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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex the day before. She expresses her reluctance to use intrauterine methods and is prescribed Levonelle. Additionally, she is interested in starting a combined contraceptive pill.
What advice would you give regarding the need for supplementary contraception when initiating a combined contraceptive pill?Your Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Starting Hormonal Contraception After Emergency Contraception
When starting hormonal contraception after taking progesterone-only emergency contraception, it is important to advise the use of additional contraception until contraceptive efficacy is established. If there is still a risk of pregnancy, the woman should express her preference for contraception immediately and be aware of the theoretical risk of fetal exposure to hormones, although evidence indicates no harm. A pregnancy test should be suggested at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse.
After taking progesterone-only emergency contraception, it is recommended to use condoms or avoid sex for seven days before starting most hormonal contraception. However, if ulipristal emergency contraception is taken, its effectiveness could be reduced if progestogen is taken in the following five days. Therefore, the quick start of suitable hormonal contraception should be delayed for five days (120 hours) after ulipristal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A parent is concerned about her 9-month-old child’s prominent ears.
Your Answer: Avoid operation
Correct Answer: Delay operation until the age of 8
Explanation:Prominent Ears: Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options
Prominent ears affect a small percentage of the population and are usually inherited. This condition arises due to the lack or malformation of cartilage during ear development in the womb, resulting in abnormal helical folds or lateral growth. While some babies are born with normal-looking ears, the problem may arise within the first three months of life.
Before six months of age, the ear cartilage is soft and can be molded and splinted. However, after this age, surgical correction is the only option. Pinnaplasty or otoplasty can be performed on children from the age of five, but the ideal age for the procedure is around eight years old. This allows enough time to see if the child perceives the condition as a problem, while also avoiding potential teasing or bullying at school.
While some prominent ears may become less visible over time, it is best not to delay corrective procedures. Younger ears tend to produce better results after surgery, and waiting too long may increase the risk of bullying at school. Overall, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and treatment options for prominent ears can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old lady comes to her GP for a yearly check-up of her heart failure treatment.
She has a blood pressure reading of 165/90 mmHg. At present, she is taking furosemide and aspirin, and she feels short of breath when walking uphill.
What would be the best medication to include in her treatment plan?Your Answer: Enalapril
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:First Line Treatments for Heart Failure
ACE inhibitors and beta blockers are the primary medications used in the treatment of heart failure. The SOLVD and CONSENSUS trials have shown that ACE inhibitors are a cornerstone in the management of heart failure. It has been proven that higher doses of ACE inhibitors provide greater benefits. These medications are generally well-tolerated, particularly in mild cases. If ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, an ARB can be used as an alternative. Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists are also recommended as a first-line treatment for heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Please provide an appropriate question to answer as part of a GP audit.
Your Answer: How many surgery patients suffer a myocardial infarction in a year?
Correct Answer: What percentage of patients taking ACE inhibitors have their U&E checked in a year?
Explanation:Clinical Care Audit
A clinical care audit is a process that evaluates the performance of healthcare providers against specific guidelines on therapy. The aim is to determine if the care provided meets a pre-specified standard. For instance, a typical audit may assess if all patients taking ACE inhibitors have had at least a yearly U&E. The standard is set high, at around 90%+, and if not met, measures are implemented to improve performance. These measures may include adding reminders to GP prescription systems, education sessions on the use of ACE inhibitors, and more.
Closing the loop is an essential part of the audit process. This involves reassessing the percentage of clinical episodes that meet the audit standard to determine if improvements have been made. By conducting clinical care audits, healthcare providers can identify areas for improvement and implement measures to enhance the quality of care provided to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A teenage girl with epilepsy is interested in taking the oral contraceptive pill. She has been informed that some medications for epilepsy may impact the effectiveness of the pill.
Which anti-epileptic medication triggers liver enzymes and can potentially decrease the potency of the oral contraceptive pill?Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:AEDs and their effect on oral contraceptive pill efficacy
The metabolism of oestrogen and progestogen is increased by anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) that induce cytochrome P450. These drugs can be strong inducers, such as carbamazepine, or weaker inducers, such as topiramate. Phenytoin is a strong enzyme inducer. It should be noted that women using lamotrigine should be advised that seizure frequency may increase when initiating the oral contraceptive pill. Additionally, lamotrigine side effects may increase in the pill-free interval or when discontinuing the oral contraceptive pill. Therefore, it is important to consider the potential effects of AEDs on the efficacy of the oral contraceptive pill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman complains of heavy menstrual bleeding and a constant sore throat. Upon examination, she is found to have pancytopenia. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Causes of Pancytopenia Due to Drug Intake
Pancytopenia is a medical condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the blood. It can be caused by various factors, including drug intake. Some drugs can lead to pancytopenia by suppressing the bone marrow’s ability to produce blood cells.
Cytotoxic drugs, antibiotics such as trimethoprim and chloramphenicol, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like gold and penicillamine are some of the drugs that can cause pancytopenia. Carbimazole, an anti-thyroid drug, can also lead to this condition. Additionally, anti-epileptic drugs like carbamazepine and sulphonylureas such as tolbutamide have been known to cause pancytopenia.
It is important to monitor blood counts regularly when taking these drugs to detect any potential side effects. If pancytopenia is suspected, the drug should be discontinued immediately, and appropriate treatment should be initiated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Correct
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During a phone consultation, a 32-year-old transgender man seeks advice on cervical screening. He is sexually active and had a normal cervical smear five years ago. However, he has changed GP practices and has not received any further invitations. He wants to know if he needs any further smear tests.
The patient is generally healthy and has not experienced weight loss, dyspareunia, or abnormal vaginal bleeding. He has not had a period for over 18 months and is only taking testosterone therapy since his gender reassignment two years ago. He has no surgical history and doesn't smoke or drink alcohol.
What is the most appropriate advice to give this patient regarding cervical screening?Your Answer: Cervical screening should be offered to this patient
Explanation:All sexually active individuals with a uterus, including transgender patients, should be offered cervical screening. This patient, who is sexually active and has an intact uterus, requires regular cervical smear tests regardless of their menstrual cycle or symptoms of abnormal vaginal bleeding. Testosterone therapy may affect the patient’s gender characteristics, but gender reassignment allows for legal recognition of their gender identity and rights, such as obtaining a new birth certificate, driving license, passport, and the ability to marry in their new gender. However, neither of these factors exempts the patient from cervical screening.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.
For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.
In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You see a 9-year-old boy with his mother. She reports that her son initially had a temperature of 37.8 °C along with a sore mouth. She then noticed some new skin lesions on his palms and soles.
On examination, you note some healing ulcers in the mouth. You note several grey vesicles on the child's palms and soles. He has a reduced appetite but is still drinking plenty of fluids. No amber/red flags are noted.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer: Reassure
Correct Answer: Reassure but complete a notification form 'to the proper officer'
Explanation:Managing Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease
Hand, foot and mouth disease (HFMD) is a common viral illness that affects children. It is important to note that it is unrelated to foot and mouth disease in animals. HFMD is generally managed conservatively, with a focus on encouraging the child to have a good fluid intake. It is not a notifiable illness, so there is no need to complete a notification form.
If there are any signs of significant dehydration or neurological symptoms, such as persistent headaches or myoclonic jerks, referral to paediatrics should be considered. However, viral swabs are often not used in clinical practice for HFMD, as appropriate and cost-effective management is prioritized.
It is important for parents to be reassured that HFMD is a common and manageable illness. This guidance applies to the UK, but it may not apply to other countries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following side-effects is the least acknowledged by patients who are prescribed isotretinoin?
Your Answer: nosebleeds
Correct Answer: Hypertension
Explanation:Isotretinoin can cause various adverse effects, including teratogenicity, which requires females to take contraception. Other side effects may include low mood, dry eyes and lips, raised triglycerides, hair thinning, and nosebleeds. However, hypertension is not listed as a side effect in the British National Formulary.
Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects
Isotretinoin is a type of oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found to be effective in providing long-term remission or cure for two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of treatment. However, it is important to note that isotretinoin also comes with several adverse effects that patients should be aware of.
One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in fetuses if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, females who are taking isotretinoin should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, low mood, raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nosebleeds, and photosensitivity.
It is also worth noting that there is some controversy surrounding the potential link between isotretinoin and depression or other psychiatric problems. While these adverse effects are listed in the British National Formulary (BNF), further research is needed to fully understand the relationship between isotretinoin and mental health.
Overall, while isotretinoin can be an effective treatment for severe acne, patients should be aware of its potential adverse effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 28-year-old man has a red lesion that has grown rapidly on the pulp of the left first finger and bleeds easily. There was a history of trauma to that digit 2 weeks previously. Examination showed a pedunculated vascular lesion measuring 10 mm in diameter.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Pyogenic granuloma
Explanation:Rapidly Growing Tumor Following Trauma: Pyogenic Granuloma
A rapidly growing tumor following trauma is most likely a pyogenic granuloma. While amelanotic melanoma can occur on the digits, the rate of growth would not be as rapid. The other lesions in the options are not vascular in appearance. Treatment for pyogenic granuloma would be a shave biopsy and cautery to the base, as excision biopsy may be difficult. A specimen can be sent for histology to ensure it is not an amelanotic melanoma. Recurrence is common and lesions will eventually atrophy, but only a minority will spontaneously involute within six months. A GP minor surgeon can deal with pyogenic granuloma.
Another condition that may occur at the base of the nail is a myxoid cyst. This small cyst contains a gelatinous clear material that may be extruded from time to time. Pressure on the growing nail plate may produce nail deformity. These cysts may communicate with an osteoarthritic distal interphalangeal joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a lump on her upper eyelid that she has noticed recently. The lump is not causing any discomfort. Upon examination, a 6mm firm lump is observed that distorts the eyelid margin and causes loss of eyelashes. The lump appears to be slightly ulcerated. What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Prescribe a topical antibiotic
Correct Answer: Arrange a 2 week referral
Explanation:A possible meibomian cyst is suggested by the patient’s history. These cysts typically develop slowly over several weeks, resulting in a firm, localized swelling of the eyelid. While there may be initial discomfort, pain and tenderness are usually absent. Meibomian cysts are most commonly found on the upper eyelid and are typically 2-8 mm in diameter.
When the eyelid is turned inside out, a meibomian cyst appears as a distinct, immobile, circular, yellowish lump (lipogranuloma). In the acute phase, it may appear inflamed, tender, and red. The skin overlying the cyst is usually normal and freely movable, while the meibomian cyst itself adheres to the tarsal plate. There should be no associated ulceration, bleeding, telangiectasia, or discharge.
Warm compresses and massage are the first-line treatments for meibomian cysts. Topical or oral antibiotics should not be used.
If a malignant eyelid tumor is suspected, such as if the meibomian cyst has an unusual appearance (such as distortion of the eyelid margin, loss of eyelashes, ulceration, or bleeding) or if a suspected meibomian cyst recurs in the same location, NICE recommends arranging a 2-week wait referral. As a result, the correct answer is a 2-week referral.
Source: CKS
According to the April 2016 feedback report, candidates should be familiar with the presentation and management of common eye conditions, as well as less common eye conditions that require urgent attention.
Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues such as blepharitis, styes, chalazions, entropion, and ectropion. Blepharitis is an inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Styes are infections that occur in the glands of the eyelids, with external styes affecting the sebum-producing glands and internal styes affecting the Meibomian glands. Chalazions, also known as Meibomian cysts, are retention cysts that present as painless lumps in the eyelid. While most cases of chalazions resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.
When it comes to managing styes, there are different types to consider. External styes are usually caused by a staphylococcal infection in the glands of Zeis or Moll, while internal styes are caused by an infection in the Meibomian glands. Treatment typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only recommended if there is an associated conjunctivitis.
Overall, eyelid problems can be uncomfortable and even painful, but with proper management and treatment, they can be resolved effectively. It’s important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 12
Correct
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A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic, having just returned from living in Canada. He tells you he had a colonoscopy six months earlier; a polyp in the ascending colon was removed and this was classified as a Dukes' B tumour. He wonders if he needs further checks according to current guidance for surveillance after resection of colorectal cancer. What would you advise him?
Your Answer: Serial carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) monitoring
Explanation:Post-Treatment Surveillance Strategies for Colorectal Cancer: The Role of CEA Monitoring, Colonoscopy, and CT Scans
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a protein that is elevated in the serum of patients with colorectal cancer. While not suitable for screening, CEA levels can be used to monitor disease burden and predict prognosis in patients with established disease. Additionally, elevated preoperative CEA levels should return to baseline after complete resection, and failure to do so may indicate residual disease. Serial CEA testing can also aid in the early detection of recurrences, which can increase the likelihood of a complete resection.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends regular serum CEA tests (at least every six months in the first three years) and a minimum of two CT scans of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis in the first three years after treatment. Surveillance colonoscopy should be performed one year after initial treatment, and if normal, another colonoscopy should be performed at five years. The timing of colonoscopy after adenoma should be determined by the risk status of the adenoma.
While periodic colonoscopy is beneficial for detecting metachronous cancers and preventing further cancers via removal of adenomatous polyps, trials have failed to show a survival benefit from annual or shorter intervals compared to less frequent intervals (three or five years) for detecting anastomotic recurrences. Routine fecal occult blood testing is not recommended in post-treatment surveillance guidelines.
In summary, post-treatment surveillance strategies for colorectal cancer should include serial CEA monitoring, CT scans, and colonoscopy at recommended intervals. These strategies can aid in the early detection of recurrences and improve the likelihood of a complete resection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 40-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for his annual review; he has a diagnosis of schizophrenia and he has been stable on olanzapine for three years. He is otherwise fit and well and doesn't take any other medication. The initial screening investigations performed in secondary care were all normal before his medication was initiated.
Which of the following investigations should be included in an annual health check in primary care for this patient?
Your Answer: Lipid profile
Explanation:Monitoring Health in Patients with Schizophrenia: Recommended Tests and Frequency
Patients with schizophrenia or other psychotic illnesses should undergo an annual health check in primary care to assess their mental and physical health. The following tests are recommended:
– Weight, pulse, and blood pressure measurements
– Full blood count, liver function tests, urea & electrolytes, lipid profile, HbA1c, and fasting glucose
– Prolactin level (annually for patients taking first-generation antipsychotics or risperidone, or if symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia are present)
– Electrocardiogram (ECG) before initiating olanzapine, and annually for patients taking haloperidol, pimozide, or sertindole, or if the patient had an abnormal ECG at initial screening or risk factors of developing a prolonged QTc interval
– Creatinine kinase (CK) only if the patient develops symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
– Thyroid function tests (TFTs) only if there are other indications to do so, such as known thyroid disease or symptoms to suggest co-existing hypo- or hyperthyroidism, except for patients taking lithium who must have their TFTs checked regularly.Regular monitoring is important as atypical antipsychotics can increase the risk of developing cardiovascular disease risk factors. However, not all tests need to be performed annually for all patients, and the frequency of testing may vary depending on the medication and individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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In a trial of statin therapy in the secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease among elderly patients, therapy is shown to reduce cardiovascular mortality from 12% to 8% over the five years duration of the study.
In comparison with standard therapy, what is the number of elderly patients that needs to be treated to prevent one death over five years?Your Answer: 20
Correct Answer: 25
Explanation:Reduction in Post-Myocardial Infarction Mortality
The drug has been found to decrease the risk of death after a myocardial infarction by 4% over a period of five years. This means that if 100 individuals were treated with the drug, we could expect to prevent four deaths. In other words, for every 25 people treated with the drug, we could prevent one death. This reduction in mortality is significant and highlights the potential benefits of this drug in improving patient outcomes following a heart attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 64-year-old who has come to you for guidance on vaccinations. She has chronic kidney disease stage 1 and uses salbutamol as needed for her asthma. She wants to know if she is eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. What advice should you give her?
Your Answer: Yes he is eligible as he has chronic kidney disease
Correct Answer: Yes he is eligible as he is aged over 65 years
Explanation:Jason’s eligibility for the vaccine is based on his age of over 65 years, as his chronic kidney disease is not at stage 3, 4 or 5, and he is not using oral steroids for his asthma.
The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.
The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a mild, resting tremor in his arms and legs. Upon examination, it is slightly more pronounced on his left side. There is also a slight stiffness and slowness of movement in his arms. His blood pressure measures 150/85 mmHg.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: Idiopathic Parkinson's disease (IPD)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Stiffness and Tremor
When presented with a patient exhibiting stiffness and tremor, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of this patient, the most likely diagnosis is idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (IPD), as the tremor is asymmetric and worsens at rest, and the patient displays slowness of movement and rigidity.
Cervical myelopathy is less likely, as it is characterized by neck pain with upper motor neuron signs in the legs and lower motor neuron signs in the arms, which are not present in this patient. Essential tremor, which is worse on movement, is also less likely, as the tremor described here is a resting tremor.
Hyperthyroidism could cause fine tremor and proximal muscle weakness, but no other specific features are seen in this patient. Ischaemic small-vessel disease (ISVD) can be associated with Parkinsonism, but the unilateral symptoms and lack of other neurological signs make IPD a more likely diagnosis.
In summary, when presented with a patient exhibiting stiffness and tremor, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses, but in this case, IPD is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman has liver metastases from a colorectal cancer. She complains of nausea, which comes in waves, and experiences vomiting before going for chemotherapy but finds this less troublesome after chemotherapy. She also finds the nausea less troublesome when she is distracted.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Anxiety
Explanation:Assessing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Possible Causes and Treatment Options
When assessing nausea and vomiting in palliative care, it is important to seek a reversible cause. If none is found, a specific diagnosis should be made. One possible cause is anxiety, which can present with nausea in waves and anticipatory vomiting that may be relieved by distraction. Benzodiazepines or levomepromazine can be used for medication. Other causes include gastric stasis, gastric outflow obstruction, small stomach syndrome, oesophageal blockage, bowel obstruction, raised intracranial pressure, movement-related nausea, vestibular issues, drugs, metabolic issues, and carcinomatosis. It is important to consider all possible causes and choose appropriate treatment options accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 18
Correct
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Samantha is a 62-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with heart failure. She has been researching her condition online and wants to know which vaccinations she needs due to her diagnosis. Samantha also has hypertension and type 2 diabetes.
What vaccinations would you suggest for her?Your Answer: Annual influenza vaccination, single pneumococcal vaccination
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should receive annual influenza vaccination as part of their overall lifestyle approach. Additionally, those with chronic respiratory and heart conditions, such as severe asthma, chronic pulmonary disease, and heart failure, should receive both annual influenza and single pneumococcal vaccinations. Meningococcal vaccination is not typically administered to heart failure patients, but is recommended for those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, including those with sickle cell and coeliac disease, as well as those with complement disorder. For patients with splenic dysfunction and chronic kidney disease, a pneumococcal booster should be given every 5 years after the initial dose.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You plan to look at the effectiveness of a Chlamydia screening programme on detection rates for the disease among teenagers at the clinic.
The research is designed to look merely at detection rates, not the effectiveness of treatment.
Which of the following is true with respect to rules around ethical approval and consent for this project?Your Answer: All patients participating in the study should be aware of good medical practice
Correct Answer: You should have a clear publication plan at the outset of your study
Explanation:Importance of a Clear Publication Plan for Clinical Studies
A clear publication plan is essential for any clinical study. The study should be worthy of publication in some form, whether it is a local CCG journal or a peer-reviewed international publication. The research should provide learning outcomes that can improve clinical practice, and without publication, wider dissemination is impossible.
It is crucial to ensure that all staff involved in the study are aware of good medical practice, and patients should be provided with an information leaflet about the study. If the study is conducted in multiple areas, MREC approval means that the study can proceed without a separate full LREC application.
In summary, having a clear publication plan is crucial for any clinical study to ensure that the research findings are disseminated widely and can contribute to improving clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 20
Correct
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You speak with a 27-year-old care assistant who works in the local residential care home. She has a sore throat, fever and rash. She requests antibiotics as she is eager to get back to work for her night shifts in 2 days. Her 4-year-old son recently had a course of antibiotics following a similar presentation.
On examination, she has a fine rough feeling rash on her torso and her tongue appears red and swollen. Her observations are normal.
Given the likely diagnosis, what advice from the options below would be most appropriate to give?Your Answer: Advise her that you need to contact the Local Health Protection Agency (HPA) and she should not go into work. If she doesn't consent, confirm that you will still need to inform the HPA
Explanation:Kindly request that she notifies her workplace and the Local Health Protection Agency (HPA) and arranges a discussion with them regarding her return date.
Sharing patient information is crucial for providing safe and effective care, especially in multi-disciplinary teams. However, it is important to ensure that information is shared in a legal and ethical manner while facilitating access to those who require it. Inappropriate sharing of information can have significant consequences for the clinician-patient relationship and the wider profession. Patients generally expect some information to be shared with those involved in their care, but if they object, the information should not be disclosed unless it is justified for the public interest or the patient lacks capacity. It is important to explain the potential consequences of not sharing personal information and reach a compromise where possible.
When sharing information, it is essential to access it to support the patient’s direct care or be satisfied that it is being shared for that purpose. Patients should be informed about how their personal information will be used, and they have the right to object. It is also crucial to ensure that anyone who receives the information understands that it is given in confidence. When sharing information with friends or relatives, it is necessary to establish the patient’s wishes and gain explicit consent. In cases where the patient lacks capacity, it is essential to consider various factors, such as the patient’s beliefs and values, before disclosing information.
Disclosing information without the patient’s express consent is generally not allowed, except when required by law or justified in the public interest. In exceptional circumstances, such as gunshot wounds and knife injuries, the police should be informed, but personal information should not be disclosed initially. It is crucial to follow the relevant guidelines to avoid inappropriate information sharing and maintain transparency between the doctor and patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 21
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl presents with intermittent leg pains, which have been occurring for four weeks. They occur at night and wake her from sleep. The pain is relieved when her mother rubs her legs. The girl is otherwise well and examination is normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Growing pains
Explanation:Understanding Childhood Musculoskeletal Conditions: Differential Diagnosis
Childhood musculoskeletal conditions can present with a variety of symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them for proper diagnosis and treatment. One common condition is growing pains, which are episodic muscular pains that typically affect the legs and wake children from sleep. Another condition, Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), can cause joint pain, abdominal pain, and a purpuric rash on the legs and buttocks, as well as renal involvement. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia may also cause bone and joint pain, but patients usually deteriorate rapidly and become unwell. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is characterized by joint inflammation persisting for at least six weeks. Perthes’ disease, on the other hand, presents with pain in the hip and limited movement. Understanding the differences between these conditions can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of yellowing of her eyes and generalized itching for the past 5 days. She denies any fever, myalgia, or abdominal pain. She reports that her urine has become darker and her stools have become paler. She has been in good health otherwise.
The patient had visited the clinic 3 weeks ago for a sore throat and was prescribed antibiotics. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for the past 6 months.
On examination, the patient appears jaundiced in both her skin and sclera. She has no rash but has multiple scratches on her arms due to itching. There is no palpable hepatosplenomegaly, and she has no abdominal tenderness.
Laboratory tests reveal:
- Bilirubin 110 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP 200 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT 60 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT 120 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin 40 g/L (35 - 50)
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Choledocholithiasis
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:The patient is presenting with cholestatic jaundice, likely caused by the oral contraceptive pill. This results in intrahepatic jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. Paracetamol overdose and viral hepatitis would cause hepatocellular jaundice, while Gilbert’s syndrome is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. Choledocholithiasis could also cause obstructive cholestasis. It is appropriate to stop the pill and consider alternative contraception methods, and additional imaging may be necessary if jaundice doesn’t resolve.
Drug-induced liver disease can be categorized into three types: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there can be some overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of liver changes. Certain drugs tend to cause a hepatocellular picture, such as paracetamol, sodium valproate, and statins. On the other hand, drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill, flucloxacillin, and anabolic steroids tend to cause cholestasis with or without hepatitis. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone are known to cause liver cirrhosis. It is important to note that there are rare reported causes of drug-induced liver disease, such as nifedipine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Correct
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A patient in her early 30s calls in tears, requesting to speak with a doctor regarding her cervical screening test results. She has received a letter asking her to attend for colposcopy, and the results state 'Abnormal with borderline or low-grade cell changes.' She is distressed and wants to know if the test has detected cancer.
What is the typical meaning of this result?Your Answer: Premalignant changes
Explanation:The primary objective of cervical screening is to identify pre-cancerous alterations rather than detecting cancer.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK
Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.
The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.
In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.
While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the most appropriate next step in managing a patient with erectile dysfunction who has a reduced morning serum total testosterone level?
Your Answer: Repeat serum total testosterone along with FSH, LH and prolactin
Correct Answer: No action
Explanation:Testing for Reduced Serum Testosterone
Patients who exhibit symptoms of reduced serum testosterone should undergo a repeat test, preferably in the morning, along with FSH, LH, and prolactin. This helps determine which part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis is affected. It is crucial to take action as the patient may have an underlying endocrinological cause. If the repeat test shows abnormal results, referral to a secondary care physician is necessary. The physician may then consider treatments such as testogel or nebido.
In summary, testing for reduced serum testosterone is essential in diagnosing and treating patients with symptoms of low testosterone levels. A repeat test, along with other hormone tests, can help identify the root cause of the problem and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A female patient who is 36 weeks pregnant is seen feeling generally unwell. She has been vomiting and is complaining of right upper quadrant pain. Her blood pressure is 144/94 and urinalysis shows 2+ protein. Urgent blood tests are as follows.
Full blood count (FBC):
Haemoglobin 103 g/L (115-160)
White cell count 10.9 ×109L (4-11)
Platelets 78 ×109L (150-400)
Renal function:
Serum sodium +140 mmol/L (135-146)
Serum potassium +4.4 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Urea 6.4 mmol/L (3-7)
Creatinine 86 µmol/L (79-118)
Liver function:
Bilirubin 38 µmol/L (0-18)
Alanine aminotransferase 158 U/L (5-40)
Serum alkaline phosphatase 280 U/L (35-100)
Serum amylase 60 U/L (<160)
Serum lactate dehydrogenase 620 U/L (95-195)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: HELLP syndrome
Correct Answer: Acute cholecystitis
Explanation:HELLP Syndrome: A Dangerous Condition in Pregnant Women
HELLP syndrome is a serious condition that can occur in pregnant women who have pre-eclampsia or eclampsia. It is characterized by liver damage and abnormalities in blood clotting, which can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby.
The symptoms of HELLP syndrome include hypertension, right upper quadrant/epigastric pain, sickness/vomiting, and oedema. Haemolysis can cause anaemia and increase bilirubin levels, while elevated liver enzymes and low platelet counts are also common.
It’s important to note that even mild elevations in blood pressure can lead to HELLP syndrome in some cases. Pregnant women with a diastolic BP of 90 or more should be evaluated for a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. Additionally, changes in blood pressure should be monitored closely, as a significant rise in diastolic or systolic BP can be a warning sign of HELLP syndrome.
Overall, early detection and treatment of HELLP syndrome is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the baby. If you are pregnant and experiencing any of the symptoms associated with HELLP syndrome, it’s important to seek medical attention right away.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about ongoing premature ejaculation that he has encountered with multiple partners over a long period of time, causing him considerable mental anguish. He reports no issues with achieving or maintaining an erection.
What is the initial recommended treatment for this patient? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer: Psychosexual therapy (PST)
Correct Answer: Dapoxetine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Premature Ejaculation
Premature ejaculation affects a small percentage of men and can cause significant psychological distress. There are several treatment options available, including dapoxetine, fluoxetine, frenulectomy, psychosexual therapy (PST), and sildenafil. Dapoxetine is a short-acting selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI) that is taken on an ‘as required’ basis and has shown to be effective in clinical trials. Fluoxetine is commonly used off-licence and takes one to two weeks to become effective. Frenulectomy may be effective in reducing symptom burden, but more evidence is needed. PST may help in mild or intermittent cases, but is not recommended as the sole first-line treatment. Sildenafil can be used if there are concurrent problems with erectile dysfunction. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment option for individual cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of the following tumors is most likely to spread to the bone in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Prostate
Explanation:Metastasis to the bone is most frequently observed in cases of primary tumours of the prostate.
Bone Metastases: Common Tumours and Sites
Bone metastases occur when cancer cells from a primary tumour spread to the bones. The most common tumours that cause bone metastases are prostate, breast, and lung cancer, with prostate cancer being the most frequent. The most common sites for bone metastases are the spine, pelvis, ribs, skull, and long bones.
Aside from bone pain, other features of bone metastases may include pathological fractures, hypercalcaemia, and raised levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Pathological fractures occur when the bone weakens due to the cancer cells, causing it to break. Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is too much calcium in the blood, which can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, nausea, and confusion. ALP is an enzyme that is produced by bone cells, and its levels can be elevated in the presence of bone metastases.
A common diagnostic tool for bone metastases is an isotope bone scan, which uses technetium-99m labelled diphosphonates that accumulate in the bones. The scan can show multiple irregular foci of high-grade activity in the bones, indicating the presence of metastatic cancer. In the image provided, the bone scan shows multiple osteoblastic metastases in a patient with metastatic prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 28
Correct
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A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 60 develops urinary microalbuminuria (urinary albumin : creatinine ratio > 2.5 mg/mmol for men and > 3.5 mg/mmol for women).
Which of the following options is likely to confer the most benefit in terms of prognosis?Your Answer: Reduce blood pressure to 130/80 mmHg or less using angiotensin converting enzyme(ACE)inhibitors
Explanation:Microalbuminuria in Diabetes Mellitus
Microalbuminuria is a common occurrence in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is caused by damage to the renal basement membranes, which allows excess protein to leak into the affected nephrons. In type 1 diabetes, microalbuminuria is a prognostic indicator of chronic kidney disease, while in type 2 diabetes, it is associated with ischaemic heart disease.
To improve outcomes, it is crucial to aggressively control blood pressure, which is more important than other factors such as HbA1c control. However, HbA1c control should not be ignored. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are particularly helpful in controlling blood pressure and can even reverse microalbuminuria in affected patients. Therefore, it is essential to monitor and manage microalbuminuria in patients with diabetes mellitus to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child is evaluated for recurrent chest infections, the most recent accompanied by green sputum. The child's mother is opposed to vaccination and claims that the child had whooping cough approximately one year ago. What is the probable root cause of the child's symptoms?
Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Correct Answer: Post whooping cough bronchiectasis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Recurrent Respiratory Tract Infection
In the presence of a positive history of whooping cough, the most likely diagnosis is bronchiectasis with possible pseudomonas colonisation. This could be a result of untreated or poorly treated whooping cough infection. However, IgA deficiency, cystic fibrosis, and ciliary dysmotility are also possible causes of recurrent respiratory tract infection, but less likely to be the cause here.
It is recommended that the patient be referred to a paediatric respiratory specialist for further advice. A sweat test to exclude cystic fibrosis will certainly be part of the workup. It is important to identify the underlying cause of recurrent respiratory tract infection to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman suffered a whiplash injury to her neck six weeks ago when her car was struck from behind by another vehicle. She has just had a private assessment by an orthopaedic surgeon because she is pursuing a compensation claim. He has told her to come to see you to get some better treatment for her persisting neck pain. She says that until now she has been self-medicating with paracetamol with only limited benefit. She denies any symptoms of anxiety or depression.
Which of the following is the most appropriate INITIAL management?Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Managing Whiplash Symptoms: Treatment Options and Recommendations
Whiplash is a common injury that can cause pain and discomfort in the neck and shoulders. If a patient has already been taking paracetamol for their symptoms, the addition of Ibuprofen or other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be the next logical step. In some cases, patients may need to take both drugs regularly. Codeine is another alternative that can be added to paracetamol or ibuprofen.
It’s important to encourage patients to return to their normal activities as soon as possible. Physiotherapy can be helpful, but it’s most effective when started soon after the injury occurs. For those with late whiplash syndrome who don’t respond well to full-dose analgesics, a trial of amitriptyline, pregabalin, or gabapentin for one month may be helpful.
Keeping a pain diary can be useful, but it’s important to focus on function and abilities rather than pain and disability. Referral to a pain clinic is recommended at an early stage for chronic symptoms. Finally, behaviors that promote disability and enhance expectations of a poor outcome and chronic disability (such as wearing a collar) should be discouraged.
Managing Whiplash Symptoms: Treatment Options and Recommendations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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