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Question 1
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A 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after slipping on ice. He has a painful left leg that appears shortened and externally rotated. There are no visible skin breaks and no peripheral neurovascular compromise. An x-ray reveals a stable, complete, intertrochanteric proximal femur fracture. The patient has no medical history and takes no regular medications. He is given pain relief and referred to the orthopaedic team. What is the recommended procedure for his condition?
Your Answer: Dynamic hip screw
Explanation:The optimal surgical management for an extracapsular proximal femoral fracture is a dynamic hip screw. This is the recommended approach for patients who are fit and have no comorbidities that would prevent them from undergoing surgery. Conservative management is not appropriate as it would lead to a reduced quality of life and is only considered for patients who cannot undergo surgery.
Intramedullary nails with external fixation are used for lower extremity long bone fractures, such as femur or tibia fractures. This involves inserting a nail into the bone alongside external fixation screws that are attached to a device outside the skin to provide additional support and realign the bone if necessary. External fixation is temporary and will be removed once the bone has healed sufficiently.
Hemiarthroplasty, which involves replacing the femoral head and neck, is typically used for displaced fractures and is less complicated than a total hip replacement (THR). It is suitable for less active patients who want to return to normal activities of daily living. However, THR is becoming more popular for active patients with displaced femoral neck fractures and pre-existing hip osteoarthritis. As this patient does not have a displaced fracture, THR is not necessary.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy presents to his General Practitioner with his mother three weeks following his recent admission to the Paediatric Ward where he was treated for Kawasaki disease. He responded well to his treatment in the hospital.
His mother asks if her son still needs to be taking the treatment prescribed by the Paediatric Team.
Which of the following treatments is the patient likely to still be taking?Your Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin weekly
Correct Answer: Oral aspirin daily
Explanation:Treatment Options for Kawasaki Disease: Understanding the Use of Aspirin
Kawasaki disease is a condition that affects children and causes inflammation in the blood vessels throughout the body. When diagnosed, treatment typically involves intravenous immunoglobulin and aspirin. In this article, we will discuss the use of aspirin in the treatment of Kawasaki disease and why it is important.
Oral aspirin is given to patients with Kawasaki disease due to its anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet properties. It helps to reduce the chances of blood clots if there are developing problems in the heart, such as coronary artery aneurysms that can occur in Kawasaki disease. The dosage of aspirin is usually higher (30 mg/kg per day) for up to two weeks and then continued at lower doses (3-5 mg/kg per day) until a review of echocardiogram, which is usually 6-8 weeks after the onset of illness.
If the review echocardiogram at 6-8 weeks shows no evidence of any coronary artery aneurysms, then aspirin is usually stopped. However, until that time, patients with Kawasaki disease will continue to take oral aspirin daily.
It is important to note that other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications such as ibuprofen should be avoided while taking aspirin. Additionally, oral steroids are a second-line treatment that are considered when there is failure to respond to initial intravenous immunoglobulin therapy.
In conclusion, aspirin is an important part of the treatment for Kawasaki disease due to its anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet properties. Patients with Kawasaki disease will continue to take oral aspirin daily until a review echocardiogram shows no evidence of any coronary artery aneurysms. It is important to follow the treatment plan prescribed by a specialist to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman reports experiencing discomfort in the plantar midfoot area between the third and fourth toes while wearing high heels.
What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?Your Answer: Morton’s neuroma
Explanation:Common Foot Conditions and Their Symptoms
Morton’s Neuroma: This condition is characterized by perineural fibrosis and common digital nerve degeneration, resulting in neuropathic pain in the forefoot and interdigital space. The third web space is most commonly affected, and pain is aggravated by narrow, tight, high-heeled shoes. Treatment involves local steroid injections and footwear advice.
Claw Toe: In this condition, there is MTP dorsiflexion with PIP and DIP flexion affecting any of the second to fifth toes. Patients often report pain at the PIP joint due to pressure from a shoe on the toe.
Achilles Tendonitis: This results in activity-related pain and swelling of the Achilles tendon, felt at the lower calf. The toes are unaffected. Management includes rest, NSAIDs, heel padding, physiotherapy, and steroid injections.
Hammer Toe: This is a deformity of the second, third, or fourth toe, characterized by progressive PIP flexion deformity and compensatory hyperextension of the MTP and DIP joints. The PIP joint becomes prominent dorsally, causing pain when rubbing against the shoe.
Plantar Fasciitis: This is a pain in the inferior heel at the attachment of the medial band of the plantar fascia to the medial calcaneal tubercle. It is a chronic inflammatory process and an overuse injury, with pain worst in the morning. Treatment involves shoes with arch support, soft heels and heel padding, regular stretching exercises, NSAIDs, and local steroid injections.
Understanding Common Foot Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents with a swollen second toe and ankle pain associated with a history of generalised fatigue. He has no other symptoms and no previous medical history. His brother suffers from psoriasis. He had the following blood test results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 132 g/l 135–175 g/l
White blood cells 7.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Rheumatoid factor Negative Negative
Antinuclear antibody Negative Negative
Estimated sedimentation rate (ESR) 78 mm/h 0–10 mm/h
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Psoriatic Arthritis and Differential Diagnosis
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and can present in various ways, including symmetric polyarthritis, asymmetrical oligo-arthritis, sacroiliitis, distal interphalangeal joint disease, and arthritis mutilans. It affects both men and women equally, and around 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop psoriatic arthritis.
When considering a differential diagnosis, osteoarthritis is unlikely in this age group, and the presence of a raised estimated sedimentation rate and fatigue in the absence of trauma suggests an inflammatory process. Gout often affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe, while rheumatoid arthritis can also affect women of this age group, but psoriatic arthritis is more likely if the patient has dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis. Systemic lupus erythematosus can also affect women of this age group, but again, psoriatic arthritis is more likely if dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis are present.
In conclusion, understanding the presentation and differential diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents to his GP with difficulty extending his ring and little finger on his left hand. Upon examination, the GP notes thickening of the palm and limited extension of the metacarpophalangeal joints, leading to a diagnosis of Dupuytren's contracture. The patient has a medical history of psoriasis, epilepsy, heart failure, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which medication prescribed to the patient is most commonly linked to the development of this condition?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin treatment may lead to the development of Dupuytren’s contracture as a potential adverse effect.
Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture
Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.
The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.
Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding juvenile idiopathic arthritis is accurate?
Your Answer: It is equally common in men and women
Correct Answer: Achilles tendonitis is a recognised association
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Correct
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A 60-year-old white man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and hip pain. His serum alkaline phosphatase level is 1000 iu/l (39–117 iu/l), calcium 2.25 mmol/l (2.2–2.67 mmol/l) and phosphate 1.2 mmol/l (0.8–1.5 mmol/l). Other liver function tests (LFTs) are normal. He also complains of difficulty in hearing.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Explanation:Bone Disorders and Blood Biochemistry: Understanding the Differences
Bone disorders can be difficult to diagnose, as many of them share similar symptoms. However, blood biochemistry can often provide clues to help differentiate between them. Here, we will discuss several common bone disorders and their associated blood biochemistry.
Paget’s Disease of Bone
Paget’s disease of bone is a disorder of bone remodeling that typically affects patients over the age of 40. Symptoms include bone and joint pain, deformities, nerve compression, and pathological fractures. Blood biochemistry typically shows raised serum alkaline phosphatase, with normal calcium and phosphate levels. Bisphosphonates are the mainstay of treatment.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Lung
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is the second most common form of lung cancer and is strongly linked to smoking. Symptoms include cough, wheeze, and haemoptysis. Squamous cell carcinomas can cause hypercalcaemia as part of the paraneoplastic syndrome, but normal calcium levels and lack of respiratory symptoms may rule out this diagnosis.
Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells of the bone marrow. Normal calcium levels and the mention of hearing loss may rule out this diagnosis.
Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a disease of inadequate bone mineralization, most commonly caused by vitamin D deficiency. Symptoms include bony pain, muscle tenderness and weakness, pathological fractures, and proximal myopathy. Blood biochemistry may reveal hypocalcaemia and raised alkaline phosphatase.
Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is caused by decreased bone density and tends to present initially with a fragility fracture. Blood biochemistry would be normal in a patient with osteoporosis.
In summary, understanding the differences in blood biochemistry can help differentiate between common bone disorders. This knowledge can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Correct
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During a routine medication review, you observe your patient, a 50 year-old male, displaying some skin changes. The knuckles of both hands have purplish plaques, and the patient's eyelids also appear purple. There is no history of skin problems in the patient's medical records. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dermatomyositis
Explanation:Dermatomyositis is a connective tissue disease that presents with skin changes such as plaques on the knuckles and eyelids, scaling of the scalp, and changes to the nail beds and cuticles. It is often accompanied by inflammation of the proximal muscles causing weakness. It can be an autoimmune condition or a paraneoplastic syndrome and is treated with immunosuppressants.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilatation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Correct
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A 56-year-old man is seen for follow-up after experiencing his third episode of gout in the past year, affecting his first metatarsophalangeal joint. His serum uric acid level is measured at 485 µmol/l. What is the recommended course of action for his ongoing management?
Your Answer: Start allopurinol 100mg od + diclofenac 50mg tds
Explanation:Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old female presents to her GP with a 4-week history of bilateral shoulder pain. She also experiences stiffness in her shoulders in the morning which improves throughout the day. She reports feeling generally fatigued. No other joints are affected. The patient has a history of osteoarthritis in her left knee.
During examination, the patient's observations are normal. There is no swelling or redness in the shoulders, and she has a full range of motion bilaterally. Upper limb power is 5/5 bilaterally with normal sensation.
Based on the patient's history and examination, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), which is a common inflammatory condition in older adults. The sudden onset of pain and stiffness in the shoulders and hips, along with systemic symptoms such as fatigue and anorexia, are typical of PMR. Osteoarthritis, fibromyalgia, hypothyroidism, and adhesive capsulitis are less likely diagnoses, as they do not typically present with acute onset of symptoms or systemic involvement. However, it is important to rule out hypothyroidism by checking thyroid function. Frozen shoulder may cause shoulder pain and stiffness, but it is usually associated with restricted range of motion and does not typically cause systemic symptoms.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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