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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with confirmed heart failure visits her GP with swelling and discomfort in both legs. During the examination, the GP observes pitting edema and decides to prescribe a brief trial of a diuretic. Which diuretic targets the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
Your Answer: Furosemide (loop diuretic)
Explanation:Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the most suitable pathological explanation for the initial processes that occur in an abdominal aortic aneurysm in a 67-year-old male with hypertension who is otherwise healthy?
Your Answer: Loss of collagen from the media
Correct Answer: Loss of elastic fibres from the media
Explanation:Aneurysmal disease is characterized by the expansion of all layers of the arterial wall and the depletion of both elastin and collagen. The initial occurrence involves the breakdown of elastic fibers, which leads to the deterioration of collagen fibers.
Understanding the Pathology of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins within the extracellular matrix fail, resulting in the dilation of all layers of the arterial wall. This degenerative disease is primarily caused by the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration. Aneurysms are typically considered aneurysmal when the diameter of the infrarenal aorta is 3 cm or greater, which is significantly larger than the normal diameter of 1.5cm in females and 1.7cm in males after the age of 50 years.
Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare but important causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. Understanding the pathology of abdominal aortic aneurysm is crucial in identifying and managing the risk factors associated with this condition. By addressing these risk factors, individuals can reduce their likelihood of developing an aneurysm and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Correct
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What changes occur in the newborn after delivery?
Your Answer: The ductus arteriosus closes
Explanation:Within a few hours of birth, the foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus, and umbilical vessels all close. The foramen ovale, which allows blood to bypass the lungs by shunting from the right atrium to the left atrium, closes as the lungs become functional and the left atrial pressure exceeds the right atrial pressure. The ductus arteriosus, which connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, also closes to form the ligamentum arteriosum, allowing blood to circulate into the pulmonary artery and become oxygenated. After a few days, Haemoglobin F is replaced by Haemoglobin A, which has a lower affinity for oxygen and may cause physiological jaundice in the newborn due to the breakdown of fetal blood cells. The first few breaths help to expel lung fluid from the fetal alveoli. If the ductus arteriosus fails to close, it can result in a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which can lead to serious health complications such as pulmonary hypertension, heart failure, and arrhythmias.
During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute chest pain. His ECG reveals ST depression in leads II, III, & aVF, and his troponin levels are elevated. He is diagnosed with NSTEMI and prescribed ticagrelor as part of his treatment plan.
What is the mechanism of action of ticagrelor?Your Answer: Inhibits ADP binding to platelet receptors
Explanation:Clopidogrel and ticagrelor have a similar mechanism of action in that they both inhibit the binding of ADP to platelet receptors. Heparin activates antithrombin III, which in turn inhibits factor Xa and IIa. DOACs like rivaroxaban directly inhibit factor Xa that is bound to the prothrombinase complex and associated with clots. Aspirin works by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, while warfarin inhibits VKORC1, which is responsible for the activation of vitamin K.
ADP receptor inhibitors, such as clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine, work by inhibiting the P2Y12 receptor, which leads to sustained platelet aggregation and stabilization of the platelet plaque. Clinical trials have shown that prasugrel and ticagrelor are more effective than clopidogrel in reducing short- and long-term ischemic events in high-risk patients with acute coronary syndrome or undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. However, ticagrelor may cause dyspnea due to impaired clearance of adenosine, and there are drug interactions and contraindications to consider for each medication. NICE guidelines recommend dual antiplatelet treatment with aspirin and ticagrelor for 12 months as a secondary prevention strategy for ACS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Correct
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Each of the following increases the production of endothelin, except for which one?
Your Answer: Prostacyclin
Explanation:Understanding Endothelin and Its Role in Various Diseases
Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by the vascular endothelium. Initially, it is produced as a prohormone and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme. Endothelin interacts with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C, leading to calcium release. This interaction is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases, including primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.
Endothelin is known to promote the release of angiotensin II, ADH, hypoxia, and mechanical shearing forces. On the other hand, it inhibits the release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin. Raised levels of endothelin are observed in primary pulmonary hypertension, myocardial infarction, heart failure, acute kidney injury, and asthma.
In recent years, endothelin antagonists have been used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension. Understanding the role of endothelin in various diseases can help in the development of new treatments and therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Ella, a 69-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department with abrupt tearing abdominal pain that radiates to her back.
Ella has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and diabetes. Her body mass index is 31 kg/m². She smokes 10 cigarettes a day.
The emergency physician orders an ECG and MRI, which confirm the diagnosis of an aortic dissection.
Which layer or layers of the aorta are impacted?Your Answer: Tear in tunica intima and media
Correct Answer: Tear in tunica intima
Explanation:An aortic dissection occurs when there is a tear in the innermost layer (tunica intima) of the aorta’s wall. This tear allows blood to flow into the space between the tunica intima and the middle layer (tunica media), causing pooling. The tear only affects the tunica intima layer and does not involve the outermost layer (tunica externa) or all three layers of the aortic wall.
Aortic dissection is a serious condition that can cause chest pain. It occurs when there is a tear in the inner layer of the aorta’s wall. Hypertension is the most significant risk factor, but it can also be associated with trauma, bicuspid aortic valve, and certain genetic disorders. Symptoms of aortic dissection include severe and sharp chest or back pain, weak or absent pulses, hypertension, and aortic regurgitation. Specific arteries’ involvement can cause other symptoms such as angina, paraplegia, or limb ischemia. The Stanford classification divides aortic dissection into type A, which affects the ascending aorta, and type B, which affects the descending aorta. The DeBakey classification further divides type A into type I, which extends to the aortic arch and beyond, and type II, which is confined to the ascending aorta. Type III originates in the descending aorta and rarely extends proximally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male comes to your clinic complaining of occasional chest pain that usually occurs after meals and typically subsides within a few hours. He has a medical history of bipolar disorder, osteoarthritis, gout, and hyperparathyroidism. Currently, he is undergoing a prolonged course of antibiotics for prostatitis.
During his visit, an ECG reveals a QT interval greater than 520 ms.
What is the most likely cause of the observed ECG changes?
- Lithium overdose
- Paracetamol use
- Hypercalcemia
- Erythromycin use
- Amoxicillin use
Explanation: The most probable cause of the prolonged QT interval is erythromycin use, which is commonly associated with this ECG finding. Given the patient's medical history, it is likely that he is taking erythromycin for his prostatitis. Amoxicillin is not known to cause QT prolongation. Lithium toxicity typically presents with symptoms such as vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and agitation. Hypercalcemia is more commonly associated with a short QT interval, making it an unlikely cause. Paracetamol is not known to cause QT prolongation.Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Erythromycin use
Explanation:The prolonged QT interval can be caused by erythromycin.
It is highly probable that the patient is taking erythromycin to treat his prostatitis, which is the reason for the prolonged QT interval.
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dyspnoea and fatigue that has been going on for 2 days. She reports experiencing similar episodes repeatedly over the past few years. She has no other medical history.
During the examination, you observe sporadic erythematous lesions on her shins and detect a pansystolic murmur. You request a chest x-ray, which reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and an enlarged heart.
What additional symptom is linked to this ailment?Your Answer: Reduced serum calcium
Correct Answer: Reduced ventricular ejection fraction
Explanation:Patients with reduced ejection fraction heart failure (HF-rEF) usually experience systolic dysfunction, which refers to the impaired ability of the myocardium to contract during systole.
Types of Heart Failure
Heart failure is a clinical syndrome where the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body’s metabolic needs. It can be classified in multiple ways, including by ejection fraction, time, and left/right side. Patients with heart failure may have a normal or abnormal left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF), which is measured using echocardiography. Reduced LVEF is typically defined as < 35 to 40% and is termed heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HF-rEF), while preserved LVEF is termed heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HF-pEF). Heart failure can also be described as acute or chronic, with acute heart failure referring to an acute exacerbation of chronic heart failure. Left-sided heart failure is more common and may be due to increased left ventricular afterload or preload, while right-sided heart failure is caused by increased right ventricular afterload or preload. High-output heart failure is another type of heart failure that occurs when a normal heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's metabolic needs. By classifying heart failure in these ways, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying causes and tailor treatment plans accordingly. It is important to note that many guidelines for the management of heart failure only cover HF-rEF patients and do not address the management of HF-pEF patients. Understanding the different types of heart failure can help healthcare professionals provide more effective care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old woman presents with stroke symptoms after experiencing difficulty speaking and changes in vision while at a hair salon. She developed a headache after having her hair washed, and further examination reveals a vertebral arterial dissection believed to be caused by hyperextension of her neck.
What is the pathway of this blood vessel as it enters the cranial cavity?Your Answer: Foramen spinosum
Correct Answer: Foramen magnum
Explanation:The vertebral arteries pass through the foramen magnum to enter the cranial cavity. If the neck is hyperextended, it can compress and potentially cause dissection of these arteries. A well-known example of this happening is when a person leans back to have their hair washed at a salon. The vertebral artery runs alongside the medulla in the foramen magnum. The carotid canal is not involved in this process, as it contains the carotid artery. Similarly, the foramen ovale contains the accessory meningeal artery, not the vertebral artery, and the foramen spinosum contains the middle meningeal artery, not the vertebral artery.
The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is seen in the stroke clinic for a history of transient paralysis and paresthesia in his left arm that resolved after 2 hours. The stroke clinicians suspect a transient ischaemic attack and plan to initiate secondary prevention treatment as per national guidelines.
What is the mode of action of the prescribed medication?Your Answer: Thromboxane synthase inhibitor
Correct Answer: ADP receptor inhibitor
Explanation:Clopidogrel works by inhibiting the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelet activation and is therefore classified as an ADP receptor inhibitor. This drug is recommended as secondary prevention for patients who have experienced symptoms of a transient ischaemic attack (TIA). Other examples of ADP receptor inhibitors include ticagrelor and prasugrel. Aspirin, on the other hand, is a cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitor that is used for pain control and management of ischaemic heart disease. Glycoprotein IIB/IIA inhibitors such as tirofiban and abciximab prevent platelet aggregation and thrombus formation by inhibiting the glycoprotein IIB/IIIA receptors. Picotamide is a thromboxane synthase inhibitor that is indicated for the management of acute coronary syndrome, as it inhibits the synthesis of thromboxane, a potent vasoconstrictor and facilitator of platelet aggregation.
Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease
Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.
Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 11
Correct
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A 55-year-old female is referred to the cardiologist by her GP due to experiencing postural dyspnoea and leg oedema for a few months. The cardiologist conducts an echocardiogram and finds out that her left ventricular ejection fraction is 34%. Based on her clinical presentation, she is diagnosed with congestive cardiac failure.
To alleviate her symptoms and improve her long-term prognosis, the patient is prescribed several medications. However, she visits the GP after two weeks, complaining of a dry, tickling cough that she attributes to one of her new medications.
Which medication is most likely causing this new symptom in the patient?Your Answer: Ramipril (ACE inhibitor)
Explanation:Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman has presented with dyspnea. During cardiovascular examination, a faint murmur is detected in the mitral area. If the diagnosis is mitral stenosis, what is the most probable factor that would increase the loudness and clarity of the murmur during auscultation?
Your Answer: Listen over the 4th intercostal space
Correct Answer: Ask the patient to breathe out
Explanation:To accentuate the sound of a left-sided murmur consistent with mitral stenosis during a cardiovascular examination, the patient should be asked to exhale. Conversely, a right-sided murmur is louder during inspiration. Listening in the left lateral position while the patient is lying down can also emphasize a mitral stenosis. To identify a mitral regurgitation murmur, listening in the axilla is helpful as it radiates. Diastolic murmurs can be heard better with a position change, while systolic murmurs tend to radiate and can be distinguished by listening in different anatomical landmarks. For example, an aortic stenosis may radiate to the carotids, while an aortic regurgitation may be heard better with the patient leaning forward.
Understanding Mitral Stenosis
Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, which controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, becomes obstructed. This leads to an increase in pressure within the left atrium, pulmonary vasculature, and right side of the heart. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever, but it can also be caused by other rare conditions such as mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid, and endocardial fibroelastosis.
Symptoms of mitral stenosis include dyspnea, hemoptysis, a mid-late diastolic murmur, a loud S1, and a low volume pulse. Severe cases may also present with an increased length of murmur and a closer opening snap to S2. Chest x-rays may show left atrial enlargement, while echocardiography can confirm a cross-sectional area of less than 1 sq cm for a tight mitral stenosis.
Management of mitral stenosis depends on the severity of the condition. Asymptomatic patients are monitored with regular echocardiograms, while symptomatic patients may undergo percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy or mitral valve surgery. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation require anticoagulation, with warfarin currently recommended for moderate/severe cases. However, there is an emerging consensus that direct-acting anticoagulants may be suitable for mild cases with atrial fibrillation.
Overall, understanding mitral stenosis is important for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 13
Correct
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A 79-year-old man has just noticed that his heart is beating irregularly. Upon examination, his pulse is found to be irregularly irregular with a rate of 56 bpm. What ECG findings would you anticipate?
Your Answer: No P wave preceding each QRS complex
Explanation:Atrial Fibrillation and its Causes
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition characterized by irregular heartbeats due to the constant activity of the atria. This can lead to the absence of distinct P waves, making it difficult to diagnose. AF can be caused by various factors such as hyperthyroidism, alcohol excess, mitral stenosis, and fibrous degeneration. The primary risks associated with AF are strokes and cardiac failure. Blood clots can form in the atria due to the lack of atrial movement, which can then be distributed into the systemic circulation, leading to strokes. High rates of AF can also cause syncopal episodes and cardiac failure.
The treatment of AF can be divided into controlling the rate or rhythm. If the rhythm cannot be controlled reliably, long-term anticoagulation with warfarin may be necessary to reduce the risk of stroke, depending on other risk factors. Bifid P waves are associated with hypertrophy of the left atrium, while regular P waves with no relation to QRS complexes are seen in complete heart block. Small P waves can be seen in hypokalaemia.
In cases of AF with shock, immediate medical attention is necessary, and emergency drug or electronic cardioversion may be needed. the causes and risks associated with AF is crucial in managing the condition and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the following is accountable for the swift depolarization phase of the cardiac action potential?
Your Answer: Rapid sodium influx
Explanation:Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 15
Correct
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A 75-year-old male presents with an ejection systolic murmur that is most audible over the aortic region. The patient also reports experiencing dyspnoea and angina. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Differentiating Aortic Stenosis from Other Cardiac Conditions
Aortic stenosis is a common cardiac condition that can be identified through auscultation. However, it is important to differentiate it from other conditions such as aortic sclerosis, HOCM, pulmonary stenosis, and aortic regurgitation. While aortic sclerosis may also present with an ejection systolic murmur, it is typically asymptomatic. The presence of dyspnoea, angina, or syncope would suggest a diagnosis of aortic stenosis instead. HOCM would not typically cause these symptoms, and pulmonary stenosis would not be associated with a murmur at the location of the aortic valve. Aortic regurgitation, on the other hand, would present with a wide pulse pressure and an early diastolic murmur. Therefore, careful consideration of symptoms and additional diagnostic tests may be necessary to accurately diagnose and differentiate between these cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A patient in his late 60s presents with dyspnoea, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, fatigue, cyanosis. A diagnosis of acute heart failure is made. He is started on diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers but shows minimal improvement with medications.
What should be considered if he continues to fail to improve?Your Answer: Opiates
Correct Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure
Explanation:If a patient with acute heart failure does not show improvement with appropriate medication, CPAP should be considered as a viable treatment option.
Heart failure requires acute management, with recommended treatments including IV loop diuretics such as furosemide or bumetanide. Oxygen may also be given in accordance with British Thoracic Society guidelines to maintain oxygen saturations between 94-98%. Vasodilators such as nitrates should not be routinely given to all patients, but may be considered for those with concomitant myocardial ischaemia, severe hypertension, or regurgitant aortic or mitral valve disease. However, hypotension is a major side-effect and contraindication.
For patients with respiratory failure, CPAP may be used. In cases of hypotension or cardiogenic shock, treatment can be challenging as loop diuretics and nitrates may exacerbate hypotension. Inotropic agents like dobutamine may be considered for patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction and potentially reversible cardiogenic shock. Vasopressor agents like norepinephrine are typically only used if there is insufficient response to inotropes and evidence of end-organ hypoperfusion. Mechanical circulatory assistance such as intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation or ventricular assist devices may also be used.
While opiates were previously used routinely to reduce dyspnoea/distress in patients, NICE now advises against routine use due to studies suggesting increased morbidity in patients given opiates. Regular medication for heart failure such as beta-blockers and ACE-inhibitors should be continued, with beta-blockers only stopped if the patient has a heart rate less than 50 beats per minute, second or third degree atrioventricular block, or shock.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following events is commonly observed in the arterioles of individuals with malignant hypertension?
Your Answer: Caseous necrosis
Correct Answer: Fibrinoid necrosis
Explanation:Arterioles of patients with malignant hypertension exhibit fibrinoid necrosis.
Understanding Cell Death: Necrosis and Apoptosis
Cell death can occur through two mechanisms: necrosis and apoptosis. Necrosis is characterized by a failure in bioenergetics, which leads to tissue hypoxia and the inability to generate ATP. This results in the loss of cellular membrane integrity, energy-dependent transport mechanisms, and ionic instability, leading to cellular lysis and the release of intracellular contents that may stimulate an inflammatory response. Different types of necrosis exist, including coagulative, colliquative, caseous, gangrene, fibrinoid, and fat necrosis, with the predominant pattern depending on the tissue type and underlying cause.
On the other hand, apoptosis, also known as programmed cell death, is an energy-dependent process that involves the activation of caspases triggered by intracellular signaling mechanisms. This results in DNA fragmentation, mitochondrial dysfunction, and nuclear and cellular shrinkage, leading to the formation of apoptotic bodies. Unlike necrosis, phagocytosis of the cell does not occur, and the cell degenerates into apoptotic bodies.
Understanding the mechanisms of cell death is crucial in various fields, including medicine, biology, and pathology. By identifying the type of cell death, clinicians and researchers can better understand the underlying causes and develop appropriate interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is shot in the postero-inferior aspect of his thigh. What structure is located at the most lateral aspect of the popliteal fossa?
Your Answer: Tibial nerve
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The structures found in the popliteal fossa, listed from medial to lateral, include the popliteal artery, popliteal vein, tibial nerve, and common peroneal nerve. The sural nerve, which is a branch of the tibial nerve, typically originates at the lower part of the popliteal fossa, but its location may vary.
Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa
The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.
The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.
Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 19
Correct
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A 50-year-old man is brought to the acute medical ward with red flag sepsis, possibly originating from the urinary tract. Upon arrival, his blood pressure is recorded as 90/60mmHg, and he exhibits cool, mottled skin peripherally. To increase his preload and stroke volume, a fluid bolus is administered. What other physiological parameter is likely to be observed?
Your Answer: Increased pulse pressure
Explanation:When stroke volume increases, pulse pressure also increases. This is important to consider in the management of shock, where intravenous fluids can increase preload and stroke volume. Factors that affect stroke volume include preload, cardiac contractility, and afterload. Pulse pressure can be calculated by subtracting diastolic blood pressure from systolic blood pressure.
Decreased cardiac output is not a result of increased stroke volume, as cardiac output is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate. An increase in stroke volume would actually lead to an increase in cardiac output.
Similarly, decreased mean arterial pressure is not a result of increased stroke volume, as mean arterial pressure is calculated by multiplying cardiac output by total peripheral resistance. An increase in stroke volume would lead to an increase in mean arterial pressure.
Lastly, increased heart rate is not a direct result of increased stroke volume, as heart rate is calculated by dividing cardiac output by stroke volume. An increase in stroke volume would actually lead to a decrease in heart rate.
Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.
Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.
Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old is suffering from tonsillitis and experiencing significant pain. Which nerve is responsible for providing sensory innervation to the tonsillar fossa?
Your Answer: Facial nerve
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:The tonsillar fossa is primarily innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve, with a smaller contribution from the lesser palatine nerve. As a result, patients may experience ear pain (otalgia) after undergoing a tonsillectomy.
Tonsil Anatomy and Tonsillitis
The tonsils are located in the pharynx and have two surfaces, a medial and lateral surface. They vary in size and are usually supplied by the tonsillar artery and drained by the jugulodigastric and deep cervical nodes. Tonsillitis is a common condition that is usually caused by bacteria, with group A Streptococcus being the most common culprit. It can also be caused by viruses. In some cases, tonsillitis can lead to the development of an abscess, which can distort the uvula. Tonsillectomy is recommended for patients with recurrent acute tonsillitis, suspected malignancy, or enlargement causing sleep apnea. The preferred technique for tonsillectomy is dissection, but it can be complicated by hemorrhage, which is the most common complication. Delayed otalgia may also occur due to irritation of the glossopharyngeal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 21
Correct
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Isabella is an 82-year-old female who visits the cardiology clinic for a check-up. She experienced a heart attack half a year ago and has been experiencing swollen ankles and difficulty breathing when lying down. You suspect heart failure and arrange for an echocardiogram, prescribe diuretic medications, and conduct a blood test. What blood marker can indicate excessive stretching of the heart muscle?
Your Answer: Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
Explanation:BNP is produced by the ventricles of the heart when the cardiomyocytes are excessively stretched. Its overall effect is to reduce blood pressure by decreasing systemic vascular resistance and increasing natriuresis.
Troponin is a protein that plays a role in cardiac muscle contraction and is a specific and sensitive marker for myocardial damage in cases of myocardial infarction.
Creatine kinase and LDH can be used as acute markers for myocardial infarction.
Myoglobin is released after muscle damage, but it is not specific to acute myocardial infarction and is typically measured in cases of rhabdomyolysis.
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.
BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 22
Correct
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A father is extremely worried that his 2-day-old baby appears blue following a forceps delivery. What causes the ductus arteriosus to close during birth?
Your Answer: Reduced level of prostaglandins
Explanation:During fetal development, the ductus arteriosus links the pulmonary artery to the proximal descending aorta. This enables blood from the right ventricle to bypass the non-functioning lungs and enter the systemic circulation.
After birth, the blood’s oxygen tension increases, and the level of prostaglandins decreases. These changes cause the patent ductus arteriosus to close. Additionally, an increase in left atrial pressure leads to the closure of the foramen ovale, which connects the left and right atria. Nitric oxide plays a role in vasodilation, particularly during pregnancy, but it is not directly responsible for duct closure. VEGF promotes angiogenesis in hypoxic conditions, but it is largely irrelevant in this context.
Understanding Patent Ductus Arteriosus
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is generally classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left uncorrected, it can eventually result in late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is termed differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta. Normally, the ductus arteriosus closes with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow, which enhances prostaglandins clearance. However, in some cases, this connection remains open, leading to patent ductus arteriosus.
This condition is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection in the first trimester. The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, and heaving apex beat.
The management of patent ductus arteriosus involves the use of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which are given to the neonate. These medications inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and close the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Understanding patent ductus arteriosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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During the repair of an atrial septal defect, the surgeons notice blood leakage from the coronary sinus. What is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus?
Your Answer: Thebesian veins
Correct Answer: Great cardiac vein
Explanation:The largest tributary of the coronary sinus is the great cardiac vein, which runs in the anterior interventricular groove. The heart is drained directly by the Thebesian veins.
The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man has been experiencing abdominal pain that worsens after eating, along with nausea and weight loss. Imaging suggests that he may have median arcuate ligament syndrome, which is compressing a branch of the abdominal aorta that supplies the foregut. As a result, he is scheduled for surgical decompression of this vessel. Can you name the three branches of this occluded aortic branch?
Your Answer: Right gastric, hepatic, pancreatic
Correct Answer: Left gastric, hepatic, splenic
Explanation:The three branches of the coeliac trunk are the left gastric, hepatic, and splenic arteries, which can be remembered by the mnemonic Left Hand Side (LHS).
The Coeliac Axis and its Branches
The coeliac axis is a major artery that supplies blood to the upper abdominal organs. It has three main branches: the left gastric, hepatic, and splenic arteries. The hepatic artery further branches into the right gastric, gastroduodenal, right gastroepiploic, superior pancreaticoduodenal, and cystic arteries. Meanwhile, the splenic artery gives off the pancreatic, short gastric, and left gastroepiploic arteries. Occasionally, the coeliac axis also gives off one of the inferior phrenic arteries.
The coeliac axis is located anteriorly to the lesser omentum and is related to the right and left coeliac ganglia, as well as the caudate process of the liver and the gastric cardia. Inferiorly, it is in close proximity to the upper border of the pancreas and the renal vein.
Understanding the anatomy and branches of the coeliac axis is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper abdominal organs, such as pancreatic cancer or gastric ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe cramping pain in his leg at rest. He has a medical history of peripheral vascular disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and hypertension.
During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 138/92 mmHg, respiratory rate at 22/min, and oxygen saturations at 99%. The healthcare provider performs a neurovascular exam of the lower limbs and palpates the pulses.
Which area should be palpated first?Your Answer: Posteriorly and inferiorly to medial malleolus
Correct Answer: First metatarsal space on dorsum of foot
Explanation:To assess lower leg pulses, it is recommended to start from the most distal point and move towards the proximal area. This helps to identify the location of any occlusion. The first pulse to be checked is the dorsalis pedis pulse, which is located on the dorsum of the foot in the first metatarsal space, lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon. Palpating behind the knee or in the fourth metatarsal space is incorrect, as no pulse can be felt there. The posterior tibial pulse can be felt posteriorly and inferiorly to the medial malleolus, but it should not be assessed first as it is not as distal as the dorsalis pedis pulse.
The anterior tibial artery starts opposite the lower border of the popliteus muscle and ends in front of the ankle, where it continues as the dorsalis pedis artery. As it descends, it runs along the interosseous membrane, the distal part of the tibia, and the front of the ankle joint. The artery passes between the tendons of the extensor digitorum and extensor hallucis longus muscles as it approaches the ankle. The deep peroneal nerve is closely related to the artery, lying anterior to the middle third of the vessel and lateral to it in the lower third.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 26
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient has a cardiac output of 6 L/min and a heart rate of 60/min. Her end-diastolic left ventricular volume is 200ml. What is her left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF)?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.
Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.
Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 27
Correct
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A 50-year-old man comes in with a lipoma situated at the back of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, about 4 cm above the middle third of the clavicle. While performing surgery to remove the growth, problematic bleeding is encountered. What is the most probable origin of the bleeding?
Your Answer: External jugular vein
Explanation:The superficial fascia of the posterior triangle contains the external jugular vein, which runs diagonally and drains into the subclavian vein. Surgeons must be careful during exploration of this area to avoid injuring the external jugular vein and causing excessive bleeding. The internal jugular vein and carotid arteries are located in the anterior triangle, while the third part of the subclavian artery is found in the posterior triangle, not the second part.
The posterior triangle of the neck is an area that is bound by the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, the occipital bone, and the middle third of the clavicle. Within this triangle, there are various nerves, vessels, muscles, and lymph nodes. The nerves present include the accessory nerve, phrenic nerve, and three trunks of the brachial plexus, as well as branches of the cervical plexus such as the supraclavicular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, great auricular nerve, and lesser occipital nerve. The vessels found in this area are the external jugular vein and subclavian artery. Additionally, there are muscles such as the inferior belly of omohyoid and scalene, as well as lymph nodes including the supraclavicular and occipital nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 28
Correct
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A 25-year-old man experiences a blunt head trauma and presents with a GCS of 7 upon admission. What is the primary factor influencing cerebral blood flow in this scenario?
Your Answer: Intracranial pressure
Explanation:Cerebral blood flow can be impacted by both hypoxaemia and acidosis, but in cases of trauma, the likelihood of increased intracranial pressure is much higher, particularly when the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is low. This can have a negative impact on cerebral blood flow.
Understanding Cerebral Blood Flow and Angiography
Cerebral blood flow is regulated by the central nervous system, which can adjust its own blood supply. Various factors can affect cerebral pressure, including CNS metabolism, trauma, pressure, and systemic carbon dioxide levels. The most potent mediator is PaCO2, while acidosis and hypoxemia can also increase cerebral blood flow to a lesser degree. In patients with head injuries, increased intracranial pressure can impair blood flow. The Monro-Kelly Doctrine governs intracerebral pressure, which considers the brain as a closed box, and changes in pressure are offset by the loss of cerebrospinal fluid. However, when this is no longer possible, intracranial pressure rises.
Cerebral angiography is an invasive test that involves injecting contrast media into the carotid artery using a catheter. Radiographs are taken as the dye works its way through the cerebral circulation. This test can be used to identify bleeding aneurysms, vasospasm, and arteriovenous malformations, as well as differentiate embolism from large artery thrombosis. Understanding cerebral blood flow and angiography is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes to his GP for a medication review. His medical record shows that he has vertebral artery stenosis, which greatly elevates his chances of experiencing a stroke in the posterior circulation.
Can you identify the location where the impacted arteries converge to create the basilar artery?Your Answer: Pontomesencephalic junction
Correct Answer: Base of the pons
Explanation:The basilar artery is formed by the union of the vertebral arteries at the base of the pons, which is the most appropriate answer. If a patient has stenosis in their vertebral artery, it can increase the risk of a posterior circulation stroke by reducing perfusion to the brain or causing an arterial embolus.
The anterior aspect of the spinal cord is not the most appropriate answer as it is supplied by the anterior spinal arteries, which branch off the vertebral arteries and descend past the anterior aspect of the brainstem to supply the spinal cord’s anterior aspects.
The region anterior to the cavernous sinus is not the most appropriate answer. The internal carotid arteries pass anterior to the cavernous sinus before branching off to anastomose with the circle of Willis, mainly contributing to the anterior circulation of the brain.
The pontomesencephalic junction is not the most appropriate answer. The superior cerebellar arteries branch off from the distal basilar artery at the pontomesencephalic junction.
The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 30
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of shortness of breath and swelling in his lower limbs. To aid in diagnosis, the doctor orders a B-type natriuretic peptide test. What triggers the production of B-type natriuretic peptide in heart failure?
Your Answer: Increased ventricular filling pressure
Explanation:When the ventricles are under strain, they release B-type natriuretic peptide. Normally, increased ventricular filling pressures would result in a larger diastolic volume and cardiac output through the Frank-Starling mechanism. However, in heart failure, this mechanism is overwhelmed and the ventricles are stretched too much for a strong contraction.
To treat heart failure, ACE inhibitors are used to decrease the amount of BNP produced. A decrease in stroke volume is a sign of heart failure. The body compensates for heart failure by increasing activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.
BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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