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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding that has been going on for 2 days. The bleeding worsens after passing stools. He has recently increased his fibre intake, but he still finds it very difficult to pass stools. Defecation causes him severe pain that lasts for hours. During the examination, you try to perform a DRE, but the patient experiences severe pain, making it impossible to complete the procedure. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Correct Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      Common Anal Conditions and Their Differentiating Features

      Anal conditions can cause discomfort and pain, but each has its own unique symptoms and characteristics. Anal fissures, for example, are caused by a tear in the sensitive skin-lined lower anal canal and cause acute pain on defecation. Treatment involves analgesia or topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) or diltiazem to relax the sphincter. Rectal prolapse, on the other hand, causes a mass protruding through the anus and may also result in constipation and/or faecal incontinence. Fistula in ano is an abnormal connection between the anal canal and perianal skin, while anal carcinoma is a rare but serious condition that presents with rectal bleeding, unexplained weight loss, persistent change in bowel habit, iron deficiency anaemia, and abdominal or rectal mass. Finally, haemorrhoids are vascular cushions in the anal canal that usually cause painless PR bleeding, but rarely cause discomfort. Understanding the differentiating features of these common anal conditions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dyspnea. A chest x-ray...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dyspnea. A chest x-ray is performed, and pleural fluid is aspirated for analysis. The pleural fluid results reveal:
      - Fluid Protein 58 g/L (normal range: 10-20g/L)
      - Fluid LDH 1048 IU/L (less than 50% of plasma concentration)
      - Fluid Glucose 1.2 mmol/L (normal range: 4-11 mmol/L)
      - Fluid pH 7.23 (normal range: 7.60-7.64)
      - Cell Cytology shows normal cytology with benign reactive changes

      His admission blood results are as follows:
      - Hb 145 g/L (normal range: 135-180)
      - Platelets 376 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - Total Protein 73 g/L (normal range: 60-83)
      - PT 11.2 s (normal range: 11-13.5)
      - LDH 145 IU/L (normal range: 135-225)
      - Glucose 5.8 mmol/L (normal range: 4-8)
      - pH 7.38 (normal range: 7.35-7.45)

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Insert a chest drain and commence antibiotic therapy

      Explanation:

      Prompt drainage alongside antibiotic therapy is necessary for the management of an empyema. Therefore, the correct course of action is to insert a chest drain and commence antibiotic therapy. The diagnosis of empyema can be confirmed using Light’s criteria, which indicates an exudative effusion with a pleural fluid protein to serum protein ratio greater than 0.5 and/or a pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH ratio greater than 0.6. A pleural fluid pH <7.3 and a very low pleural glucose concentration (<1.6 mmol/L) are also indicative of empyema. The normal cell cytology makes malignancy unlikely. The patient's platelet and PT levels are appropriate for chest drain insertion, so there is no need to refer for investigation under the oncology team or to gastroenterology to investigate for liver cirrhosis. Starting IV antibiotics alone is insufficient for managing an empyema, as prompt drainage is necessary to give antibiotics the best chance of success. A chest drain is a tube that is inserted into the pleural cavity to allow air or liquid to move out of the cavity. It is used in cases of pleural effusion, pneumothorax, empyema, haemothorax, haemopneumothorax, chylothorax, and some cases of penetrating chest wall injury in ventilated patients. However, there are relative contraindications to chest drain insertion, such as an INR greater than 1.3, a platelet count less than 75, pulmonary bullae, and pleural adhesions. The patient should be positioned in a supine position or at a 45º angle, and the area should be anaesthetised using local anaesthetic injection. The drainage tube is then inserted using a Seldinger technique and secured with either a straight stitch or an adhesive dressing. Complications that may occur include failure of insertion, bleeding, infection, penetration of the lung, and re-expansion pulmonary oedema. The chest drain should be removed when there has been no output for > 24 hours and imaging shows resolution of the fluid collection or pneumothorax. Drains inserted in cases of penetrating chest injury should be reviewed by the specialist to confirm an appropriate time for removal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      195.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of abnormal sensations in...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of abnormal sensations in his right hand and forearm. He reports experiencing numbness and tingling in the back of his hand, particularly around his thumb, index, and middle finger. Additionally, he has noticed weakness in his elbow and wrist. Upon examination, the GP observes reduced power in elbow and wrist extension on the right side. The patient denies any history of trauma to the arm and does not engage in extreme sports. He works as a security agent and often sleeps in a chair during his night shifts. X-rays of the right wrist, elbow, and shoulder reveal no apparent fractures. What is the most probable diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Radial Nerve Palsy from Other Upper Limb Pathologies

      Radial nerve palsy is a condition that affects the extensors of the wrist and forearms, as well as the sensation of the back of the hands at the thumb, index, middle, and radial side of the ring finger. It is often caused by compression or injury to the radial nerve, which can occur from sleeping in an awkward position or other trauma. This condition is commonly referred to as Saturday night palsy.

      It is important to differentiate radial nerve palsy from other upper limb pathologies, such as carpal tunnel syndrome, Erb’s palsy, cubital tunnel syndrome, and Klumpke’s palsy. Carpal tunnel syndrome involves compression of the median nerve at the wrist, causing tingling, numbness, and pain in the palmar side of the thumb, index, middle, and ring finger area. Erb’s palsy is an injury to the brachial plexus involving the upper roots, usually occurring during delivery and causing an adducted and internally rotated shoulder with elbow extension, pronation, and wrist flexion. Cubital tunnel syndrome involves impingement of the ulnar nerve at the elbow, causing numbness and tingling at the ulnar side of the ring finger and small finger, and potentially leading to an ulnar claw deformity. Klumpke’s palsy is an injury to the brachial plexus involving the lower roots, usually occurring during delivery and causing a claw hand and potentially Horner syndrome.

      By understanding the specific symptoms and causes of each condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat patients with upper limb pathologies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 36-year-old woman visits her new GP for routine blood tests after recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman visits her new GP for routine blood tests after recently moving locations. She mentions that her previous GP had told her she had a ‘thyroid problem’ and had prescribed medication, but she cannot recall any further details. Her blood test results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 18 mu/l 0.5–5.5 mu/l
      Free thyroxine (T4) 9.2 pmol/l 9–18 pmol/l
      What could be the possible cause of these biochemical results?

      Your Answer: Secondary hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Poor compliance with thyroxine

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Function Tests: Understanding the Results

      Thyroid function tests are commonly used to diagnose and monitor thyroid disorders. The results of these tests can provide valuable information about the functioning of the thyroid gland. Here are some common thyroid function test results and what they may indicate:

      Poor Compliance with Thyroxine
      Patients who are not compliant with their thyroxine medication may only take it a few days before a routine blood test. This can result in normal thyroxine levels due to the supplementation, but the TSH levels may not have enough time to reach the normal range due to the required negative feedback.

      Sick Euthyroid Syndrome
      In this condition, all TSH, thyroxine, and T3 levels are low. However, the TSH level is often within the normal range. This condition is reversible upon recovery from the systemic illness.

      Thyrotoxicosis
      Thyrotoxicosis is characterized by low TSH and high T4 levels.

      Primary Hypothyroidism
      Primary hypothyroidism results in low T4 levels and subsequent high TSH levels due to negative feedback.

      Secondary Hypothyroidism
      In secondary hypothyroidism, both TSH and T4 levels are low. This condition occurs due to the failure of the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH despite adequate thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) levels. TRH is elevated, but TSH, T3, and T4 are low, and TSH fails to rise even after a TRH stimulation test.

      Understanding the results of thyroid function tests can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage thyroid disorders effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP and mentions her diagnosis of heart failure....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP and mentions her diagnosis of heart failure. She expresses interest in learning about medications that can potentially decrease mortality in heart failure. Which drug has been proven to have this effect?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Common Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Limitations

      Heart failure is a chronic condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there is no cure for heart failure, medications can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Here are some common medications used in the treatment of heart failure, along with their benefits and limitations.

      Spironolactone: Recent trials have shown that spironolactone can reduce mortality in severe heart failure. This drug works by antagonizing the deleterious effects of aldosterone on cardiac remodeling, rather than its diuretic effect.

      Simvastatin: While statins are effective in reducing morbidity and mortality in patients with coronary artery disease, their beneficial effects in heart failure remain inconclusive.

      Atenolol: Atenolol has not been shown to be effective in reducing mortality in heart failure and is not used as part of the condition’s management. However, certain beta-blockers like carvedilol, metoprolol, or bisoprolol are recommended in patients who have been stabilized on diuretic and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE-I) therapy.

      Furosemide: Furosemide is a mainstay in the treatment of both acute and long-term heart failure, particularly for relieving symptoms of fluid overload. However, there is little data to prove that it improves long-term mortality in patients with chronic congestive cardiac failure (CCF).

      Digoxin: Digoxin does not decrease mortality in heart failure. Its use is reserved for patients in atrial fibrillation and those who cannot be controlled on an ACE-I, beta-blocker, and loop diuretic. Some studies suggest a decreased rate in CHF-related hospital admissions.

      In conclusion, while these medications can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life in heart failure patients, their limitations should also be considered. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old woman is currently in labour and giving birth to her first...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman is currently in labour and giving birth to her first child on the Labour Ward. She has been in labour for a while now and has just had a vaginal delivery, with a healthy baby boy born 30 minutes ago. The midwife contacts you as the placenta has not yet been delivered, although the woman's observations are stable and there is minimal blood loss.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action to take next in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Observe for 30 min and then initiate intramuscular (im) Syntocinon® and breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Management of Retained Placenta in Obstetrics

      Retained placenta is a common complication in obstetrics that requires prompt management to prevent severe bleeding and other complications. Here are the steps involved in managing retained placenta:

      Observation and Intramuscular Syntocinon® and Breastfeeding
      After delivery, the clock starts, and the midwife should observe the patient for 30 minutes. If there is no bleeding, the patient can be observed for another 30 minutes while establishing IV access and crossmatching blood. During this time, im Syntocinon® and breastfeeding can be used to stimulate spontaneous expulsion.

      Full Obstetric Emergency Team Resuscitation
      If the patient is bleeding heavily, retained placenta is classified as an obstetric emergency, and resuscitation is necessary. IV access should be confirmed, and blood should be grouped and crossmatched.

      Commence a Syntocinon® Infusion
      To encourage separation of the placenta from the uterus, Syntocinon® is given im into the quadriceps, rather than as an infusion.

      Observation with IM Syntocinon® and Breastfeeding
      The patient can be observed for another 60 minutes with im Syntocinon® and breastfeeding to encourage spontaneous expulsion.

      Surgical Removal under General Anaesthesia
      If after an hour, the placenta is still retained, the patient should be taken to theatre for surgical removal under general anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the paediatric emergency department. She has...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the paediatric emergency department. She has a fever and he has noticed raised nodes on her neck. Despite giving her paracetamol and ibuprofen, her temperature is not decreasing. Her lips have become extremely dry and cracked, and her tongue is red and slightly swollen. The father has also noticed that her feet are now red and puffy, and she is developing a widespread fine rash. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kawasaki's disease

      Explanation:

      An eruption characterized by tender papules and vesicles can develop on the hands and feet. Measles typically presents with a fever and symptoms of a cold. Koplik’s spots, which are bright red with a bluish white center, may appear on the oral mucosa. A maculopapular rash usually appears 3-5 days later. Parvovirus B19 is commonly referred to as slapped cheek syndrome. Scarlet fever may also cause an inflamed tongue, but it would not account for the red and swollen feet that later peel.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old homeless individual is brought to the emergency department after being found...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old homeless individual is brought to the emergency department after being found vomiting. Upon examination, the patient appears confused and disoriented, with unkempt appearance and slurred speech. However, the patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 14. Vital signs include a pulse of 108 bpm, oxygen saturation of 94% on air, and blood pressure of 124/78 mmHg. Cardiovascular and respiratory exams are normal, with mild epigastric tenderness on abdominal exam. The patient has a broad-based gait and bilateral nystagmus with weakness of abduction of the eyes. Reflexes, power, and tone are generally normal with flexor plantar responses. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute alcohol intoxication

      Correct Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Medical Emergency

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition caused by thiamine deficiency, which can be life-threatening if not treated urgently. This condition is often seen in alcoholics or malnourished individuals and can even occur during pregnancy due to hyperemesis gravidarum. The classic triad of symptoms includes ataxia, confusion, and ophthalmoplegia.

      It is crucial to differentiate Wernicke’s encephalopathy from alcohol intoxication as the former requires immediate thiamine replacement. The recommended treatment is either oral thiamine 300 mg/24h or, preferably, intravenous Pabrinex. If left untreated, the condition can rapidly progress to irreversible Korsakoff’s psychosis due to haemorrhage into the mamillary bodies.

      In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency that requires prompt recognition and treatment to prevent irreversible neurological damage. It is essential to be aware of the classic triad of symptoms and to differentiate it from alcohol intoxication to ensure appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      57.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 23-year-old man who is currently living in student accommodation is brought in...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man who is currently living in student accommodation is brought in by ambulance. His flatmates returned from lectures and found him slumped over a chair with features of dizziness, headache and a reduced conscious level. He lives in student accommodation and his flatmates reveal there have had problems with the boiler but the landlord has not sorted these out. He denies any illicit drug use or relevant past medical or surgical history. The paramedics arrived and found him lying on the floor with cyanosis of his skin.

      Examination findings:

      Oxygen saturations on room air are 97%
      Blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg
      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute
      Temperature 37.1 C
      Heart sounds normal without added sounds
      Chest clear without added sounds and vesicular in nature
      pH 7.35
      pO2 8.3 kPa
      pCO2 5.8 kPa
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/l

      What is the most appropriate target oxygen saturations to aim for, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

      Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide, a toxic gas, is inhaled and binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin in the body, resulting in tissue hypoxia. This leads to a left-shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, causing a decrease in oxygen saturation of haemoglobin. In the UK, there are approximately 50 deaths per year from accidental carbon monoxide poisoning.

      Symptoms of carbon monoxide toxicity include headache, nausea and vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and subjective weakness. Severe toxicity can result in pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and even death.

      To diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning, pulse oximetry may not be reliable due to similarities between oxyhaemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, a venous or arterial blood gas should be taken to measure carboxyhaemoglobin levels. Non-smokers typically have levels below 3%, while smokers have levels below 10%. Symptomatic patients have levels between 10-30%, and severe toxicity is indicated by levels above 30%. An ECG may also be useful to check for cardiac ischaemia.

      In the emergency department, patients with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning should receive 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. This decreases the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin and should be administered as soon as possible, with treatment continuing for a minimum of six hours. Target oxygen saturations are 100%, and treatment is generally continued until all symptoms have resolved. For more severe cases, hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered, as it has been shown to have better long-term outcomes than standard oxygen therapy. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen therapy include loss of consciousness, neurological signs other than headache, myocardial ischaemia or arrhythmia, and pregnancy.

      Overall, understanding the pathophysiology, symptoms, and management of carbon monoxide poisoning is crucial in preventing and treating this potentially deadly condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      177.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 17-year-old male complains of lower back pain that has been bothering him...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male complains of lower back pain that has been bothering him for 5 months. The pain is worse at night and he experiences morning stiffness. However, he feels better after exercising. He denies any history of injury. Based on his symptoms, the clinical diagnosis is ankylosing spondylitis. What is the most common finding on examination associated with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Development of scoliosis

      Correct Answer: Schober's test 4.0cm

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old retired gardener is referred to the Dermatology Clinic with a 2-month...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old retired gardener is referred to the Dermatology Clinic with a 2-month history of an ulcerated lesion on the left ear. He explains that the lesion was initially a small white lump which was present for many months, which then broke down into the ulcer.
      On examination, a 0.5 cm ulcerated lesion is noted on the left pinna, with a rolled pearly edge. Closer inspection with a dermatoscope shows some telangiectasia around the edge. The dermatologist suspects that the lesion is a rodent ulcer.
      Which one of the following statements is true regarding rodent ulcers?

      Your Answer: They metastasise via the bloodstream

      Correct Answer: They are basal cell carcinomas

      Explanation:

      Understanding Rodent Ulcers: Characteristics and Treatment Options

      Rodent ulcers, also known as basal cell carcinomas, are malignant skin lesions that commonly occur on the upper part of the face and ears, particularly in sun-exposed areas. They present as a pearly white nodule with telangiectasia and may ulcerate with a rolled edge as they enlarge. Unlike squamous cell carcinomas, rodent ulcers rarely metastasize via the bloodstream. Instead, they are malignant through local invasion, causing significant tissue damage by eroding into local tissue.

      Treatment options for rodent ulcers depend on the depth of the ulcer. Surgical excision with an excision margin of 3-5 mm, Mohs micrographic surgery, radiotherapy, and curettage, cautery, and cryotherapy are all viable options. Mohs micrographic surgery is particularly useful for lesions on the face where wide excision is not appropriate.

      In contrast, squamous cell carcinomas are malignant skin lesions that usually present as an ulcerated lesion with hard and raised edges in sun-exposed areas. They can occur on the lips in smokers and can metastasize, although spread is typically local. Treatment for squamous cell carcinomas involves excision and radiotherapy.

      In summary, understanding the characteristics and treatment options for rodent ulcers is crucial for effective management of this type of skin cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      66
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old male patient visits his GP with concerns about a lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient visits his GP with concerns about a lump in his right testicle. He reports no other symptoms and has no significant medical or family history. Upon examination, a firm, distinct nodule is detected on the lateral aspect of the right testicle that does not trans-illuminate, while the left testicle appears normal. The physician suspects testicular cancer and orders serological tumour markers and an ultrasound investigation. What is a possible association with the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gynaecomastia

      Explanation:

      The most common tumor marker for testicular cancer is alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), which is elevated in non-seminomas and may be normal or elevated in seminomas. However, it is not typically decreased in any type of tumor. Galactorrhea is not a typical symptom of testicular cancer, although gynecomastia is often associated with it.

      Understanding Testicular Cancer

      Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.

      The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.

      Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which type of cell is responsible for the production of stomach acid? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of cell is responsible for the production of stomach acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parietal cell

      Explanation:

      Types of Cells Involved in Digestion

      There are several types of cells involved in the process of digestion. One of these types is the APUD cells, which are endocrine cells that secrete hormones such as gastrin and cholecystokinin. These hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive system. Another type of cell involved in digestion is the chief cells, which produce pepsinogen to aid in the breakdown of food.

      Kupffer cells are a specialized form of macrophage found in the liver. These cells play an important role in removing bacteria and other harmful substances from the blood. Finally, mucous cells produce mucous, which helps to protect the lining of the digestive tract from damage caused by stomach acid and other digestive enzymes.

      Overall, these different types of cells work together to ensure that the digestive system functions properly. By producing hormones, enzymes, and protective substances, they help to break down food and absorb nutrients while also protecting the body from harmful substances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman who has never given birth is in labour at 37...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who has never given birth is in labour at 37 weeks gestation. During examination, the cervix is found to be dilated at 7 cm, the head is in direct Occipito-Anterior position, the foetal station is at -1, and the head is palpable at 2/5 ths per abdomen. The cardiotocogram reveals late decelerations and a foetal heart rate of 100 beats/min, which persist for 15 minutes. What is the appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caesarian section

      Explanation:

      The cardiotocogram shows late decelerations and foetal bradycardia, indicating the need for immediate delivery. Instrumental delivery is not possible and oxytocin and vaginal prostaglandin are contraindicated. The safest approach is an emergency caesarian section.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old boy comes to your clinic with his mother. He reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to your clinic with his mother. He reports that for the past year, he has been experiencing intermittent episodes of red, itchy eyelids. These episodes usually resolve on their own, but the current flare has been ongoing for over a month. The boy has not experienced any changes in his vision.

      During the examination, the boy is cheerful and cooperative. His eyelids appear slightly red, and there is some foamy discharge on the lid margins with matting of the eyelashes. On the superior lid of his right eye, there is a small, tender, red lump in the medial canthus. However, his eye is not painful or red, and he has no fever.

      What is the best initial management option for this 7-year-old boy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hot compresses to both eyes

      Explanation:

      The initial treatment for blepharitis involves the use of hot compresses. Blepharitis is a common inflammatory condition that affects the margins of the eyelids. Symptoms of this condition include burning, itching, and crusting of the eyelids, which are often worse in the mornings and aggravated by makeup and wind. Both eyelids are typically affected, and patients may experience recurrent hordeolum or styes, as well as intolerance to contact lenses. While blepharitis cannot be cured, hot compresses and eyelid hygiene measures should be used twice daily to reduce the frequency and severity of relapses. Oral antibiotics are only used as a secondary option for patients who have not responded to hygiene measures and who have meibomian gland dysfunction and rosacea. If hygiene measures are ineffective, topical antibiotics like chloramphenicol may be prescribed. However, topical steroids such as dexamethasone drops are not recommended for the treatment of blepharitis.

      Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.

      Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Bethany Johnson, a 20-year-old student, visits her GP complaining of generalized itching. She...

    Incorrect

    • Bethany Johnson, a 20-year-old student, visits her GP complaining of generalized itching. She reports no allergies or recent changes in cosmetic or detergent products. During the examination, the GP observes multiple excoriation marks throughout her body. Bethany also mentions experiencing fatigue and weight gain recently. What is the probable cause of her systemic pruritus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Causes and diagnostic workup of systemic pruritus

      Systemic pruritus, or generalized itching, can have various underlying causes, including pregnancy, primary biliary cholangitis, renal failure, diabetes, leukaemia, polycythaemia, psychological factors, and hypothyroidism. To diagnose the condition, blood tests are typically performed to rule out these potential causes. Hypothyroidism may be suspected if the patient also experiences weight gain and fatigue. Treatment for systemic pruritus involves addressing the underlying condition, as well as using measures such as keeping the skin cool, applying emollients, and taking sedating antihistamines at night.

      Other conditions that may cause pruritus but are less likely in this case include iron deficiency anaemia, which typically presents with pallor rather than weight gain, and cholestasis, which usually causes jaundice, dark urine, and pale stool. Lymphoma, a type of cancer affecting the lymphatic system, may cause weight loss and lymphadenopathy rather than weight gain. Widespread dermatitis, characterized by a rash, is another possible cause of pruritus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset abdominal pain. The pain is intermittent, concentrated in the right iliac fossa, and is rated at a 7/10 intensity. The patient is experiencing nausea and has vomited twice. She reports her last menstrual cycle was 4 weeks ago. An ultrasound of the abdomen shows a whirlpool pattern in the right iliac fossa. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian torsion

      Explanation:

      On ultrasound imaging, the presence of a whirlpool sign and free fluid may indicate ovarian torsion. This sign occurs when a structure twists upon itself. It is important to note that appendicitis and ectopic pregnancy do not show this sign on imaging. Additionally, the pain associated with Mittelschmerz is typically less severe and would not be accompanied by the ultrasound finding.

      Understanding Ovarian Torsion

      Ovarian torsion is a medical condition that occurs when the ovary twists on its supporting ligaments, leading to a compromised blood supply. This condition can be partial or complete and may also affect the fallopian tube, which is then referred to as adnexal torsion. Women who have an ovarian mass, are of reproductive age, pregnant, or have ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome are at a higher risk of developing ovarian torsion.

      The most common symptom of ovarian torsion is sudden, severe abdominal pain that is colicky in nature. Patients may also experience vomiting, distress, and in some cases, fever. Upon examination, adnexal tenderness may be detected, and an ultrasound may show free fluid or a whirlpool sign. Laparoscopy is usually both diagnostic and therapeutic for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman with Crohn's disease (CD) visits her primary care physician for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with Crohn's disease (CD) visits her primary care physician for a regular follow-up. During the examination, the doctor observes clubbing, hepatomegaly, and episcleritis, which are known signs linked with CD. What other non-intestinal symptom is commonly associated with CD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      Extra-Intestinal Manifestations and Skin Conditions Associated with Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), including Crohn’s disease (CD) and ulcerative colitis (UC), can present with extra-intestinal manifestations, with some features being more prevalent in one than the other. Joint complications are the most common, but other manifestations include eye inflammation, joint pain and stiffness, and liver and biliary tree issues. Additionally, CD can present with skin conditions such as pyoderma gangrenosum, while UC is associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis and cholangiocarcinoma.

      Other skin conditions, such as necrobiosis lipoidica and palmar erythema, are not associated with IBD. Erythema multiforme is a drug-related skin rash, while lichen planus is a skin rash of unknown cause that is not associated with IBD. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these extra-intestinal manifestations and skin conditions when evaluating patients with IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old male with dry age-related macular degeneration is evaluated. Regrettably, his vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male with dry age-related macular degeneration is evaluated. Regrettably, his vision has worsened in the last six months. He has never smoked and is currently using antioxidant supplements. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Explain no other medical therapies currently available

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 20 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father after...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father after noticing bruising on her arms. The bruising started 2 days ago and has gotten worse. The girl has no significant medical history, but had a mild cold 4 weeks ago. Upon examination, the only notable finding is extensive bruising on her upper limbs and neck. Routine blood tests were conducted and the results are as follows (with age-appropriate reference ranges): Hb 85 g/L (110-140), Platelets 68 * 109/L (150-450), WBC 19.0 * 109/L (5.0-17.0), Neutrophils 0.72 * 109/L (1.5-8.0).

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for a 6-year-old boy presenting with bruising, anaemia, and neutropenia is acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, which is the most common form of childhood leukaemia. Other forms of leukaemia, such as acute myeloid leukaemia, chronic lymphocytic leukaemia, and chronic myeloid leukaemia, are less likely to be found in children and therefore not the best answer. It is important to note that CML is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome and often presents with fatigue and mild anaemia symptoms.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - A 42-year-old teacher is referred to the Breast Clinic for further investigation after...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old teacher is referred to the Breast Clinic for further investigation after finding a lump on her right breast one week earlier. She has well-controlled hypertension, but no other medical history of note. The patient does not smoke and is a keen runner.
      The patient is especially concerned that she may have breast cancer, as her grandmother and maternal aunt both died from the condition. She is very upset that she did not find the lump sooner, as she thinks that it is at least 1 cm in size.
      With regard to tumour kinetics, which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tumour growth obeys Gompertzian kinetics

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Tumour Growth

      Tumour growth is a complex process that is often misunderstood. Here are some common misconceptions about tumour growth:

      Common Misconceptions about Tumour Growth

      1. Tumour growth obeys Gompertzian kinetics
      While the rate of tumour growth does slow down from the initial exponential pattern, the assumption that it follows a sigmoidal shape is not always accurate.

      2. The clinical phase of tumour growth is long compared with the pre-clinical phase
      In reality, the clinical phase of a tumour is short in comparison to the pre-clinical phase. By the time a tumour is detected, it has already completed a significant portion of its life cycle.

      3. The smallest clinically detectable tumour is 1000 cells
      This is far too few cells to be clinically detectable. The usual number required to be clinically detectable would be 109 cells.

      4. In most tumours, the growth fraction is >90%
      The growth fraction is usually 4–80%, with an average of <20%. Even in some rapidly growing tumours, the growth fraction is only about 20%. 5. Tumour growth is characterised by contact inhibition
      Contact inhibition is a mechanism that is lost in cancer cells. Tumour growth is actually characterised by uncontrolled cell growth and division.

      It is important to have a clear understanding of tumour growth in order to develop effective treatments and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old woman with schizophrenia visits you with her caregiver on a Monday...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with schizophrenia visits you with her caregiver on a Monday morning. She informs you that she was out of town over the weekend and misplaced her prescribed clozapine, which she takes at a dosage of 200 mg in the morning and 400 mg at night. She hasn't taken any since Friday evening and seems to be experiencing psychotic symptoms. Her caregiver mentions that this is the first time she has ever lost her medication.
      What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Restart clozapine at the starting dose of 12.5 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Managing Non-Compliance with Clozapine in Schizophrenia Patients

      When a patient with schizophrenia on clozapine misses their medication for more than 48 hours, it is important to manage the situation appropriately. Restarting clozapine at the starting dose of 12.5 mg daily is recommended, even if the patient has been on a higher dose previously. However, the titration upwards can be more rapid than for a clozapine-naive patient.

      Stopping the clozapine prescription completely is not advisable, as the patient needs to be on treatment for their schizophrenia, and clozapine is often the treatment of choice for those who are resistant to other anti-psychotic medications. Restarting clozapine at a higher dose than the starting dose is also not recommended.

      Switching to a depo form of anti-psychotic medication may be considered if non-compliance is a recurring issue, but it should be a decision made in consultation with the patient, their family, and their healthcare team. However, switching to a depo after one incidence of non-compliance may be an overreaction, especially as it would require a change of medication.

      In summary, managing non-compliance with clozapine in schizophrenia patients requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and consultation with their healthcare team. Restarting clozapine at the starting dose is the recommended course of action, and switching to a depo form of medication should be considered only after careful discussion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department with lower back pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department with lower back pain and difficulty standing without assistance. He has a history of metastatic lung cancer and is currently receiving palliative care. During examination, severe neurological deficits are observed in both legs. What would be a late sign in this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Cauda equina syndrome typically manifests as lower back pain, sciatica, and decreased perianal sensation. As the condition progresses, urinary incontinence may develop.

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is cauda equina syndrome, which is characterized by compression of the lumbosacral nerve roots. This can be caused by metastatic spinal cord compression or spinal fractures that compromise spinal stability. It is important to note that CES can present in various ways, and there is no single symptom or sign that can definitively diagnose or rule out the condition. Symptoms may include lower back pain, bilateral sciatica, decreased perianal sensation, reduced anal tone, fecal incontinence, and urinary dysfunction such as incontinence, decreased awareness of bladder filling, and loss of urge to void.

      Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. It is crucial to consider CES in patients who present with new or worsening lower back pain, as a late diagnosis can result in permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness and urinary/bowel incontinence. The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically at L4/5 or L5/S1, but it can also be caused by tumors, infections, trauma, or hematomas. CES can present in various ways, and there is no single symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude it. Possible features include low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation in the perianal area, decreased anal tone, and urinary dysfunction. Urgent MRI is necessary for diagnosis, and surgical decompression is the recommended management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 24 - A 23-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of redness and itching...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of redness and itching on his face and hands. He has been to another GP for similar issues in the past two years and has been on sick leave from his job as a builder. He is currently receiving benefits and is in the process of making an insurance claim for loss of earnings. He mentions that there was one ointment that worked for him, but he has not been able to find it again. On examination, there are no visible skin lesions or rash. The patient appears unconcerned and requests that his GP sign his insurance claim paperwork. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malingering

      Explanation:

      Somatoform Disorders, Malingering, and Munchausen’s Syndrome

      Somatoform disorders are characterized by the unconscious drive to produce illness and the motivation to seek medical attention. On the other hand, malingering involves a conscious effort to fake or claim a disorder for personal gain, such as financial compensation. Meanwhile, Munchausen’s syndrome is a chronic condition where patients have a history of multiple hospital admissions and are willing to undergo invasive procedures.

      In somatoform disorders, patients are not intentionally faking their symptoms. Instead, their unconscious mind is producing physical symptoms as a way to cope with psychological distress. This can lead to a cycle of seeking medical attention and undergoing unnecessary tests and procedures. In contrast, malingering is a deliberate attempt to deceive medical professionals for personal gain. Patients may exaggerate or fabricate symptoms to receive compensation or avoid legal consequences.

      Munchausen’s syndrome is a rare condition where patients repeatedly seek medical attention and undergo invasive procedures despite having no actual medical condition. This behavior is driven by a desire for attention and sympathy from medical professionals. Patients with Munchausen’s syndrome may go to great lengths to maintain their deception, including intentionally harming themselves to produce symptoms.

      In summary, somatoform disorders, malingering, and Munchausen’s syndrome are all conditions that involve the production or faking of physical symptoms. However, the motivations behind these behaviors differ. these conditions can help medical professionals provide appropriate care and support for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old male has been treated for 3 flares of gout over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male has been treated for 3 flares of gout over the last year and would like some medication to prevent this from reoccurring. His past medical history includes: gout, Crohn's disease, hypertension and depression. His regular medications are: paracetamol, omeprazole, ramipril, azathioprine and sertraline.

      Which medication would pose a risk of bone marrow suppression for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      The combination of azathioprine and allopurinol can lead to a serious interaction that results in bone marrow suppression. This is particularly concerning for patients with Crohn’s disease who are already taking azathioprine, as both medications inhibit xanthine oxidase.

      Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 26 - Which statement about nail changes is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about nail changes is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ridges in the nails may be seen in psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Common Nail Changes and Their Causes

      Nail changes can be a sign of underlying health conditions. Here are some common nail changes and their causes:

      Psoriasis: Ridges, pits, and onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed) are features of psoriasis.

      Splinter haemorrhages: Although splinter haemorrhages occur in bacterial endocarditis, trauma is the most common cause. They can also be associated with rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, systemic lupus erythematosus, and psoriasis.

      White nails: White nails are a feature of hypoalbuminaemia.

      Koilonychia: Iron deficiency causes koilonychia and may cause onycholysis. Vitamin B12 deficiency does not cause nail changes.

      Clubbing: Ischaemic heart disease does not cause clubbing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 73-year-old man is undergoing an elective transurethral resection of prostate (TURP) for...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man is undergoing an elective transurethral resection of prostate (TURP) for benign prostatic hyperplasia with spinal anaesthesia. After 40 minutes into the procedure, he complains of headache and visual disturbances. A venous blood gas analysis is ordered, and the results show severe hyponatremia. What could be the reason for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Irrigation with glycine

      Explanation:

      TURP syndrome can be caused by irrigation with glycine during a transurethral resection of prostate. This complication presents with various symptoms affecting the central nervous system, respiratory system, and the body as a whole. The hypo-osmolar nature of glycine leads to its systemic absorption when the prostatic venous sinuses are opened up during the procedure. This results in hyponatremia, which is further exacerbated by the breakdown of glycine into ammonia by the liver. The resulting hyper-ammonia can cause visual disturbances. It is important to note that TURP syndrome can occur under general anesthesia or spinal anesthesia, but it is not a side effect of spinal anesthesia.

      Understanding TURP Syndrome

      TURP syndrome is a rare but serious complication that can occur during transurethral resection of the prostate surgery. This condition is caused by the use of large volumes of glycine during the procedure, which can be absorbed into the body and lead to hyponatremia. When the liver breaks down the glycine into ammonia, it can cause hyper-ammonia and visual disturbances.

      The symptoms of TURP syndrome can be severe and include CNS, respiratory, and systemic symptoms. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including a surgical time of more than one hour, a height of the bag greater than 70cm, resection of more than 60g, large blood loss, perforation, a large amount of fluid used, and poorly controlled CHF.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of TURP syndrome in order to quickly identify and treat this condition if it occurs. By taking steps to minimize the risk of developing TURP syndrome and closely monitoring patients during and after the procedure, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old woman presents with 6 months of recurrent episodes of shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with 6 months of recurrent episodes of shortness of breath. She describes it as ‘coming on suddenly without warning’. They have woken her at night before. She describes the attacks as a ‘tightness’ in the chest and says that they are associated with tingling in her fingers. The episodes resolve in a few minutes by themselves. She is otherwise medically fit and well. She smokes 15 cigarettes per day and has a family history of asthma. Examination is normal, and the peak expiratory flow rate is normal for her age and height.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Panic attacks

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between possible causes of acute shortness of breath: A medical analysis

      When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, it is important to consider a range of possible causes. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest panic attacks rather than left ventricular failure, acute asthma attacks, COPD, or anaemia.

      Panic attacks are characterized by sudden onset and spontaneous resolution, numbness of extremities, and normal examination and peak flow measurement. They can be triggered or occur unexpectedly, and may be due to a disorder such as panic disorder or post-traumatic stress disorder, or secondary to medical problems such as thyroid disease. Treatment includes psychological therapies, breathing exercises, stress avoidance, and pharmacological therapies such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

      Left ventricular failure, on the other hand, would cause respiratory problems due to pulmonary congestion, leading to reduced pulmonary compliance and increased airway resistance. Examination of someone with left ventricular failure would reveal pulmonary crackles and possibly a small mitral regurgitation murmur. However, it is unlikely that a woman would experience acute episodes such as these due to heart failure.

      Acute asthma attacks are typically triggered by inhaled allergens or other factors such as cold/dry air, stress, or upper respiratory tract infections. The absence of triggers in this case suggests that asthma is not the diagnosis.

      COPD is a possible differential due to the patient’s smoking history, but it is unlikely to have worsened so acutely and resolved in a matter of minutes. The normal peak expiratory flow rate also suggests that COPD is not the cause.

      Finally, anaemia would not account for acute episodes of shortness of breath, which are present normally on exertion in anaemic patients. Signs of anaemia such as pallor, tachycardia, cardiac dilation, or oedema are not mentioned in the patient’s history.

      In conclusion, a careful analysis of the patient’s symptoms and medical history can help differentiate between possible causes of acute shortness of breath, leading to appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old woman has just had her 34 week check. The patient reported...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has just had her 34 week check. The patient reported reduced fetal movements 3 days ago, but they are now back to normal. An ultrasound was performed to investigate any potential issues. The obstetrician informs her that a defect in the abdominal wall has been detected and the baby's intestines are outside the body but enclosed in a membrane. Despite this, the baby is healthy. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plan a caesarean section at 37 weeks

      Explanation:

      If the unborn baby has exomphalos, it is recommended to opt for a caesarean section to minimize the chances of sac rupture. The presence of a membrane containing the abdominal content suggests that the baby is likely to have exomphalos. While vaginal delivery is possible, a caesarean section is the safest delivery option. There is no need for an emergency caesarean section as the baby is not experiencing any distress. Inducing labor for vaginal delivery is not advisable, and a caesarean section is a better option. Additionally, IM corticosteroids are not necessary as there is no risk of premature delivery at present. These steroids are typically used when women are at risk of or experience premature labor.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and weakness. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and weakness. She has been experiencing difficulty getting up from chairs, lifting objects, and climbing stairs for the past 2 months. However, she has no issues with other movements like knitting or writing. Upon examination, she has bilateral hip and shoulder weakness. Blood tests reveal the following results: calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5), free thyroxine (T4) 12.4 pmol/L (9.0 - 18), creatine kinase (CK) 1752 U/L (35 - 250), and ESR 62 mm/hr (< 40). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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