to rise

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Effects of Hormonal Contraceptives on the Body

      Hormonal contraceptives are widely used by women to prevent unwanted pregnancies. However, it is important to understand the effects of these contraceptives on the body. The combined oral contraceptive pill contains ethinyl oestradiol, which is metabolized in the liver. Changes in hepatic function may affect the metabolism of this hormone. While it has no clinically significant effect on liver, kidney, adrenal or thyroid function, it can increase high density lipoprotein (HDL) and decrease low density lipoprotein (LDL). On the other hand, progesterone, which is found in progestogen-only methods, increases LDL and decreases HDL.

      Progestogen-only methods are recommended for women with certain medical conditions such as hypertension, superficial thrombophlebitis, history of thromboembolism, biliary tract disease, thyroid disease, epilepsy, and diabetes without vascular disease. These methods have no deleterious effect on blood pressure. Additionally, the progestogen-only pill is recommended for lactating women as the oestrogen component of the combined pills may interfere with lactation.

      It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best contraceptive method for individual needs and medical history. Understanding the effects of hormonal contraceptives on the body can help women make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      42.4
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old farm labourer presents with a lesion on his finger. The lesion...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old farm labourer presents with a lesion on his finger. The lesion began as a small red papule and has now grown to form a blood-tinged pustule-like lesion measuring 2 cm in diameter over the course of a week. He reports some lymphadenopathy but is otherwise asymptomatic.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Orf

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Infections: Orf, Cat Scratch Disease, Ringworm, Pompholyx, and Lyme Disease

      Orf, also known as contagious pustular dermatitis, is a skin infection caused by a poxvirus that is typically acquired from sheep or goats. The infection begins with a small, firm, red or reddish-blue lump that develops into a flat-topped, blood-tinged pustule or blister after an incubation period of 5-6 days. The lesion is usually 2-3 cm in diameter but can be as large as 5 cm. Although it may appear to contain pus, incising the lesion will reveal firm, red tissue underneath. Orf can also cause erythema multiforme and typically resolves within 6 weeks.

      Cat scratch disease is a mild infectious disease that primarily affects children and is caused by the intracellular bacterium Bartonella henselae. Symptoms may include fever and a papule at the site of the scratch, as well as regional lymphadenopathy.

      Ringworm, also known as tinea corporis, is a fungal infection that causes a slowly enlarging scaly lesion with central clearing. Pompholyx, on the other hand, is a type of eczema that presents with multiple vesicles on the palms and soles.

      Finally, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through tick bites. It causes a slowly spreading erythematous rash at the site of the bite, accompanied by flu-like symptoms.

      In summary, these common skin infections can present with a variety of symptoms and should be diagnosed and treated by a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old man seeks advice regarding his upcoming trip to Australia to visit...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man seeks advice regarding his upcoming trip to Australia to visit his daughter who has emigrated. He is concerned about the risk of deep vein thrombosis as he was diagnosed with this condition approximately 40 years ago during his wife's second pregnancy. However, there are no other significant risk factors for venous thromboembolism. What is the best advice to provide?

      Your Answer: Wear compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Considering her age, previous DVT, and long haul destination, this woman is at a higher risk of travel related thrombosis. Therefore, the most suitable recommendation for her would be to wear compression stockings.

      Travel-Related Thrombosis and Guidelines for Prevention

      Long-haul air travel has been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), commonly known as economy class syndrome. However, there is no universal agreement on how to advise patients regarding VTE prevention during travel. The British Committee for Standards in Haematology, SIGN, and Clinical Knowledge Summaries have all produced guidelines, but they differ in their recommendations.

      The most recent CKS guidelines suggest a risk-based approach. Patients with no major risk factors for VTE do not require special measures. However, those with major risk factors should consider wearing anti-embolism stockings, which can be bought or prescribed. In cases of very high risk, such as a long-haul flight following recent major surgery, delaying the flight or seeking specialist advice regarding the use of low-molecular weight heparin may be necessary.

      It is important to note that all guidelines agree that there is no role for aspirin in VTE prevention for low, medium, or high-risk patients. A 2001 study in the New England Journal of Medicine showed that the risk of pulmonary embolism increases with travel distance, with 4.8 cases per million for travel over 10,000 km. While the Civil Aviation Authority doesn’t provide specific guidance on VTE prevention, healthcare providers can use these guidelines to help patients make informed decisions about their travel plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      361.6
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  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment. He recently had his...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment. He recently had his yearly medication review and blood tests were conducted as part of the review. The results of his full blood count show a microcytic anaemia with a haemoglobin level of 100 g/L.

      Further blood tests confirm that he has iron deficiency anaemia with a low ferritin level. However, his B12, folate, anti-TTG, and haemoglobin electrophoresis blood tests are all normal. He reports feeling well, with no changes in weight or gastrointestinal symptoms. His bowel movements are regular, and he has not experienced any rectal bleeding or mucous per rectum. Upon review of his systems, there is no indication of blood loss, and he has no history of haematuria, haemoptysis, or haematemesis.

      Upon clinical examination, there are no notable findings. His abdomen is soft with no palpable masses, his chest is clear, and his urine dipstick test is normal. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to a lower gastrointestinal specialist

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Unexplained Iron Deficiency Anaemia in Men Over 60

      According to NICE guidelines, men over 60 with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of 120 g/L or less should be urgently referred to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for further assessment. In this case, the patient has been confirmed to have iron deficiency anaemia with a haemoglobin level below 120 g/L, despite being otherwise well with no other focal signs or symptoms, including gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, based solely on the unexplained nature and level of the iron deficiency anaemia, urgent referral is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      195.1
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  • Question 13 - A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain,...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea and weight loss for the past four months. She describes the pain as dull, piercing and it radiates to her back. She has a history of anorexia. On physical examination, there is mild tenderness in the epigastric region but no palpable masses. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carcinoma of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Abdominal Pain: A Case Study

      The patient presents with abdominal pain, and a differential diagnosis must be considered. The symptoms suggest carcinoma of the body or tail of the pancreas, as obstructive jaundice is not present. The pain is located in the epigastric region and radiates to the back, indicating retroperitoneal invasion of the splanchnic nerve plexus by the tumour.

      Cholangiocarcinoma, a malignancy of the biliary duct system, is unlikely as jaundice is not present. Pain in the right upper quadrant may occur in advanced disease. Early gastric carcinoma often presents with symptoms of uncomplicated dyspepsia, while advanced disease presents with weight loss, vomiting, anorexia, upper abdominal pain, and anaemia.

      Peptic ulcer disease is a possibility, with epigastric pain being the most common symptom. Duodenal ulcer pain often awakens the patient at night, and pain with radiation to the back can occur with posterior penetrating gastric ulcer complicated by pancreatitis. However, the presence of weight loss makes pancreatic carcinoma more likely.

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, caused by a non-beta-islet-cell, gastrin-secreting tumour of the pancreas, is also a possibility. Epigastric pain due to ulceration is a common symptom, particularly in sporadic cases and in men. Diarrhoea is the most common symptom in patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1, as well as in female patients.

      In conclusion, the differential diagnosis of abdominal pain in this case includes carcinoma of the pancreas, peptic ulcer disease, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Further diagnostic tests are necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      27
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  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old male patient complains of fatigue and noticeable darkening of the skin....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male patient complains of fatigue and noticeable darkening of the skin. Upon conducting blood tests, it was discovered that the patient has abnormal liver function and impaired glucose tolerance. The suspected diagnosis is haemochromatosis. What is the recommended initial investigation approach?

      Your Answer: Serum iron + ferritin

      Correct Answer: Transferrin saturation + ferritin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      17.1
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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old woman is seeking advice on which coil to use for contraception....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is seeking advice on which coil to use for contraception. She is concerned about the possibility of experiencing heavier or more painful periods. Additionally, she has a history of adult acne and noticed that her skin worsened while taking the progesterone-only pill. She wants to minimize the risk of this happening again by using a coil with the lowest amount of serum levonorgestrel (LNG). What coil would be the best option for her?

      Your Answer: Mirena® coil

      Correct Answer: Jaydess® coil

      Explanation:

      Compared to the Mirena IUS, the Jaydess IUS has lower release rates and serum levels of levonorgestrel. In the UK, there are various copper coils available with either banded copper arms or copper in the stem only, licensed for either 5 or 10 years. The insertion tube sizes vary, with the Nova-T 380 being the smallest at 3.6mm and the Mirena and Jaydess at 4.4mm and 3.8mm, respectively. The Jaydess has the lowest levels of levonorgestrel at 13.5mg, while the Kyleena has 19.5mg and the Mirena has 52mg. The Jaydess is licensed for 3 years, while the Mirena and Kyleena are licensed for 5 years.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      21.6
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  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with an enlarged and black discolored...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with an enlarged and black discolored filiform papillae on her tongue. She has been experiencing dyspepsia for some time and has undergone investigations and treatment for it. Which medication is most likely responsible for the changes in her tongue?

      Your Answer: Rifabutin

      Correct Answer: Bismuth

      Explanation:

      Black Hairy Tongue: Causes and Management

      Black hairy tongue, also known as lingua villosa nigra, is a harmless condition that causes enlargement and discoloration of the filiform papillae of the tongue, making it look ‘hairy’. This condition can occur due to certain medications, poor oral hygiene, tobacco use, alcohol use, colored drinks, dehydration, and hyposalivation. Chlorhexidine or peroxidase-containing mouthwashes can also aggravate the condition.

      If a drug cause is implicated, discontinuing the responsible drug helps. Bismuth is well known to cause black hairy tongue and is the most likely culprit. The other medications are not typically associated with black hairy tongue. Initial management of this condition focuses on advising good oral hygiene, such as regular brushing, gentle tongue scraping, and avoiding smoking and excessive alcohol.

      Overall, black hairy tongue is typically self-limiting and can be managed effectively with proper oral hygiene and discontinuation of any implicated medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 17 - A 9-year-old girl comes to your urgent clinic after being hit in the...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old girl comes to your urgent clinic after being hit in the left eye with a baseball. She reports pain and blurry vision in the affected eye. Upon examination, you observe some blood in a crescent shape along the inferior part of her cornea. The sclera appears white and the pupil reaction is normal. Fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Urgent (same-day) referral to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      Ocular Trauma and Hyphema Management

      Ocular trauma can lead to serious eye injuries, including hyphema, which is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. It is crucial to seek urgent referral to an ophthalmic specialist for assessment and management in such cases. The primary risk to vision arises from increased intraocular pressure, which can occur due to the blockage of the angle and trabecular meshwork with erythrocytes. Patients with hyphema require strict bed rest to prevent the disbursement of blood that had previously settled. High-risk cases may require admission to the hospital. Even isolated hyphema requires daily ophthalmic review and pressure checks initially as an outpatient.

      In addition to hyphema, an assessment should also be made for orbital compartment syndrome, which can result from retrobulbar hemorrhage. This is a true ophthalmic emergency that requires immediate attention. Symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome include eye pain and swelling, proptosis, rock hard eyelids, and a relevant afferent pupillary defect. Urgent lateral canthotomy is necessary to decompress the orbit, and it should be performed before diagnostic imaging.

      Overall, prompt referral to an ophthalmic specialist and appropriate management are essential in cases of ocular trauma and hyphema to prevent vision loss and other complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 18 - You see a 40-year-old woman for a third episode of moderately severe depression...

    Correct

    • You see a 40-year-old woman for a third episode of moderately severe depression in the last 18 months.

      She has been stopping and starting her antidepressant medication according to how she is feeling. You advise her that she should take the medication regularly.

      What length of time is recommended for continuation of antidepressants for recurrent depression?

      Your Answer: Six months

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Antidepressant Use for Recurrent Depression

      According to NICE guidance, patients who have experienced two or more depressive episodes in the recent past and have suffered significant functional impairment during these episodes should be advised to continue taking antidepressants for a period of two years. This recommendation is based on evidence that suggests that longer-term use of antidepressants can reduce the risk of relapse and recurrence of depression. It is important to note that this guidance applies specifically to patients with recurrent depression and should be considered on a case-by-case basis in consultation with a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports a four week history of reduced stool frequency with firmer stool consistency. She currently has a bowel movement every other day, whereas prior to the last four weeks she had a bowel movement once a day. She denies any rectal bleeding or diarrhea and has no anal symptoms or incontinence. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without masses. Rectal examination is also normal. She has been taking codeine phosphate 30 mg qds for her arthritic knee, which was prescribed by a colleague one month ago. Recent blood tests show normal full blood count, ESR, thyroid function, and calcium. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer routinely to a lower gastrointestinal specialist

      Correct Answer: Provide advice regarding the constipation and reassure

      Explanation:

      Managing Constipation in a Patient on Analgesia

      The patient’s constipation is not a mystery as it coincides with the prescription of codeine phosphate, which slows down bowel transit. There are no other concerning symptoms in the patient’s history or examination that would warrant an urgent referral to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for suspected cancer.

      To manage the patient’s constipation, the healthcare provider should provide advice on diet and lifestyle, review the patient’s medication to identify any contributing factors, and counsel the patient on red flags. The patient has already undergone blood tests to investigate secondary causes of constipation, such as hypothyroidism or hypercalcaemia. The healthcare provider can also discuss the use of laxatives with the patient.

      Overall, managing constipation in a patient on analgesia involves identifying contributing factors, providing lifestyle advice, and discussing treatment options with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - What is a risk factor for developing squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the...

    Incorrect

    • What is a risk factor for developing squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin?

      Your Answer: Solar keratosis

      Correct Answer: Acute ulceration

      Explanation:

      Skin Damage and Other Factors Predisposing to Cancer

      Certain types of skin damage, such as burns, scarring, ulceration, radiation, and chemical damage, can increase the risk of developing cancer. In addition, exposure to polycyclic hydrocarbons and coal by-products, which are found in certain situations, particularly in the United Kingdom, can also increase the risk of cancer. For example, chimney sweeps in the past were at a higher risk of developing scrotal cancer due to exposure to these substances.

      Lichen sclerosis is another factor that can predispose individuals to cancer, specifically vulval cancer. Solar keratoses are also a common cause of cancer. However, psoriasis and lichen planus are not considered predisposing factors. While there is some controversy surrounding the risk of lichen planus, the consensus view is that it probably doesn’t increase the risk of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), except for the ulcerative form of oral lichen planus, which may have an increased risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.5
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  • Question 21 - At what age is precocious puberty in females defined as the development of...

    Correct

    • At what age is precocious puberty in females defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before?

      Your Answer: 8 years of age

      Explanation:

      Understanding Precocious Puberty

      Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, while the latter is due to excess sex hormones. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumor, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You have been seeing a teenage patient for their depression and providing fit...

    Incorrect

    • You have been seeing a teenage patient for their depression and providing fit notes to support their Employment and Support Allowance (ESA) claims. You receive a letter from the DWP stating that they no longer require Statements of Fitness for Work for your patient as they are fit to work.
      Which of the following circumstances would allow you to issue further fit notes?

      Your Answer: The patient seeks additional psychological therapy

      Correct Answer: The patient asks you for evidence for an appeal against the DWP decision

      Explanation:

      Fit Notes and ESA Applications

      In an Employment Support Assistance (ESA) application, the DWP may inform the GP that fit notes are no longer required if they believe the patient is fit to work. However, there are certain situations where further fit notes may be necessary. For example, if the patient’s condition worsens, if they develop a new health condition, or if they require evidence for an appeal against the DWP decision. In these cases, the decision to issue further fit notes is at the discretion of the doctor.

      If a patient’s condition deteriorates after stopping or changing antidepressants, a further fit note may be considered. However, if their condition remains stable, no further fit notes should be issued. It is important for doctors to use their clinical judgment when deciding whether to issue fit notes, taking into account the patient’s individual circumstances and needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
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  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old woman with a learning disability and communication difficulties seeks advice for...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a learning disability and communication difficulties seeks advice for heavy menstrual bleeding. She is accompanied by another woman who introduces herself as a support person, there to assist the patient in making her own decisions and promoting her independence.
      What is the role of the accompanying woman in this scenario? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Carer

      Correct Answer: Patient advocate

      Explanation:

      Different Roles in Healthcare: Patient Advocate, Carer, Chaperone, IMCA, and Attorney

      In healthcare, there are various roles that individuals can take to support patients in different ways. One of these roles is that of a patient advocate, whose primary responsibility is to help patients communicate their views or decisions when they have difficulty doing so themselves. This role is independent and doesn’t involve making decisions on behalf of the patient.

      Another role is that of a carer, who provides practical and emotional support to patients, often in a long-term capacity. A chaperone, on the other hand, acts as a witness during medical procedures to ensure the safety and comfort of both the patient and the practitioner.

      An independent mental-capacity advocate (IMCA) is appointed to safeguard the rights of individuals who lack the capacity to make decisions for themselves. Finally, an attorney can be appointed by a patient to help them make decisions or make decisions on their behalf if they lack capacity.

      Overall, these different roles play important and distinct functions in supporting patients in healthcare settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 24 - The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her...

    Correct

    • The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her daughter was recently hospitalized with a fever and a non-blanching rash. The diagnosis was meningococcal septicaemia, but the serogroup is currently unknown. The local health protection unit has advised the mother to speak to her GP about chemoprophylaxis for herself.

      The mother is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and has a sulphonamide allergy. She received the meningococcal C vaccine during childhood but did not receive the meningococcal B vaccine as it was not available at the time. What is the most appropriate treatment option for her?

      Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. The recommended choice, according to Public Health England guidelines, is ciprofloxacin, which is taken as a single-dose treatment for both adults and children. It should be given to all close contacts of the index case during the 7 days before the onset of illness, regardless of vaccination status. Rifampicin is an alternative option but is less desirable due to its potential to reduce the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives and the need for multiple doses. Currently, there is no role for administering a vaccine to the patient as the infection serogroup has not been identified. Even if serogroup B infection is confirmed later, the administration of meningococcal B (MenB) vaccine to close contacts is not recommended unless it is a cluster of cases, which would be determined by the local health protection team rather than the GP.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      20.8
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  • Question 25 - A 72-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and frequency. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and frequency. She has a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, previous Clostridium difficile infection, and chronic kidney disease stage 4. Her regular medications include ramipril, amlodipine, furosemide, and aspirin. She has reported allergies to statins and co-trimoxazole. Upon urine dipstick examination, nitrites and leucocytes are detected, leading to a diagnosis of urinary tract infection. What would be the most appropriate antibiotic to initiate treatment?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      The most suitable antibiotic for this patient’s urinary tract infection is amoxicillin. According to the BNF, trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin are recommended as first-line treatments, while amoxicillin or a cephalosporin are considered alternatives. However, in this case, the patient is allergic to co-trimoxazole, which contains trimethoprim and sulphamethoxazole, making it unsuitable. Additionally, the patient has CKD 4, which contraindicates nitrofurantoin, and cefaclor is not recommended due to its association with Clostridium difficile. Doxycycline is not a recommended treatment for UTI. Therefore, amoxicillin is the most appropriate antibiotic for this patient.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      27.7
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  • Question 26 - A 27 year-old male patient complains of sudden hearing loss in his right...

    Correct

    • A 27 year-old male patient complains of sudden hearing loss in his right ear without any prior symptoms of cold, fever, headache or earache. Upon examination, his ear canal and tympanic membrane appear to be normal. Weber testing indicates left-sided localization. What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to ENT and start high dose oral steroids

      Explanation:

      The individual is experiencing sudden sensorineural hearing loss, which is typically of unknown cause. It is recommended that all patients begin treatment promptly with high dose steroids (60mg/day) for seven days, as this has been shown to improve outcomes. An ENT evaluation should be scheduled immediately to conduct pure tone audiometry testing and to rule out the presence of an acoustic neuroma through an MRI. In cases where oral steroids are ineffective, intra-tympanic steroids may be administered. Aciclovir is not typically prescribed as there is no evidence to support its efficacy.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      10.4
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  • Question 27 - What is the accurate statement about pharmacology in elderly individuals? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about pharmacology in elderly individuals?

      Your Answer: There tends to be a reduced plasma protein binding of drugs with age

      Correct Answer: Renal function tends to remain stable despite advancing age

      Explanation:

      Care of Older Adults in General Practice

      The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has emphasized that the care of older adults will be a significant part of a General Practitioner’s workload. It is crucial to consider issues such as comorbidity, communication difficulties, polypharmacy, and the need for support for increasingly dependent patients.

      One important factor to keep in mind is that there is a reduced plasma protein binding of drugs with age. This can result in more drug availability, leading to side effects. Additionally, declining renal and hepatic function in the elderly can make them more susceptible to drug toxicity. Therefore, it may be necessary to prescribe lower doses than those given to a healthy adult.

      As people age, their renal function tends to decline, and the rate of gastric emptying slows down. Hepatic mass and blood flow also decrease, and intestinal motility tends to decrease with age. These factors must be considered when prescribing medication to older adults.

      The British National Formulary provides guidelines for prescribing medication to the elderly, and it is essential to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety and well-being of older patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 28 - As part of a community health initiative, you are tasked with developing a...

    Correct

    • As part of a community health initiative, you are tasked with developing a program to enhance the well-being of infants in the area. What is the leading cause of mortality among infants aged over one month but under 12 months?

      Your Answer: Sudden infant death syndrome

      Explanation:

      Accidents become the leading cause of death in children after they turn one year old.

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, and maternal drug use. SIDS incidence also tends to increase during the winter months. However, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS, such as breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers. In the event of a SIDS case, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 29 - What criteria can a health professional use to be reasonably certain that a...

    Correct

    • What criteria can a health professional use to be reasonably certain that a woman is not pregnant when she wants to start contraception and has no pregnancy symptoms or signs?

      Your Answer: Is fully or nearly fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic, and 4 months postpartum

      Explanation:

      Criteria for Determining Pregnancy Status in Starting Contraception

      Health professionals can determine with reasonable certainty whether a woman is pregnant or not before starting contraception. This is important to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the chosen contraceptive method. According to CKS NICE, the following criteria can be used to determine pregnancy status:

      – The woman has not had sexual intercourse since the last normal menses.
      – The woman has used a reliable method of contraception correctly and consistently.
      – The woman is within the first 7 days of the onset of a normal menstrual period.
      – The woman is within 4 weeks postpartum for non-breastfeeding women.
      – The woman is within the first 7 days post-termination of pregnancy or miscarriage.
      – The woman is fully or nearly fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum.
      – A pregnancy test is performed no sooner than 3 weeks since the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) and is negative.

      By following these criteria, health professionals can ensure that women are not inadvertently exposed to the risks of contraceptive methods during pregnancy. It is important to note that if there is any doubt about pregnancy status, a pregnancy test should be performed before starting contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old mother of three children who is typically healthy has been consulting...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old mother of three children who is typically healthy has been consulting with you for 6 weeks due to feelings of low mood. She denies having any thoughts of self-harm and there are no concerns about the safety of her children.

      She has undergone a low-intensity psychosocial intervention, but her symptoms have not improved, and she now has a PHQ-9 depression questionnaire score of 12, indicating moderate depression. She is interested in trying an antidepressant and has no allergies or medical conditions that would prevent her from taking medication.

      What is the recommended first-line medication for her?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating less severe depression, the recommended first-line antidepressant is an SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) like sertraline. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) such as amitriptyline are no longer considered the first choice due to their increased risk of overdose. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) like isocarboxazid are rarely prescribed due to their potential for serious side effects. Noradrenaline and specific serotonergic antidepressants (NASSAs) like mirtazapine may be an alternative for those who cannot take SSRIs, but they may cause more drowsiness.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      16.5
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Kidney And Urology (2/2) 100%
Eyes And Vision (2/2) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (4/5) 80%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (2/3) 67%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/2) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (2/2) 100%
Leadership And Management (0/1) 0%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Passmed