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Question 1
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner as his parents are worried about his walking. Up until four months ago, he was developing normally. However, they have now noticed he has difficulty getting up from the floor or climbing stairs. During the examination, the doctor observes Gowers’ sign and the boy has large, bulky calf muscles. His mother remembers having an uncle who died at a young age but cannot recall the cause of death. What is the probable reason for his walking difficulties?
Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Explanation:Different Types of Muscular Dystrophy and their Characteristics
Muscular dystrophy is a group of genetic disorders that cause progressive muscle weakness and wasting. Here are some of the different types of muscular dystrophy and their characteristics:
1. Duchenne muscular dystrophy: This is an X-linked myopathy that occurs in boys aged 3-5. It can present as delay in motor development or regression of previously obtained motor milestones. Treatment is with steroids and respiratory support. Average life expectancy is around 25 years.
2. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy: This is the third most common muscular dystrophy and causes proximal upper limb weakness due to dysfunction of the scapula. Patients may also experience facial muscle weakness and progressive lower limb weakness. It typically presents in the third decade.
3. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy: This is a rare muscular dystrophy characterised by weakness and progressive wasting of the lower leg and arm muscles. It is more common in boys, with typical onset in teenage years.
4. Myotonic dystrophy: This is the most common inherited muscular dystrophy in adults. It is characterised by delayed muscle relaxation after contraction and muscle weakness. Patients may also experience myotonic facies with facial weakness, ptosis and cardiorespiratory complications.
5. Polymyositis: This is an inflammatory myopathy in which patients experience proximal muscle weakness. It is more common in women in the fifth decade and is associated with underlying malignancy.
It is important to identify the type of muscular dystrophy a patient has in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of headaches, shoulder pain and weight loss. Over this time she has lost approximately 6 kg in weight.
She describes early morning stiffness of the shoulders. Also, she has become aware of frontal headaches and has noticed tenderness of the scalp particularly when she combs her hair. She has little in her past medical history, she is a lifelong non-smoker and takes no medication.
During examination, she appears to be in good health with a blood pressure of 126/88 mmHg and a BMI of 23.4. Neurological examination is normal though she is tender over the shoulders and scalp.
Which of the following investigations would you select for this patient?Your Answer: CT head scan
Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Explanation:Temporal arthritis/Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Unknown Aetiology
This condition, which is of unknown aetiology, typically affects the elderly and is associated with inflammation of the extracranial arteries. It is characterized by weight loss, proximal muscle stiffness and tenderness, headaches, and scalp tenderness. Elevated inflammatory markers, particularly erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C reactive protein, are usually associated with it. Temporal arthritis may also be diagnosed through biopsy of the inflamed temporal artery, although false negatives may occur as the disease may patchily affect the artery.
It is important to recognize and treat the disease early to reduce morbidity and prevent blindness due to involvement of the optic arteries with retinal ischemia. The condition usually rapidly improves with steroid therapy, and the disease may be monitored through reduction of ESR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia and multiple hospitalisations presents in a psychiatry ward with a few weeks of feeling unwell and stiffness in her jaws and arms. She has been on haloperidol for symptom control. Her temperature is 38.5°C and BP is 175/85 mmHg. What is the most crucial investigation to conduct?
Your Answer: Serum creatine phosphokinase
Explanation:Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications that can occur at any point during treatment. The risk of NMS may increase when these medications are taken alongside lithium or anticholinergics. Symptoms of NMS include fever, rigidity, altered mental status, autonomic dysfunction, and elevated creatine phosphokinase concentration. The latter is always elevated and reflects muscle damage caused by intense muscle contractions.
Treatment for NMS involves discontinuing the use of the medication that caused the syndrome and reducing body temperature with antipyretics. Dantrolene, bromocriptine, or levodopa preparations may also be beneficial. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if any of these symptoms occur during antipsychotic treatment. By doing so, patients can receive prompt treatment and avoid potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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An 80-year-old man visits his GP with his daughter, concerned about his increasing forgetfulness. He used to be able to manage his own medications, but now forgets to take them regularly. He has also been misplacing items around the house and forgetting important appointments. When his daughter tries to remind him of these things, he becomes defensive and irritable.
His lab results show normal levels of vitamin B12, folate, thyroid hormones, and electrolytes. He does not screen positive for depression. His MMSE score is 20/30, and his brain MRI reveals general brain atrophy.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:First-Line Management for Alzheimer’s Disease: Medications to Consider
Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is a common form of dementia that primarily affects older adults. A patient’s clinical presentation, laboratory markers, MMSE results, and neuroimaging can help diagnose AD. Once diagnosed, the first-line management for AD typically involves cholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, rivastigmine, or galantamine. These medications can provide modest symptomatic relief for some patients with AD. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, can be used as adjunctive treatment or monotherapy for patients who do not tolerate cholinesterase inhibitors. Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, is used to manage psychotic manifestations of AD, but it is not indicated in this scenario. Tacrine, a centrally-acting anticholinesterase medication, is rarely used due to its potent side-effect profile. Trazodone, an atypical antidepressant, can be used as adjunctive treatment for insomnia in patients with AD but is not indicated as monotherapy. Overall, the first-line management for AD involves cholinesterase inhibitors, with memantine as an alternative option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the correct vertebral level and corresponding structure?
Your Answer: T2 and manubriosternal joint
Correct Answer: C4 and bifurcation of the carotid artery
Explanation:Anatomy Landmarks and Openings
The human body has several anatomical landmarks and openings that are important to know for medical professionals. The carotid artery, which supplies blood to the brain, bifurcates at the level of C4. The manubriosternal joint, also known as the angle of Louis, is located at the T4/5 intervertebral disk level. The aortic opening, which allows the aorta to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T12. The caval opening, which allows the inferior vena cava to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T8. Finally, the oesophageal opening of the diaphragm is located at T10. To remember the order of these openings, medical professionals often use the mnemonic Voice Of America – Vena cava at T8, Oesophagus at T10, and Aorta at T12. these landmarks and openings is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man is recuperating in the hospital after experiencing a stroke. During the examination, it is revealed that he has a right homonymous superior quadrantanopia. What is the location of the lesion responsible for this visual field impairment?
Your Answer: Right temporal (lower) optic radiation
Correct Answer: Left temporal (lower) optic radiation
Explanation:Understanding Optic Radiation Lesions and Visual Field Defects
The optic radiation is a crucial pathway for visual information processing in the brain. Lesions in different parts of this pathway can result in specific visual field defects.
Left Temporal (Lower) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would cause a quadrantanopia, affecting the upper quadrants of the contralateral visual field.
Left Parietal (Upper) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would result in a right homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.
Left Occipital Visual Cortex: A lesion in this area would cause a right contralateral homonymous hemianopia, with central sparing.
Right Parietal (Upper) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would cause a left homonymous inferior quadrantanopia.
Right Temporal (Lower) Optic Radiation: A lesion in this area would cause a left homonymous superior quadrantanopia.
Understanding these specific visual field defects can aid in localizing lesions in the optic radiation and visual cortex, leading to better diagnosis and treatment of neurological conditions affecting vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old gentleman is admitted following a fall with a painful right knee. He has a history of osteoarthritis and atrial fibrillation (AF). Prior to admission, he was independent and living alone. While in the Emergency Department, he gives a history of falling on his knee. Staff reported an incident of urinary incontinence while in their care. No seizure activity was reported. While on the ward, he becomes sleepy but arousable. Later in the night, the nurses state he is no longer opening his eyes to voices and is making incomprehensible noises.
What is the most important potential diagnosis which requires exclusion?Your Answer: Stroke
Correct Answer: Subdural haematoma
Explanation:Diagnosing Acute Subdural Haematoma: Vital Clues and Differential Diagnoses
Acute subdural haematoma is a serious neurosurgical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and intervention. Elderly patients and those on anticoagulant medications are at higher risk. A fluctuating conscious level in an elderly patient should raise suspicion. Vital clues from the patient’s history, such as a history of AF and fall, episode of urinary incontinence, and rapid drop in conscious level, should be considered. Urgent computed tomography (CT) brain imaging is necessary to exclude this diagnosis.
Other possible diagnoses, such as stroke, postictal state, obstructive sleep apnoea, and hypoglycaemia, may present with similar symptoms. However, given the history of a recent fall and deteriorating GCS, an intracranial event must be investigated. Checking the patient’s capillary glucose level is reasonable, but excluding an acute subdural haematoma is paramount.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intense headache, fever, and right periorbital pain. He has a sizable infected lesion on his face next to his right nostril, which he admits to causing by picking at an acne spot. During the physical examination, the doctor notices swelling around his right eye. The physician suspects that he may have cavernous venous sinus thrombosis (CST).
What is a characteristic of CST?Your Answer: The most common infective agent is Staphylococcus epidermidis
Correct Answer: Visual disturbance
Explanation:Understanding Visual Disturbance in Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis
Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis (CST) is a condition that can cause visual disturbance due to the involvement of cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. This can lead to ophthalmoplegia and diplopia. The most common infective organism responsible for CST is Staphylococcus aureus, although Staphylococcus epidermidis can also be a culprit.
One of the symptoms of CST is paralysis of the orbicularis oculi on the affected side. However, it’s important to note that this muscle is innervated by the facial nerve, which is not affected by the thrombosis.
Third nerve palsy is the most common nerve paralysis associated with CST, but sixth nerve palsy is the most common nerve palsy overall. While symptoms such as chemosis and ptosis can occur, they are not as common as ophthalmoplegia and diplopia.
Overall, understanding the visual disturbance associated with CST can help with early diagnosis and treatment of this potentially serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to a Paediatrician due to learning and behavioural difficulties. During the examination, the doctor observes symmetrical muscle weakness and notes that the child has only recently learned to walk. The girl requires assistance from her hands to stand up. The Paediatrician suspects that she may have Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and orders additional tests.
What is the protein that is missing in DMD?Your Answer: Dystrophin
Explanation:Proteins and Genetic Disorders
Dystrophin, Collagen, Creatine Kinase, Fibrillin, and Sarcoglycan are all proteins that play important roles in the body. However, defects or mutations in these proteins can lead to various genetic disorders.
Dystrophin is a structural protein in skeletal and cardiac muscle that protects the muscle membrane against the forces of muscular contraction. Lack of dystrophin leads to Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), a debilitating and life-limiting condition.
Collagen is a protein found in connective tissue and defects in its structure, synthesis, or processing can lead to Ehlers Danlos syndrome, a genetic connective-tissue disorder.
Creatine kinase is an enzyme released from damaged muscle tissue and elevated levels of it are seen in children with DMD.
Fibrillin is a protein involved in connective tissue formation and mutations in the genes that code for it are found in Marfan syndrome, a connective tissue disorder.
Sarcoglycans are transmembrane proteins and mutations in the genes that code for them are involved in limb-girdle muscular dystrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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An 80-year-old retired teacher complains of headache and scalp tenderness. She reports experiencing blurred vision for the past three days. What signs suggest a possible diagnosis of giant cell arthritis?
Your Answer: Temporal artery biopsy demonstrating mononuclear cell infiltration
Explanation:Diagnosis of Giant Cell arthritis
Giant cell arthritis is a condition that affects the arteries, particularly those in the head and neck. To diagnose this condition, the American College of Rheumatology has developed criteria that require the fulfillment of at least three out of five criteria. These criteria have a 93% sensitivity of diagnosis.
The first criterion is age over 50, as this condition is more common in older individuals. The second criterion is the onset of a new type of localized headache, which is often severe and persistent. The third criterion is an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of over 50 mm/hr by the Westergreen method, which indicates inflammation in the body. The fourth criterion is temporal artery tenderness to palpation or decreased pulsation, which can be felt by a doctor during a physical exam. The fifth criterion is an arterial biopsy showing granulomatous inflammation or mononuclear cell infiltration, usually with multinucleated giant cells.
Overall, the diagnosis of giant cell arthritis requires a combination of clinical and laboratory findings. If a patient meets at least three of these criteria, further testing and treatment may be necessary to manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the Neurology Clinic complaining of increasing dysphagia. You observe that he is having some trouble speaking, and upon further inquiry, he reveals that this has also been worsening over time. He reports no issues with chewing. During the examination, you note that he has a missing gag reflex and displays tongue atrophy and fasciculations.
What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Nerve conduction studies, computed tomography (CT) head, ophthalmology review, speech and language therapy
Correct Answer: MRI brain, syphilis serology, poliomyelitis serology, lumbar puncture
Explanation:Appropriate Investigations for a Patient with Bulbar Palsy
Bulbar palsy is a condition that affects the lower motor neurons of the cranial nerves, causing difficulty in speech and swallowing. To manage a patient with this condition, appropriate investigations must be conducted to determine the underlying cause.
MRI brain, syphilis serology, poliomyelitis serology, and lumbar puncture are some of the most appropriate investigations to manage a patient with bulbar palsy. These investigations can help identify reversible causes such as brainstem stroke or tumor, neurodegenerative diseases, infectious neuropathies, and autoimmune neuropathies.
On the other hand, investigations such as nerve conduction studies and viral PCR have no place in the management of this patient. CT head may be helpful, but MRI brain is a more appropriate form of imaging. Routine bloods can also be done to determine the systemic health of the patient.
Speech and language therapy is an essential part of managing a patient with bulbar palsy, as it can help improve their speech and swallowing. However, ophthalmology review and ECG are not necessary unless there is a clear clinical indication.
In summary, appropriate investigations for a patient with bulbar palsy include MRI brain, serology for infectious neuropathies, lumbar puncture, and routine bloods. Speech and language therapy is also crucial for managing the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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A woman brings her middle-aged husband to see you. She is worried about his recent forgetfulness. She also reveals that he has been experiencing hallucinations of small children playing in the house. On examination, there is nothing significant to note except for a mild resting tremor in the hands (right > left).
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Dementia: Lewy Body Dementia, Korsakoff’s Dementia, Alzheimer’s Disease, Multi-Infarct Dementia, and Pick’s Disease
Lewy Body Dementia: This type of dementia is characterized by memory impairment and parkinsonism. It is caused by the build-up of Lewy bodies in the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia, resulting in a movement disorder similar to Parkinson’s disease and memory problems. Visual hallucinations are common, and symptoms often fluctuate. Treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and levodopa, while neuroleptics are contraindicated.
Korsakoff’s Dementia: This type of dementia is typically associated with alcohol misuse. Patients tend to confabulate and make up information they cannot remember.
Alzheimer’s Disease: This is the most common type of dementia. However, visual hallucinations and resting tremor are not typical symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease.
Multi-Infarct Dementia: This type of dementia is caused by problems that interrupt blood supply to the brain, such as multiple minor and major strokes. Risk factors include hypertension, diabetes, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and cardiovascular disease.
Pick’s Disease: Also known as fronto-temporal dementia, this type of dementia is characterized by the patient sometimes losing their inhibitions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) with unsteadiness on her feet and frequent falls of two days’ duration.
On examination, she is noted to have loss of sensation and weakness of the proximal and distal muscles of the left lower limb. Her upper limbs and face have no weakness or sensory deficit.
Her GP refers her to the nearest Stroke Unit for assessment and management. Computed tomography (CT) scan confirms a thromboembolic cerebrovascular accident.
Which vessel is most likely to have been involved?Your Answer: The right anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch
Correct Answer: The left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch
Explanation:Understanding the Role of Cerebral Arteries in Neurological Symptoms
When assessing neurological symptoms, it is important to consider the involvement of different cerebral arteries. In the case of right-sided weakness and lower limb involvement without upper limb or facial signs, the left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch is likely affected. This artery supplies the medial aspect of the frontal and parietal lobes, which includes the primary motor and sensory cortices for the lower limb and distal trunk.
On the other hand, a left posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion is unlikely as it would not cause upper limb involvement or visual symptoms. Similarly, a right anterior cerebral artery distal occlusion would result in left-sided weakness and sensory loss in the lower limb.
A main stem occlusion in the left middle cerebral artery would present with right-sided upper limb and facial weakness, as well as speech and auditory comprehension difficulties due to involvement of Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas.
Finally, a right posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion would cause visual field defects and contralateral loss of sensation, but not peripheral weakness on the right-hand side. Understanding the role of cerebral arteries in neurological symptoms can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a 48-hour history of headache and malaise that has worsened in the last 6 hours. She has vomited twice and recently had a sore throat. Her general practitioner has been treating her with a topical anti-fungal cream for vaginal thrush. On examination, she is photophobic and has moderate neck stiffness. The Glasgow Coma Score is 15/15, and she has no focal neurological signs. Her temperature is 38.5 °C. A computed tomography (CT) brain scan is reported as ‘Normal intracranial appearances’. A lumbar puncture is performed and CSF results are as follows: CSF protein 0.6 g/l (<0.45), cell count 98 white cells/mm3, mainly lymphocytes (<5), CSF glucose 2.8 mmol/l (2.5 – 4.4 mmol/l), and blood glucose 4.3 mmol/l (3-6 mmol/l). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute viral meningitis
Explanation:Distinguishing Acute Viral Meningitis from Other Neurological Disorders
Acute viral meningitis is characterized by mild elevation of protein, a mainly lymphocytic cellular reaction, and a CSF: blood glucose ratio of >50%. In contrast, bacterial meningitis presents with a polymorph leukocytosis, lower relative glucose level, and more severe signs of meningism. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents subacutely with very high CSF protein and very low CSF glucose. Fungal meningitis is rare and mainly occurs in immunocompromised individuals. Guillain–Barré syndrome, an autoimmune peripheral nerve disorder causing ascending paralysis, is often triggered by a recent viral illness but presents with focal neurological signs, which are absent in viral meningitis. Accurate diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 50-year-old patient with diabetes presents to the Emergency department with complaints of dizziness and vomiting. Upon examination, the patient is alert and oriented, with an irregularly irregular pulse of 80 and a blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg. Nystagmus is observed on left lateral gaze, and the patient's speech is slurred. Intention tremor and past pointing are noted during examination of the limbs, and the patient is ataxic when mobilized. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cerebellar CVA
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Vertigo and Cerebellar Signs
This patient presents with a history of vertigo and clinical signs of nystagmus, as well as slurred speech, intention tremor, past pointing, and ataxia. These symptoms suggest an injury to the cerebellum. The patient also has risk factors for cerebrovascular disease, including atrial fibrillation and hypertension.
Labyrinthitis, which is associated with nystagmus, would not produce cerebellar signs. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, on the other hand, would present with confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Subacute combined degeneration of the cord is associated with posterior column signs, loss of vibration sensation, and a positive Romberg’s test. Brainstem signs would be expected with a brainstem CVA and impaired conscious level.
In summary, this patient’s symptoms suggest an injury to the cerebellum, possibly due to cerebrovascular disease. Other potential diagnoses, such as labyrinthitis, Wernicke’s encephalopathy, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, and brainstem CVA, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old office worker is becoming increasingly worried that she may be experiencing early signs of Alzheimer's disease, which her mother was diagnosed with at a young age. She reports frequently misplacing her phone and struggling to recall names of colleagues she has worked with for years. She wants to learn more about the initial clinical features of the disease to see if they align with her symptoms.
What is a typical clinical characteristic of the early stage of Alzheimer's disease?Your Answer: Episodic confusion
Correct Answer: Retention of executive function
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Dementia and Their Symptoms
Executive function, which involves planning, reasoning, and problem-solving, is typically retained in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease. However, in subcortical dementias like Lewy body disease (LBD), patients often lose this cognitive skill early on. Frontotemporal dementia, on the other hand, is more commonly associated with impulsivity and disinhibition, as well as personality changes. Episodic confusion is a hallmark of LBD, where patients may have good and bad days. Finally, bradykinesia and rigidity are signs of parkinsonism, which can be seen in both LBD and Parkinson’s disease. Understanding these different symptoms can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 75-year-old retired teacher presents with acute-onset confusion. The patient lives alone and is usually in good health. She has had no issues with her memory before, but over the past three days, her neighbor has noticed that the patient has become increasingly confused; this morning she did not recognize her own home. When taking the history from the neighbor, she mentions that the patient had been experiencing urinary symptoms over the past week. A dipstick of the patient’s urine is positive for blood, leukocytes and nitrites. A tentative diagnosis of delirium secondary to a urinary tract infection (UTI) is made, and empirical treatment for UTI is initiated.
Which of the following tests is typically abnormal during delirium, regardless of the cause?Your Answer: Electroencephalogram
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Delirium: Understanding Their Role in Evaluation
Delirium is a state of acute brain impairment that can be caused by various factors. The diagnosis of delirium is based on clinical features, such as acute onset, fluctuating course, disorientation, perceptual disturbances, and decreased attention. However, diagnostic tests may be necessary to identify the underlying cause of delirium and guide appropriate treatment. Here are some common diagnostic tests used in the evaluation of delirium:
Electroencephalogram (EEG): EEG can show diffuse slowing in delirious individuals, regardless of the cause of delirium. A specific pattern called K complexes may occur in delirium due to hepatic encephalopathy.
Lumbar puncture: This test may be used to diagnose meningitis, which can present with delirium. However, it may not be abnormal in many cases of delirium.
Serum glucose: Hyper- or hypoglycemia can cause delirium, but serum glucose may not be universally abnormal in all cases of delirium.
Computed tomography (CT) of the head: CT may be used to evaluate delirium, but it may be normal in certain cases, such as profound sepsis causing delirium.
Electrocardiogram (ECG): ECG is unlikely to be abnormal in delirium, regardless of the cause.
While diagnostic tests can be helpful in the evaluation of delirium, the cornerstone of treatment is addressing the underlying cause. Patients with delirium need close monitoring to prevent harm to themselves. Manipulating the environment, using medications to reduce agitation and sedate patients, and providing reassurance and familiar contact can also be helpful in managing delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 70-year-old man is admitted at the request of his family due to a 3-month history of increasing confusion and unsteady gait. They have also noted intermittent jerking movements of both upper limbs. He was previously healthy and till the onset of symptoms, had continued to work part-time as a carpenter. On examination, he is not orientated to time, person or place. Myoclonic jerks of both upper limbs are noted together with non-specific cerebellar signs. CT brain and blood work-up for common causes of dementia is normal.
Which of the following tests will help in diagnosis?Your Answer: MRI of the brain
Explanation:Diagnostic Procedures for Suspected Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) is a rare and fatal neurological disorder that presents with rapidly progressive dementia and other non-specific neurological symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic procedures that are typically used when sCJD is suspected.
Clinical diagnosis of sCJD is based on a combination of typical history, MRI findings, positive CSF 14-3-3 protein, and characteristic EEG findings. Definitive diagnosis can only be made from biopsy, but this is often not desirable due to the difficulty in sterilizing equipment.
Renal biopsy is not indicated in cases of suspected sCJD, as the signs and symptoms described are not indicative of renal dysfunction. Echocardiography is also not necessary, as sCJD does not affect the heart.
Muscle biopsy may be indicated in suspected myopathic disorders, but is not useful in diagnosing sCJD. Similarly, bone marrow biopsy is not of diagnostic benefit in this case.
Overall, a combination of clinical history, imaging, and laboratory tests are used to diagnose sCJD, with biopsy reserved for cases where definitive diagnosis is necessary. It is important to note that there is currently no curative treatment for sCJD, and the disease is invariably fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old retired pharmacist is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease after being investigated for worsening memory problems and getting lost on his way home from the shops. What is associated with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein = 0.5–1.0 g/l
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) brain scan = dilation of the sulci and ventricles
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests and Their Relevance in Alzheimer’s Disease
Computed tomography (CT) brain scan can be used to exclude vascular disease, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and space-occupying lesions in patients with cognitive decline. In pure Alzheimer’s disease, changes consistent with cerebral atrophy, such as dilated sulci and ventricles, are observed.
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein levels of 0.5-1.0 g/l are not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may indicate bacterial or viral meningitis.
An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 100 mm/hour is not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may be significant in multiple myeloma or vasculitis.
Hemoglobin levels of 85 g/l and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 112 fl suggest macrocytic anemia, which requires further investigation and is most likely due to B12 or folate deficiency.
CSF white cells of 100-150 neutrophils/mm3 are not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may indicate meningitis.
Understanding the Relevance of Diagnostic Tests in Alzheimer’s Disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old retired teacher is being evaluated for progressive memory impairment. Based on the information provided by the patient's spouse, the clinician suspects that the patient may have vascular dementia.
What are the typical features of vascular dementia?Your Answer: Slow, insidious progression
Correct Answer: Unsteadiness and falls
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Vascular Dementia
Vascular dementia is a type of dementia that is characterized by a stepwise, step-down progression. This type of dementia is associated with vascular events within the brain and can cause a range of symptoms. One of the early symptoms of vascular dementia is unsteadiness and falls, as well as gait and mobility problems. Other symptoms may include visuospatial problems, motor dysfunction, dysphasia, pseudobulbar palsy, and mood and personality changes.
Vascular dementia is commonly seen in patients with increased vascular risk and may have a cross-over with Alzheimer’s disease. Brain scanning may reveal multiple infarcts within the brain. To manage vascular dementia, it is important to address all vascular risks, including smoking, diabetes, and hypertension. Patients may also be placed on appropriate anti-platelet therapy and a statin.
Compared to Alzheimer’s dementia, vascular dementia has a more stepwise progression. Additionally, it can cause pseudobulbar palsy, which results in a stiff tongue rather than a weak one. However, agnosia, which is the inability to interpret sensations, is not typically seen in vascular dementia. Visual hallucinations are also more characteristic of Lewy body dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired electrical engineer had a gradual decline in initiating and performing voluntary movements. His face was expressionless and he had tremors, which were particularly obvious when he was sat idle watching tv. He also showed a marked decrease in blinking frequency but had no evidence of dementia.
What is the most probable diagnosis associated with these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parkinson’s disease
Explanation:Movement Disorders and Neurodegenerative Diseases: A Brief Overview
Movement disorders and neurodegenerative diseases are conditions that affect the nervous system and can lead to a range of symptoms, including tremors, rigidity, and difficulty with voluntary movements. Parkinson’s disease is a common neurodegenerative disease that primarily affects the elderly and is characterized by hypokinesia, bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity, lack of facial expression, and decreased blinking frequency. While there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, current treatment strategies involve the administration of L-dopa, which is metabolized to dopamine within the brain and can help stimulate the initiation of voluntary movements.
Huntington’s disease is another neurodegenerative disease that typically presents in middle-aged patients and is characterized by movement disorders, seizures, dementia, and ultimately death. Alzheimer’s disease is a degenerative disorder that can also lead to dementia, but it is not typically associated with movement disorders like Parkinson’s or Huntington’s disease.
In rare cases, damage to the subthalamic nucleus can cause movement disorders like ballism and hemiballism, which are characterized by uncontrolled movements of the limbs on the contralateral side of the body. While these conditions are rare, they highlight the complex interplay between different regions of the brain and the importance of understanding the underlying mechanisms of movement disorders and neurodegenerative diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What brain structure is likely affected in a 72-year-old man who suddenly experiences paralysis on the left side of his body and oculomotor nerve dysfunction on the right side?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midbrain
Explanation:Weber’s Syndrome: A Midbrain Infarction
Weber’s syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is an infarction in the midbrain. This can result in contralateral hemiplegia, which is paralysis on one side of the body, and ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy, which affects the eye muscles on the same side as the infarction. Patients with Weber’s syndrome often experience an abnormal level of consciousness and asymmetric hemiparesis or quadriparesis, which is weakness or paralysis in one or more limbs.
In more than 70% of cases, patients also exhibit ipsilateral third nerve palsies with pupillary abnormalities and oculomotor signs. These symptoms can include drooping eyelids, double vision, and difficulty moving the eye in certain directions. Weber’s syndrome can be a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Treatment may involve medications to manage symptoms and physical therapy to help patients regain strength and mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You are investigating the genetic implications for developing Alzheimer's disease as a part of a research paper.
Which of the following gene alleles is protective against developing Alzheimer's disease in individuals over the age of 60?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ApoE-e2
Explanation:Understanding the Role of Apolipoprotein E Gene Alleles in Alzheimer’s Disease and Cardiovascular Risk
Apolipoprotein E (ApoE) is a crucial component of very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) and has three common gene alleles: ApoE-e2, e3, and e4. Among these, e3 is the most prevalent, found in 50% of the population. However, the presence of different alleles can have varying effects on an individual’s health.
ApoE-e2 is considered a protective gene against the development of Alzheimer’s disease. On the other hand, ApoE-e4 is regarded as a positive predictor for developing the disease and is also associated with the development of atheromatous disease, making it a predictor of cardiovascular risk.
It is important to note that ApoE-e1 and e5 are not significant in terms of their association with Alzheimer’s disease or cardiovascular risk. Therefore, understanding the role of ApoE gene alleles can help in predicting an individual’s susceptibility to these diseases and developing appropriate preventive measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the most common visual field defect associated with multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central scotoma
Explanation:Visual Field Defects and Their Causes
Central scotoma refers to a reduction in vision at the point of fixation, which can interfere with central vision. This condition is often caused by a lesion between the optic nerve head and the chiasm and is commonly associated with retrobulbar neuritis and optic atrophy. Tunnel vision, on the other hand, occurs in conditions such as glaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, and retinal panphotocoagulation. These conditions cause a loss of peripheral vision, resulting in a narrow visual field.
Another visual field defect is an increased blind spot, which is often caused by papilloedema. This condition can lead to optic atrophy and is characterized by an enlargement of the blind spot. Finally, optic chiasma compression can cause bitemporal hemianopia, which is a loss of vision in both temporal fields. This condition is often caused by tumors or other lesions that compress the optic chiasm. these different visual field defects and their causes is important for diagnosing and treating vision problems.
Overall, it is important to note that any changes in vision should be promptly evaluated by a healthcare professional. Early detection and treatment of visual field defects can help prevent further vision loss and improve overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old homeless man with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia for the past 3 weeks. He is unsure if he has had fevers but has experienced chills. He has a history of intravenous drug abuse and hepatitis C. On examination, he appears uncomfortable and avoids light. A lumbar puncture is performed, and India ink highlights several round, thickly encapsulated organisms in his cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
What is the expected CSF finding pattern in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Opening pressure: increased; lymphocyte-predominant; protein: increased; glucose: normal/decreased
Explanation:CSF Profiles in Meningitis: Characteristics and Causes
Meningitis is a serious condition that affects the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is an important diagnostic tool for identifying the cause of meningitis. Here are some common CSF profiles seen in meningitis and their corresponding causes:
1. Cryptococcus meningitis: Increased opening pressure, lymphocyte-predominant, increased protein, normal/decreased glucose. This is a fungal meningitis commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals.
2. Non-specific meningitis: Normal opening pressure, neutrophil-predominant, decreased protein, increased glucose. This CSF profile is not characteristic of any particular cause of meningitis.
3. Aseptic meningitis: Normal opening pressure, normal cells, normal protein, normal glucose. This is a viral meningitis that typically has a milder presentation than bacterial meningitis.
4. Viral meningitis: Normal opening pressure, lymphocyte-predominant, normal protein, normal glucose. This is a common cause of meningitis and is usually self-limiting.
5. Bacterial meningitis: Increased opening pressure, neutrophil-predominant, increased protein, decreased glucose. This is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment with antibiotics.
In summary, CSF analysis is an important tool for diagnosing meningitis and identifying its underlying cause. Understanding the characteristic CSF profiles of different types of meningitis can help guide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 92-year-old woman presents to the Neurology Outpatients with worsening speech difficulties and difficulty swallowing. Upon examination, she exhibits nasal speech, tongue fasciculations, and a lack of gag reflex. The diagnosis given is bulbar palsy. Where is the lesion responsible for this condition typically located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranial nerves IX, X, XI and XII
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Bulbar Palsy: A Guide to Cranial Nerves and Brain Lesions
Bulbar palsy is a condition that results from lower motor neuron lesions in the medulla oblongata or lesions of cranial nerves IX – XII outside the brainstem. To better understand the causes of bulbar palsy, it is important to know the functions of these cranial nerves.
Cranial nerves IX, X, XI, and XII are responsible for various functions. The glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) provides taste to the posterior third of the tongue and somatic sensation to the middle ear, the posterior third of the tongue, the tonsils, and the pharynx. The vagus nerve (X) innervates muscles of the larynx and palate. The accessory nerve (XI) controls the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles, while the hypoglossal nerve (XII) controls the extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue.
It is important to note that lesions of cranial nerves V (trigeminal) and VII (facial) are not responsible for the signs and symptoms of bulbar palsy. A lesion of the facial nerve would cause Bell’s palsy, while lesions of the trigeminal nerve can cause lateral medullary syndrome.
A cerebral cortex lesion would cause upper motor neuron signs and symptoms, which are not specific to bulbar palsy. On the other hand, a lesion in the corticobulbar pathways between the cerebral cortex and the brainstem is found in pseudobulbar palsy. This condition typically presents with upper motor neuron signs and symptoms and can occur as a result of demyelination or bilateral corticobulbar lesions.
Lastly, it is important to note that disorders of the substantia nigra are found in Parkinson’s disease, not bulbar palsy. Understanding the various causes of bulbar palsy can help with proper diagnosis and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man attends the GP practice with his daughter, who is concerned about her father's health and states that he has not been himself lately. For the past few months, he has had a reduced appetite and is spending most of his time in bed, despite waking up early each day. He is forgetting simple things like his grandson's name, appointments and conversations he has recently had, and seems uninterested in most things. He denies any visual or auditory hallucinations. He has a medical history of well controlled hypertension. His wife passed away several years ago. He scores 20 on a Mini-Mental State Examination.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Cognitive Impairment: Depression, Alzheimer’s Disease, Vascular Dementia, Normal Ageing, and Normal Grief Reaction
This patient is presenting with cognitive impairment, but the underlying cause is unclear. Several potential diagnoses should be considered, including depression, Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, normal ageing, and normal grief reaction.
Depression is a likely diagnosis due to the patient’s lack of interest in activities, low appetite, early morning wakening, and diminished concentration. However, it is important to rule out dementia as a differential diagnosis, as depression can present similarly to cognitive impairments.
Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by a gradual decline in cognitive function, with early changes in memory. Neurological examination is typically normal, and gait is rarely affected.
Vascular dementia, on the other hand, is usually sudden onset and can occur after a TIA or stroke. Neurological deficits are often present, with executive function and gait being affected early, and memory later.
Normal ageing does not present in the same way as this patient, as it is a more gradual decline without the depressive symptoms.
Finally, a normal grief reaction is unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s cognitive impairment, as his wife died several years ago.
A comprehensive dementia workup, including a series of baseline blood tests, cognitive assessment, and potentially a brain scan, should be performed to determine the underlying cause of this patient’s cognitive impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his right eye that lasted for about half an hour. He experienced initial blurring of vision followed by cloudiness and inability to see out of the eye. The patient has a recent history of hypertension and takes atenolol, but is otherwise generally healthy. He drinks modest amounts of alcohol and smokes five cigarettes per day. On examination, his vision is now normal in both eyes with visual acuities of 6/12 in both eyes. His pulse is regular at 72 beats per minute, blood pressure is 162/88 mmHg, and BMI is 30. Cardiovascular examination, including auscultation over the neck, is otherwise unremarkable. What investigations would you order for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carotid Dopplers
Explanation:Amaurosis Fugax
Amaurosis fugax is a condition that occurs when an embolism blocks the right carotid distribution, resulting in temporary vision loss. To diagnose this condition, doctors should look for an embolic source and scan the carotids for atheromatous disease. It’s important to note that significant carotid disease may still be present even if there is no bruit. If stenosis greater than 70% of diameter are present, carotid endarterectomy is recommended. Additionally, echocardiography may be used to assess for cardiac embolic sources. To better understand this condition, resources such as a diagnostic flow chart and medical articles can be helpful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man came to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. He had not experienced any recent foreign travel or trauma. Upon examination, he had a fever but no rash or focal neurology. The medical team suspected bacterial meningitis and began treatment. They also requested a lumbar puncture. What is the appropriate spinal level and dural space for the needle to be advanced to during a lumbar puncture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Between L3 and L4, advanced to the subarachnoid space
Explanation:Proper Placement for Lumbar Puncture
The ideal location for a lumbar puncture is between L3 and L4, as this avoids the risk of piercing the spinal cord. To locate this area, a line is drawn across the superior aspect of the posterior iliac crests. The purpose of a lumbar puncture is to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater. However, there are contraindications to this procedure, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, which can lead to coning and respiratory arrest.
It is important to note that advancing the needle too high, such as between L1 and L2, can pose a risk to the spinal cord. Additionally, the epidural space is too superficial to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid. Therefore, proper placement between L3 and L4, advanced to the subarachnoid space, is crucial for a safe and successful lumbar puncture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old homeless individual is brought to the emergency department after being found vomiting. Upon examination, the patient appears confused and disoriented, with unkempt appearance and slurred speech. However, the patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 14. Vital signs include a pulse of 108 bpm, oxygen saturation of 94% on air, and blood pressure of 124/78 mmHg. Cardiovascular and respiratory exams are normal, with mild epigastric tenderness on abdominal exam. The patient has a broad-based gait and bilateral nystagmus with weakness of abduction of the eyes. Reflexes, power, and tone are generally normal with flexor plantar responses. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Medical Emergency
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition caused by thiamine deficiency, which can be life-threatening if not treated urgently. This condition is often seen in alcoholics or malnourished individuals and can even occur during pregnancy due to hyperemesis gravidarum. The classic triad of symptoms includes ataxia, confusion, and ophthalmoplegia.
It is crucial to differentiate Wernicke’s encephalopathy from alcohol intoxication as the former requires immediate thiamine replacement. The recommended treatment is either oral thiamine 300 mg/24h or, preferably, intravenous Pabrinex. If left untreated, the condition can rapidly progress to irreversible Korsakoff’s psychosis due to haemorrhage into the mamillary bodies.
In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency that requires prompt recognition and treatment to prevent irreversible neurological damage. It is essential to be aware of the classic triad of symptoms and to differentiate it from alcohol intoxication to ensure appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of experiencing ‘tingling’ in his wrists and hands at night, with the right side being more affected than the left. Upon examination, you observe atrophy of the thenar eminence of his right hand. He displays slight weakness in thumb opposition and reduced sensation to light touch on the palmar surface of his right hand on the lateral three digits and the lateral half of the fourth digit. Reproduction of his symptoms occurs when you tap immediately distal to the wrist joint of his right hand for about 30 s.
Which nerve is implicated in this man’s condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries in the Upper Limb
Nerve injuries in the upper limb can cause a range of symptoms, including pain, weakness, and sensory loss. Here are some of the most common nerve injuries and their associated symptoms:
1. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (Median Nerve): Compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel can cause pain and loss of sensation in the lateral three-and-a-half digits. Symptoms are often worse at night and are more common in people who use their hands repetitively throughout the day.
2. Radial Neuropathy (Radial Nerve): Compression of the radial nerve at the spiral groove of the humerus can cause weakness of wrist and finger extension, as well as elbow flexion. There may also be sensory loss on the dorsum of the hand.
3. Ulnar Neuropathy (Ulnar Nerve): The ulnar nerve supplies sensation to the fifth digit and the medial aspect of the fourth digit, as well as the interosseous muscles of the hand. It is the second most commonly affected nerve in the upper limb after the median nerve.
4. Musculocutaneous Nerve: Weakness of elbow flexion and sensory loss over the lateral forearm can occur with musculocutaneous nerve palsy.
5. Long Thoracic Nerve: Injury to the long thoracic nerve affects the serratus anterior muscle, causing a winged scapula. This nerve is purely motor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as ‘an explosion’ and ‘the worst headache of her life’. She denies any vomiting or recent trauma and has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there are no cranial nerve abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. She has no significant past medical history or family history. The pain has subsided with codeine, and she wants to be discharged.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:Management of Suspected Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Importance of Lumbar Puncture
When a patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis through appropriate investigations. While a CT scan of the head is often the first-line investigation, it may not always detect an SAH. In such cases, a lumbar puncture can be a valuable tool to confirm the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.
Xanthochromia analysis, which detects the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid, can help differentiate between traumatic and non-traumatic causes of blood in the fluid. To ensure the accuracy of the test, the lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, and the third sample should be sent for xanthochromia analysis.
In cases where an SAH is suspected, it is crucial not to discharge the patient without further investigation. Overnight observation may be an option, but it is not ideal as it delays diagnosis and treatment. Similarly, prescribing analgesia may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue.
The best course of action in suspected SAH is to perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further damage and improve outcomes for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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If a corticospinal tract lesion occurs above the nuclei of cranial nerves, what neurological signs would be anticipated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Upper motor neurone signs in the limbs
Explanation:Neurological Lesions and Their Effects on Motor Function: An Overview
The human body relies on a complex network of nerves to control movement. When these nerves are damaged, it can result in a variety of motor function impairments. Two types of nerve lesions are upper motor neurone and lower motor neurone lesions.
Upper motor neurone lesions affect the corticospinal tract, which connects the primary motor cortex to the alpha motor neurones in the spinal cord. This type of lesion causes spasticity, hyperreflexia, pyramidal weakness, clasp-knife rigidity, and extensor plantar responses.
Lower motor neurone lesions affect the alpha motor neurone and can occur anywhere along the path of the final nerve, from the spinal cord to the peripheral nerve. This type of lesion causes muscle weakness, wasting, hyporeflexia, and fasciculations.
Other nerve lesions can also affect motor function. Vagus nerve palsy, for example, can result in palatal weakness, nasal speech, loss of reflex contraction in the gag reflex, hoarseness of the voice, and a bovine cough. A plexiform neuroma, a benign tumor of the peripheral nerves, can cause a lower motor neurone lesion.
Understanding the effects of neurological lesions on motor function is crucial for diagnosing and treating these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP), complaining of bleeding gums every time she brushes her teeth. She reports that this is very concerning to her and has gotten to the point where she has stopped brushing her teeth.
Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, for which she takes lisinopril. She takes no anticoagulants or antiplatelet medication.
Her observations are as follows:
Temperature 37.1°C
Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
Heart rate 68 bpm
Respiratory rate 16 breaths/min
Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 98% (room air)
Examination of the oral cavity reveals red, swollen gingiva, with bleeding easily provoked with a periodontal probe.
Which of the following is the next best step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to a neurologist
Explanation:Medical Recommendations for Gingival Overgrowth
Gingival overgrowth is a condition where the gum tissues grow excessively, leading to the formation of pockets that can harbor bacteria and cause inflammation. This condition can be caused by certain medications like phenytoin, calcium channel blockers, and ciclosporin. Here are some medical recommendations for managing gingival overgrowth:
Referral to a Neurologist: If the patient is taking antiepileptic medication, a neurologist should review the medication to determine if it is causing the gingival overgrowth.
Avoid Brushing Teeth: Although brushing can exacerbate bleeding, not brushing can lead to poor oral hygiene. The cause of the gingival overgrowth needs to be addressed.
Epstein–Barr Virus Testing: Patients with oral hairy leukoplakia may benefit from Epstein–Barr virus testing.
Pregnancy Test: A pregnancy test is not indicated in patients with gingival overgrowth unless medication is not the likely cause.
Vitamin K: Vitamin K is indicated for patients who require warfarin reversal for supratherapeutic international normalized ratios (INRs). It is not necessary for patients who are clinically stable and not actively bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy is brought to his GP by his mother due to complaints of bilateral leg weakness and difficulty walking, which has been progressively worsening over the past few years. The patient's father, who passed away from a heart attack four years ago, also had similar issues with his legs. During the examination, the patient was found to have pes cavus, bilateral foot drop, and a stamping gait. Additionally, he had bilateral areflexia and flexor plantar responses, as well as glove-and-stocking sensory loss to the ankle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth
Explanation:Neurological Conditions: A Comparison
Charcot–Marie–Tooth Syndrome, Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord, Chronic Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP), Old Polio, and Peripheral Vascular Disease are all neurological conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system. However, each condition has distinct clinical features and diagnostic criteria.
Charcot–Marie–Tooth Syndrome is a hereditary sensorimotor polyneuropathy that presents with foot drop, pes cavus, scoliosis, and stamping gait. A strong family history supports the diagnosis.
Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord is mostly due to vitamin B12 deficiency and presents with a loss of proprioception and vibration sense, spasticity, and hyperreflexia. Risk factors include malabsorption problems or being vegan.
Chronic Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP) causes peripheral neuropathy that is mainly motor. It is associated with anti-GM1 antibody, motor conduction block on nerve conduction studies, and elevated protein in the cerebrospinal fluid. It can be treated with intravenous immunoglobulin, prednisolone, plasmapheresis, and azathioprine.
Old Polio presents with a lower motor neuron pattern of weakness without sensory signs. The signs are often asymmetrical, and the lower limbs are more commonly affected than the upper limbs. Patients may have contractures and fixed flexion deformities from long-standing immobility.
Peripheral Vascular Disease is accompanied by a history of pain, often in the form of calf claudication on walking, and is unlikely to cause the clinical signs described in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What is the definition of Nissl bodies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Granules of rough endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:Nissl Bodies: Stacks of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
Nissl bodies are named after the German neurologist Franz Nissl and are found in neurones following a selective staining method known as Nissl staining. These bodies are composed of stacks of rough endoplasmic reticulum and are a major site of neurotransmitter synthesis, particularly acetylcholine, in the neurone. Therefore, the correct answer is that Nissl bodies are granules of rough endoplasmic reticulum. It is important to note that the other answer options are incorrect as they refer to entirely different organelles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman is recuperating from cavernous venous sinus thrombosis. The wall of the sinus has impacted all nerves passing through it.
What is the most prominent clinical indication of cranial nerve impairment caused by this pathological condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ipsilateral corneal reflex absent
Explanation:Trigeminal Nerve Dysfunction and its Effects on Facial and Oral Function
The trigeminal nerve is responsible for carrying sensory and motor information from the face and oral cavity to the brain. Dysfunction of this nerve can lead to various symptoms affecting facial and oral function.
One common symptom is the absence of the ipsilateral corneal reflex, which is carried by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. Damage to this nerve interrupts the reflex arc of the corneal reflex.
Another symptom is the inability to resist forced lateral mandibular excursion with the mouth partially open. This is due to damage to the pterygoid muscles, which are innervated by the motor fibers in the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
Loss of sensation over the lower lip is also a result of trigeminal nerve dysfunction. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve carries general somatic afferent nerves from the lower lip.
Similarly, loss of somatic sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is also carried by the trigeminal nerve.
Lastly, the facial nerve innervates the buccinator muscle, which is responsible for the ability to blow out the cheeks. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to perform this action.
Overall, dysfunction of the trigeminal nerve can have significant effects on facial and oral function, highlighting the importance of this nerve in everyday activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old man comes to your clinic with his wife. He has been experiencing memory loss for recent events and has gotten lost while out shopping. His cognitive abilities seem to fluctuate frequently, but overall, they appear to be declining. Additionally, he reports seeing small, fairy-like creatures running around, although he knows they are not real. He has also had several unexplained falls. Apart from increased muscle tone in all limbs, there are no other neurological symptoms. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies
Explanation:Different Types of Dementia: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Dementia is a progressive cognitive impairment that affects millions of people worldwide. There are several types of dementia, each with its own set of symptoms and diagnostic criteria. Here are some of the most common types of dementia:
Dementia with Lewy bodies
This type of dementia is characterized by a progressive decline in cognitive function, with a particular emphasis on memory loss and disorientation. It is caused by the presence of Lewy bodies in the brain, which are distributed more widely than in Parkinson’s disease. Diagnosis requires the presence of dementia, as well as two out of three core features: fluctuating attention and concentration, recurrent visual hallucinations, and spontaneous parkinsonism.Huntington’s disease
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that typically presents in middle age. It causes a deterioration in mental ability and mood, as well as uncoordinated movements and jerky, random motions. Diagnosis is made through genetic testing.Multi-infarct dementia
This type of dementia is caused by a history of interrupted blood supply to the brain, such as multiple strokes. Risk factors include hypertension, diabetes, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and cardiovascular disease.Pick’s disease
Also known as fronto-temporal dementia, Pick’s disease is characterized by a loss of inhibitions and other behavioral changes.Alzheimer’s disease
The most common type of dementia, Alzheimer’s is characterized by a gradual decline in cognitive function, including memory loss and disorientation. However, the presence of visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, and a fluctuating course may indicate dementia with Lewy bodies instead.In conclusion, understanding the different types of dementia and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman complains of numbness and ‘pins and needles’ in her left leg that has been present for 48 h after a long flight. On examination, there is reduced sensation to light touch at the lateral aspect of her left thigh, extending from the iliac crest to the knee. There is no distal sensory loss. There is preserved motor function through all muscle groups of the affected limb. There is no weakness or sensory change in the opposite limb.
What is the most likely anatomical source for this woman’s presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries and Their Symptoms
Nerve injuries can cause a variety of symptoms depending on the affected nerve. Here are some common nerve injuries and their associated symptoms:
Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve: A mononeuropathy of this nerve causes numbness in a narrow strip of the lateral thigh. It is often associated with rapid weight gain, such as in pregnancy.
Sciatic Nerve: A sciatic neuropathy can cause weakness in hip extension, knee flexion, ankle plantar flexion/dorsiflexion, and toe plantar flexion/dorsiflexion, as well as inversion and eversion of the foot. It is commonly caused by pelvic trauma, neoplasia, or surgery.
Femoral Nerve: A femoral neuropathy can cause numbness in the medial thigh, medial leg, and medial aspect of the ankle, as well as weakness in hip flexion and knee extension. It is often caused by motor compression, such as in femoral fracture or childbirth.
Obturator Nerve: An obturator neuropathy can cause weakness in internal rotation and adduction at the hip, as well as sensory disturbance over the medial thigh.
L5 Nerve Root: Involvement of the L5 nerve root can cause weakness in ankle and toe dorsiflexion (causing a foot drop) and weakness in ankle inversion. There is also sensory disturbance along the lateral aspect of the leg (below the knee). It can be similar to an anterior tibial neuropathy, but can be distinguished by the weakness in ankle eversion instead of inversion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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What condition is Tinel's sign utilized to diagnose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Tinel’s Sign for Median Nerve Compression
Tinel’s sign is a diagnostic test used to identify median nerve compression. It involves tapping firmly over the ventral aspect of the wrist, specifically over the carpal tunnel, which produces an electric shock along the course of the median nerve. The test is performed by tapping over the creases on the inner side of the wrist between the two bones on either side of the base of the palm.
The specificity of Tinel’s sign is high at 94%, meaning that it accurately identifies those with median nerve compression. However, the sensitivity of the test ranges from 44-70%, indicating that it may not identify all cases of median nerve compression. Despite this limitation, Tinel’s sign remains a useful tool for diagnosing median nerve compression and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit, after his parents witnessed him having a seizure. He has no history of seizures. The seizure lasted 30 seconds, and his parents described both his arms and legs shaking. There was no incontinence or tongue biting. For the last week he has had a flu-like illness, and the parents have recorded temperatures of 39.1°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). You suspect a diagnosis of febrile seizures.
What advice should you give the parents about the risk of future seizures?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The child could seize again, but the risk of developing epilepsy is low
Explanation:Understanding Febrile Seizures and the Risk of Epilepsy
Febrile seizures are a common occurrence in young children, often caused by a sudden spike in body temperature. While they are not epilepsy, parents should be aware that their child may be at a greater risk of developing epilepsy in the future. The risk for a simple febrile seizure is between 2.0-7.5%, while a complex febrile seizure increases the risk to 10-20%. Risk factors include a family history of febrile seizures or epilepsy, human herpes virus 6 infection, and deficiencies in iron or zinc. During a seizure, it is important to remove any objects that could cause harm and cushion the child’s head. If the seizure lasts for more than 5 minutes, emergency services should be contacted and medication administered. While paracetamol can help bring down the fever, it does not prevent future seizures. It is important for parents to understand the potential risks and seek medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents with wrist drop in his right hand. Upon examination, a small region of sensory loss is noted on the back of his hand. Which nerve is most likely affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:The radial nerve supplies muscles in the forearm and sensation to the dorsum of the thumb and fingers. Damage results in wrist drop and impaired sensation. The long thoracic nerve supplies serratus anterior and damage causes winging of the scapula. Median nerve palsy results in weakness in thumb and finger movement and sensory loss. T1 nerve root lesion results in Klumpke’s palsy. Ulnar nerve compression results in numbness and weakness in the hand, and can progress to a claw hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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What does the term bouton terminaux refer to in an axodendritic chemical synapse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The synaptic terminal of the presynaptic axon
Explanation:Bouton Terminaux: The Synaptic Terminal of the Presynaptic Axon
A bouton terminaux, also known as a terminal button or end bulb, is a bulge found at the end of a synaptic projection, which can be either an axon or a dendrite. This structure is responsible for releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft, allowing for communication between neurons. It is important to note that the bouton terminaux specifically refers to the presynaptic cell in the context of a synapse.
It is essential to differentiate the bouton terminaux from other structures involved in synaptic transmission. For instance, synaptic vesicles are membrane-bound packages containing neurotransmitters, but they are not the same as the bouton terminaux. Similarly, axon varicosities are small swellings along the length of an axon that release neurotransmitters directly onto effector organs, such as smooth muscle, and are not the same as the bouton terminaux.
Furthermore, the end bulb on the postsynaptic axon is not the same as the bouton terminaux, even though it is another term for it. This is because the end bulb refers to the postsynaptic cell, whereas the bouton terminaux specifically refers to the presynaptic cell. Finally, fusion pores on the presynaptic axon membrane are structures formed after the presynaptic neurotransmitter vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane and are not the same as the bouton terminaux.
In summary, the bouton terminaux is a crucial structure in synaptic transmission, responsible for releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. It is specific to the presynaptic cell and should not be confused with other structures involved in synaptic transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old, fit and healthy woman develops severe headache, confusion and nausea on day 5 of climbing Mount Kilimanjaro in her adventure trip. A doctor accompanying the group examines her and finds her to be tachycardic with a raised temperature. They diagnose high-altitude cerebral oedema.
What is the most crucial step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Descent
Explanation:Treatment of High-Altitude Cerebral Oedema: The Importance of Rapid Descent
High-altitude cerebral oedema is a serious medical emergency that can be fatal if not treated promptly. It is caused by swelling of the brain at high altitudes and requires immediate action. The most important management for this condition is rapid descent to lower altitudes. In severe cases, patients may need to be air-lifted or carried down as their symptoms prevent them from doing so themselves. While oxygen and steroids like dexamethasone can help improve symptoms, they are secondary to descent.
Acetazolamide is a medication that can be used to prevent acute mountain sickness, but it is not effective in treating high-altitude cerebral oedema. Oxygen can also help reduce symptoms, but it is not a substitute for rapid descent.
Rest is important in preventing acute mountain sickness, but it is not appropriate for a patient with high-altitude cerebral oedema. Adequate time for acclimatisation and following the principles of climb high, sleep low can reduce the risk of developing symptoms.
In summary, rapid descent is the most important treatment for high-altitude cerebral oedema. Other interventions like oxygen and steroids can be helpful, but they are not a substitute for immediate action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old truck driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very eager to return to work as he is self-employed. After 3 weeks, he has made a complete clinical recovery and neurological examination is normal. As per the guidelines of the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA), when can he recommence driving his truck?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12 months after onset of symptoms
Explanation:Driving Restrictions Following Stroke or TIA
After experiencing a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA), there are various restrictions on driving depending on the time elapsed since onset of symptoms and the type of vehicle being driven.
For car drivers, it is recommended that they do not drive for at least 4 weeks after a TIA or stroke. After 1 month, they may resume driving if there has been satisfactory recovery.
However, for lorry or bus drivers, licences will be revoked for 1 year following a stroke or TIA. After 12 months, relicensing may be offered subject to satisfactory clinical recovery. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required.
For car drivers who have had a single TIA or stroke, they may resume driving 1 month after the event following satisfactory clinical recovery.
Overall, it is important to follow these restrictions to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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What is the ionic event that occurs just before the creation of fusion pores during neurotransmitter synaptic release?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium ion influx
Explanation:The Process of Synaptic Neurotransmitter Release
Synaptic neurotransmitter release is a complex process that involves the depolarization of the presynaptic membrane, opening of voltage-gated calcium channels, influx of calcium ions, and binding of vesicle-associated membrane proteins (VAMPs). This causes a conformational change that leads to the fusion of the neurotransmitter vesicle with the presynaptic membrane, forming a fusion pore. The neurotransmitter is then released into the synaptic cleft, where it can bind to target receptors on the postsynaptic cell.
The postsynaptic density, which is an accumulation of specialized proteins, ensures that the postsynaptic receptors are in place to bind the released neurotransmitters. The only correct answer from the given options is calcium ion influx, as it is essential for the process of synaptic neurotransmitter release. this process is crucial for how neurons communicate with each other and how neurotransmitters affect behavior and cognition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man complained of a sudden frontal headache accompanied by photophobia. He also experienced neck stiffness and had a temperature of 38°C. What distinguishing feature would indicate a diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage instead of bacterial meningitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A family history of polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Comparing Risk Factors and Symptoms of Meningitis, SAH, and Cerebral Aneurysms
Fluctuating levels of consciousness are common symptoms of both meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). While hypertension is a known risk factor for SAH, diabetes does not increase the risk. On the other hand, opiate abuse is not associated with an increased risk of SAH. Cerebral aneurysms, which are a type of SAH, are often linked to polycystic kidney disease. It is important to understand the different risk factors and symptoms associated with these conditions to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment. By recognizing these factors, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, headache, and feeling generally unwell for the past two days. She denies having a rash, neck stiffness, photophobia, or vomiting. Her vital signs are within normal limits. The medical team suspects she may have viral encephalitis and orders a computed tomography head scan and lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis.
The initial CSF results confirm the suspected diagnosis, showing a normal opening pressure and CSF glucose level, with a slightly elevated white cell count, mostly lymphocytes, and a protein level of 0.6 g/l (normal value < 0.45 g/l). While waiting for the CSF culture results, what is the most appropriate management for this 20-year-old woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: acyclovir
Explanation:Treatment Options for Suspected Encephalitis or Meningitis
Encephalitis is a condition where the brain parenchyma is infected, while meningitis is characterized by inflammation of the meninges. A patient with symptoms of fever, headache, and altered mental state may have viral encephalitis, which is commonly caused by herpes simplex virus type I. In such cases, acyclovir should be started immediately, as it has been proven to improve morbidity and mortality. On the other hand, empirical ceftriaxone is often used for suspected bacterial meningitis, while benzylpenicillin is recommended for patients with a non-blanching rash. Dexamethasone is used to reduce inflammation in certain cases of bacterial meningitis. However, supportive management alone with analgesia is not appropriate for suspected encephalitis or meningitis. It is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and initial CSF results before deciding on the appropriate treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of facial pain and diplopia. Clinical examination reveals CN III, CN IV and CN VI palsies, a Horner’s syndrome, and facial sensory loss in the distribution of the V1 (ophthalmic) and V2 (maxillary) divisions of the trigeminal cranial nerve.
Where is the causative abnormality located?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cavernous sinus
Explanation:Anatomy of Cranial Nerves and the Cavernous Sinus
The cavernous sinus is a crucial location for several cranial nerves and blood vessels. Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI, as well as the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) divisions of the V cranial nerve, pass through the cavernous sinus with the internal carotid artery. The V2 division of the trigeminal nerve exits via the foramen rotundum, while the rest of the cranial nerves enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure.
Damage to these nerves can result in ophthalmoplegia, facial pain, and sensory loss. Involvement of sympathetic nerves around the internal carotid artery can lead to Horner’s syndrome. Tolosa Hunt syndrome is an idiopathic inflammatory process that affects the cavernous sinus and can cause a cluster of these symptoms.
Dorello’s canal carries cranial nerve VI (abducens) from the pontine cistern to the cavernous sinus. The zygomatic branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve passes through the inferior orbital fissure. Meckel’s cave houses the trigeminal nerve ganglion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old university student exhibits involuntary head twitching and flicking of his hands. He also says that he suffers from embarrassing grunting which can affect him at almost any time. When he is in lectures at the university he manages to control it, but often when he comes home and relaxes the movements and noises get the better of him. His girlfriend who attends the consultation with him tells you that he seems very easily distracted and often is really very annoying, repeating things which she says to him and mimicking her. On further questioning, it transpires that this has actually been a problem since childhood. On examination his BP is 115/70 mmHg, pulse is 74 beats/min and regular. His heart sounds are normal, respiratory, abdominal and neurological examinations are entirely normal.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 129 g/l 135–175 g/l
White Cell Count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 193 × 109 /l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) 23 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gilles de la Tourette syndrome
Explanation:Distinguishing Movement Disorders: Gilles de la Tourette Syndrome, Congenital Cerebellar Ataxia, Haemochromatosis, Huntington’s Disease, and Wilson’s Disease
Gilles de la Tourette syndrome is characterized by motor and vocal tics that are preceded by an unwanted premonitory urge. These tics may be suppressible, but with associated tension and mental exhaustion. The diagnosis is based on clinical presentation and history, with an association with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, behavioural problems, and self-mutilation. The pathophysiology is unknown, but treatments include neuroleptics, atypical antipsychotics, and benzodiazepines.
Congenital cerebellar ataxia typically presents with a broad-based gait and dysmetria, which is not seen in this case. Haemochromatosis has a controversial link to movement disorders. Huntington’s disease primarily presents with chorea, irregular dancing-type movements that are not repetitive or rhythmic and lack the premonitory urge and suppressibility seen in Tourette’s. Wilson’s disease has central nervous system manifestations, particularly parkinsonism and tremor, which are not present in this case. It is important to distinguish between these movement disorders for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old farm worker presents with a two-day history of progressive weakness and tingling in all limbs. He had a recent episode of respiratory symptoms that resolved without treatment. On examination, he has decreased muscle strength in all extremities and absent deep tendon reflexes in the legs. Laboratory results show normal blood counts and electrolytes, as well as elevated CSF protein and normal glucose. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post-infectious polyradiculopathy
Explanation:Guillain-Barré Syndrome and Peripheral Neuropathy Diagnosis
A history of progressive weakness and loss of tendon reflexes, especially after a recent infection, may indicate Guillain-Barré syndrome, also known as post-infectious polyradiculopathy. It is important to monitor respiratory function regularly, and the best way to do this is by measuring the vital capacity. When diagnosing peripheral neuropathy, a focused clinical assessment that addresses several key issues can significantly narrow down the differential diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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In which condition is a stiff neck not present in a toddler?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measles
Explanation:Complications of Measles and Other Causes of Neck Stiffness
Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can lead to various complications. These include respiratory problems such as croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and pneumonitis. Measles can also cause conjunctivitis, myocarditis, hepatitis, and encephalitis, which occurs in 1 in 1000-2000 cases. Additionally, measles can make the body more susceptible to ear infections and bacterial pneumonia.
Apart from measles, other conditions can also cause neck stiffness. For instance, the involvement of the cervical spine in the arthritis of Still’s disease may lead to neck stiffness. Tuberculosis (TB) may cause tuberculous meningitis or Pott’s disease, both of which can cause neck stiffness. Another recognized cause of neck stiffness with an extended neck is retropharyngeal abscess.
In summary, measles can lead to various complications, including respiratory problems, conjunctivitis, myocarditis, hepatitis, and encephalitis. It can also make the body more susceptible to ear infections and bacterial pneumonia. Other conditions such as Still’s disease, TB, and retropharyngeal abscess can also cause neck stiffness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to your GP Surgery with worry about an incident that occurred earlier in the day. He vaguely describes experiencing epigastric discomfort, followed by a tingling sensation down his arms and the scent of cooking bacon. Additionally, he reports feeling generally unwell. He did not lose consciousness during the episode. Upon further questioning, he mentions having experienced similar symptoms before. You observe that he has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease and had a stroke four months ago.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Focal aware seizure
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Focal Aware Seizures
Focal aware seizures, also known as simple focal seizures or auras, are a type of seizure that do not result in loss of awareness. Patients may experience vague discomfort, unusual smells or tastes, tingling, or twitching in an arm or leg. It is important to note that these seizures can be a sign of another type of seizure to come. Risk factors include head trauma and previous stroke.
Malingering, or feigning symptoms for secondary gain, should be considered but is a diagnosis of exclusion. It is important to thoroughly investigate the patient’s symptoms before making this diagnosis.
Focal impaired awareness seizures, previously known as complex focal seizures, result in memory loss, loss of awareness, and automatic bodily movements. This is not the case for a patient with focal aware seizures.
Gastritis may be a differential due to the patient’s epigastric pain, but it does not fit with the other neurological symptoms.
Psychotic hallucinations should be considered but are less likely given the patient’s coherent description of events and lack of history or risk factors for mental illness.
In summary, when presented with a patient experiencing focal aware seizures, it is important to consider other neurological conditions before making a diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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What impact would a voltage-gated calcium channel inhibitor have on action potentials in the central nervous system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease of postsynaptic potentials
Explanation:Effects of Inhibition of Voltage-Gated Channels in the Central Nervous System
In the central nervous system, voltage-gated calcium channels play a crucial role in the release of neurotransmitters. On the other hand, action potentials involve sodium and potassium voltage-gated channels. If these channels are inhibited, the amount of neurotransmitter released would decrease, leading to a subsequent decrease in the postsynaptic potentials, both graded and action. It is important to note that the decrease in postsynaptic potentials is the only correct option from the given choices.
It is incorrect to assume that the inhibition of voltage-gated channels would lead to a decrease in action potential amplitude. This is because the amplitude of an action potential is an all-or-none event, and it is the frequency of action potentials that determines the strength of a stimulus. Similarly, the decrease in action potential conduction speed is also incorrect as it depends on the myelination of the axon. Moreover, it is incorrect to assume that inhibiting voltage-gated channels would increase the speed and amplitude of action potentials.
Lastly, inhibiting presynaptic potentials is also incorrect as they depend on sodium/potassium voltage-gated ion channels. Therefore, it is essential to understand the effects of inhibiting voltage-gated channels in the central nervous system to avoid any misconceptions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man reports experiencing fatigue that worsens towards the end of the day. He has also been struggling with swallowing and finds repetitive movements challenging. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors
Explanation:Autoimmune Conditions and their Mechanisms
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune condition characterized by autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors of the post-synaptic neuronal membranes of skeletal muscle. This inhibits the binding of acetylcholine, blocking neuronal transmission and resulting in muscle weakness. Diagnosis is made through serum testing for antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor, and treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunomodulating drugs.
In Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, autoantibodies to presynaptic calcium channel blockers are found, often in association with small cell lung cancer. Demyelinating diseases such as multiple sclerosis are caused by the destruction of the myelin sheath surrounding neuronal axons.
Understanding Autoimmune Conditions and their Mechanisms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman complains of weakness and difficulty breathing. These symptoms have been getting worse over the last three months and have now become so severe that she is unable to work. She has no history of any medical conditions.
During the examination, the patient appears pale. The only notable finding is a strange involuntary movement of her fingers when she closes her eyes. Her blood film shows the presence of multi-lobed neutrophils.
What clinical feature might be observed in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinal haemorrhage
Explanation:Vitamin B12 Deficiency and Dorsal Column Signs
This patient is presenting with megaloblastic anaemia and dorsal column signs, specifically pseudoathetosis due to loss of proprioceptive input from the hands. These symptoms suggest a possible vitamin B12 deficiency, which may also be indicated by the presence of multilobed neutrophils and retinal haemorrhages. While absent ankle jerks and extensor plantar reflex are common in B12 deficiency, cerebellar symptoms and hemiplegia are not typically associated with this condition. Instead, these symptoms may be indicative of multiple sclerosis, which can also present with dorsal column signs. Glossitis or beefy tongue may be present in B12 deficiency, along with other oral features like angular stomatitis or cheilitis in cases of multiple vitamin deficiencies. While retinal haemorrhage is a rare manifestation of B12 deficiency, other rare features may include optic atrophy, generalized hyperpigmentation, and dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old former miner is referred to the psycho-geriatrician by his general practitioner. His daughter is concerned over his increasingly poor memory and difficulty looking after himself particularly in the last month. Two years previously, he was well and an active member of the local Rotary Club. His past medical history includes a myocardial infarction aged 68 years, osteoarthritis of the knees and peripheral vascular disease.
On examination: bibasal fine inspiratory crepitations; right inguinal hernia; left renal bruit.
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multi-infarct dementia
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Dementia: Multi-Infarct Dementia, Alzheimer’s Disease, and More
Dementia is a condition characterized by cognitive decline and disability, affecting memory, personality, and intellect. One type of dementia is multi-infarct dementia, which is caused by repeated small cerebrovascular accidents in the brain. This leads to a stepwise deterioration in cognitive status and is often accompanied by a history of arterial disease. Other types of dementia include frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Alzheimer’s disease, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). Each type has its own characteristic features, such as frontal lobe features in Pick’s disease, amyloid plaques and tau protein neurofibrillary tangles in Alzheimer’s disease, and urinary incontinence and gait abnormalities in normal pressure hydrocephalus and sporadic CJD. It is important to identify a reversible cause for dementia at the time of presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter who has noticed that he is becoming increasingly forgetful and unsteady on his feet. Unfortunately his daughter does not know anything about his previous medical history or whether he takes any medications. Routine investigations reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Haemaglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular value 101 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 x 109/
Sodium 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 1.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 78 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Random blood sugar 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Given these results, which is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for Abnormal Blood Results: Alcohol Excess, Hypothyroidism, B12 Deficiency, Myelodysplasia, and Phenytoin Toxicity
The patient’s blood results suggest a diagnosis of alcohol excess, which can cause confusion and increase the risk of subdural hematomas and recurrent falls. The macrocytosis, thrombocytopenia, mild hyponatremia, and low urea are all consistent with excess alcohol. Hypothyroidism can also cause macrocytosis and hyponatremia, but not thrombocytopenia or low urea. B12 deficiency may cause pancytopenia and marked macrocytosis, making it the next most likely option after alcohol excess. Myelodysplasia typically presents with shortness of breath and fatigue, and may show macrocytosis and thrombocytopenia on blood results. Phenytoin toxicity may cause macrocytosis and ataxia, as well as a range of other symptoms and signs such as fever and gingival hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old man is admitted at the request of his concerned family due to increased confusion. This has occurred over the past 3 months and has become steadily worse. He was living independently and had been an active local councillor. Now he is unable to identify his family members.
Examination findings: pleasantly confused, intermittent jerky movements of both upper arms.
The following investigations were performed:
CT brain: normal
Dementia screen: normal
Which one of the following diagnostic tests will assist most in diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electroencephalogram
Explanation:Investigations for Rapid Cognitive Decline in a Middle-Aged Patient: A Case of Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
When a patient in their 60s presents with rapid cognitive decline and myoclonic jerks, the possibility of sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) should be considered. Despite negative findings from other investigations, a lumbar puncture and electroencephalogram (EEG) can support the diagnosis of sCJD. The EEG will show generalised bi- or triphasic periodic sharp wave complexes, while definitive diagnosis can only be made from biopsy. Doppler ultrasound of carotids is relevant for vascular dementia, but the steady decline in this case suggests sCJD. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain is unlikely to aid diagnosis, and muscle biopsy is unnecessary as myoclonic jerks are a symptom of sCJD. Bone marrow biopsy is only useful if myelodysplastic syndrome is suspected, which is not the case here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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In what way does an ion affect the overall membrane potential of a neuron?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: By its valence, concentration gradient and membrane permeability
Explanation:The causes of clubbing are varied and complex. Clubbing is a medical condition that affects the fingers and toes, causing them to become enlarged and rounded. Although the exact cause of clubbing is not fully understood, it is commonly associated with respiratory, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular disorders.
Among the cardiovascular causes of clubbing, two main conditions stand out: infective endocarditis and tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart disorder that is characterized by four malformations in the heart. These include ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, over-riding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.
As a result of these malformations, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the patient’s body, leading to low blood oxygen saturation. This can cause a range of symptoms, including sudden cyanosis followed by syncope, which is commonly referred to as tet spells in children. In older children, squatting can help relieve these symptoms by reducing circulation to the legs and relieving syncope.
Understanding the causes of clubbing is important, particularly for medical examinations, as it can help identify underlying conditions that may require further investigation and treatment. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of clubbing, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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An epileptic teenager is seeking advice regarding their ability to drive following a seizure six months ago. On further enquiry, you discover that the seizure was in response to a medication change, which also took place six months ago and since being put back on their original medication, they have been seizure-free.
What advice is appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can apply to the DVLA to reinstate her licence now
Explanation:Clarifying Misconceptions about Driving Eligibility for Patients with Epilepsy
There are several misconceptions about driving eligibility for patients with epilepsy. One common misconception is that a patient must wait another six months before being eligible to drive after a medication-induced seizure. However, according to DVLA guidance, if the patient has been seizure-free for six months on their working medication, they can apply to reinstate their licence.
Another misconception is that the patient must trial the new medication again to determine if they can drive. This is not true, as reverting back to the previous medication that did not work would not be helpful.
Additionally, some believe that the patient must wait another 12 months due to the medication change resulting in the seizure. However, the time a patient must be seizure-free is not increased because the seizure was medication-induced.
It is important to note that if a patient with epilepsy has been seizure-free for a certain period of time, depending on certain circumstances, they will be eligible to drive again in most cases. It is crucial for patients and healthcare professionals to have accurate information about driving eligibility for patients with epilepsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old lady comes to the doctor with a gradual onset of bradykinesia, rigidity and tremor.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parkinson’s disease
Explanation:Distinguishing Parkinson’s Disease from Other Neurological Disorders
Parkinson’s disease is characterized by a classical triad of symptoms, including tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Other symptoms may include truncal instability, stooped posture, and shuffling gait. The disease is caused by a decrease in dopamine production from the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia. While there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, medications such as levodopa can help improve movement disorders by increasing dopamine levels.
It is important to distinguish Parkinson’s disease from other neurological disorders that may present with similar symptoms. A cerebral tumor could potentially cause similar symptoms, but this is much less common than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease. Lewy body dementia is characterized by cognitive impairment and visual hallucinations, which are not present in Parkinson’s disease. Benign essential tremor causes an intention tremor, while Parkinson’s disease is characterized by a resting, pill-rolling tremor. Alzheimer’s disease presents with progressive cognitive impairment, rather than the movement disorders seen in Parkinson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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You are asked to give a presentation to a group of third-year medical students about the different types of dementia and how they may present.
Which of the following is characteristic of frontotemporal dementia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Confabulation and repetition
Explanation:Understanding Fronto-Temporal Dementia: Symptoms and Features
Fronto-temporal dementia is a complex disorder that affects both the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. Its diagnosis can be challenging, especially in the early stages of the disease. To better understand this condition, it is helpful to examine its symptoms and features based on the affected brain regions.
Frontal lobe dysfunction is characterized by changes in personality and behavior, such as loss of tact and concern for others, disinhibition, emotional instability, distractibility, impulsivity, and fixed attitudes. However, some patients may exhibit opposite behaviors and become increasingly withdrawn.
Temporal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, affects speech and language abilities, leading to dysphasia, confabulation, repetition, and difficulty finding words and names (semantic dementia).
Other features of fronto-temporal dementia include earlier onset (typically between 40-60 years old), slow and insidious progression, relatively preserved memory in the early stages, and loss of executive function as the disease advances. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, hallucinations, paranoia, and delusions are rare, and personality and mood remain largely unaffected.
It is important to note that fronto-temporal dementia can present differently in late onset cases (70-80 years old) and does not typically involve bradykinesia, a hallmark symptom of Parkinson’s disease. Rapid progressive loss of memory and cognitive abilities is also not typical of fronto-temporal dementia, as the disease tends to progress slowly over time.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and features of fronto-temporal dementia can aid in its early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man complains of severe headaches behind his right eye that last for 1-2 hours at a time. These headaches can occur daily for up to 6 weeks, but then he can go for months without experiencing one. He also experiences eye redness and runny nose alongside his headaches. Despite trying paracetamol and tramadol prescribed by another doctor, he has not found any relief. The pain is so intense that he cannot sleep and if he gets a headache during the day, he is unable to work or socialize. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headache is a type of headache that mainly affects young men. It is characterized by severe pain behind one eye that can last for up to two hours and occurs repeatedly for a certain period before disappearing for up to a year. Treatment options include inhaled oxygen or sumatriptan, as simple painkillers are usually ineffective.
Tension-type headache, on the other hand, is a headache that feels like a tight band around the head and is not accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, or functional impairment. It can be treated with simple painkillers like paracetamol.
Migraine is a recurring headache that may be preceded by an aura and is often accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, and functional impairment. Treatment options include simple painkillers and triptans for more severe attacks.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a medical emergency that presents as a sudden, severe headache often described as the worst of someone’s life. It requires urgent evaluation with CT brain and possible lumbar puncture to assess the cerebrospinal fluid. A ruptured berry aneurysm is a common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Meningitis, on the other hand, is associated with fever and systemic symptoms and does not present episodically over a chronic period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic accompanied by his brother. He reports experiencing episodes of confusion and amnesia that typically last for a few minutes. His brother has observed him suddenly stopping what he is doing and staring into space on several occasions. The patient presents a video of one such episode, which shows lip-smacking and chewing. He has no recollection of these incidents, but he has noticed the smell of burning and a strange sense of déjà vu on multiple occasions. There is no indication of tongue biting or limb jerking. The patient is in good health, but he admits to regularly using cannabis. What is the most probable cause of these occurrences?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy
Explanation:Distinguishing Temporal Lobe Epilepsy from Other Seizure Disorders and Cannabis Usage
Temporal lobe epilepsy is a neurological disorder that can manifest in various ways, including somatosensory or special sensory aura, visual hallucinations, déjà vu, manual automatisms, postictal confusion, or amnesia. The underlying causes can be diverse, such as previous infections or head trauma, and require investigation through electroencephalogram (EEG) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Narcolepsy, on the other hand, is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, hypnagogic hallucinations, or cataplexy, and is not associated with the seizure activity typical of temporal lobe epilepsy. Absence seizures, which involve staring into space, do not feature the sensory aura or postictal confusion of temporal lobe epilepsy. Cannabis overuse may cause seizures and psychosis, but not the specific seizures described in this scenario. Non-epileptic seizures, which can have organic or psychogenic causes, may be a differential diagnosis, but the presence of classic symptoms such as sensory aura, lip-smacking, and déjà vu suggest that temporal lobe epilepsy is more likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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What is the neuronal factor that influences the velocity of action potential transmission?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axon myelination
Explanation:Factors Affecting Action Potential Speed in Neurons
Action potential speed in neurons is influenced by various structural factors. The diameter and length of the axon determine the amount of resistance an action potential will encounter during propagation. Axonal myelination is another important factor that increases the speed of action potentials by enabling saltatory conduction between nodes of Ranvier. Myelin sheaths, which are electrically insulating materials that wrap around axons, cause action potentials to propagate via saltatory conduction, thus increasing their speed. Additionally, the kinetics of voltage-gated ion channels, especially sodium and potassium, play a critical role in the generation of action potentials.
On the other hand, there are factors that do not affect the propagation speed of an action potential. The number of dendrites a neuron has only affects the transmission of action potentials between neurons. The type of neurotransmitter and receptor type only influence the ultimate outcome of the action potential, but not its speed. Similarly, the postsynaptic potential only promotes or inhibits action potentials, but does not affect their speed of conduction.
In summary, the speed of action potentials in neurons is determined by structural factors such as axon diameter and length, axonal myelination, and the kinetics of voltage-gated ion channels. Other factors such as the number of dendrites, type of neurotransmitter and receptor, and postsynaptic potential do not affect the speed of action potential propagation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl is brought from a school party following an episode of loss of consciousness. She was noted to have jerking of the limbs, frothing at the mouth and was incontinent of urine in the episode. Examination is non-contributory. Blood investigations and CT scan of the brain are normal. She mentions a similar case when on holiday about a year before this episode for which she did not receive treatment.
What is an appropriate step in this patient's management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist
Explanation:Managing Epilepsy: Key Steps and Considerations
Epilepsy is a complex condition that requires careful management to ensure optimal outcomes for patients. Here are some key steps and considerations that healthcare professionals should keep in mind when treating patients with epilepsy:
1. Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist: Epilepsy nurse specialists can serve as valuable intermediaries between patients and healthcare providers, helping to ensure effective communication and treatment compliance.
2. Advise patients to avoid driving and other high-risk activities: Patients with epilepsy should be advised to avoid driving until they have been seizure-free for a certain amount of time (according to local laws). They should also be cautioned against engaging in other high-risk activities, such as operating heavy machinery or swimming unaccompanied.
3. Refer for diagnostic testing: Patients who have experienced one or more seizures should be referred for diagnostic testing, including blood investigations, EEG, and MRI. These tests can help to identify the underlying cause of seizures and guide treatment decisions.
4. Consider drug treatment: Drug treatment is often necessary for patients with epilepsy, but the choice of medication should be carefully considered based on the patient’s seizure type and individual needs. Sodium valproate and lamotrigine are often used for generalised tonic-clonic seizures, while carbamazepine is first-line for partial seizures.
5. Monitor for side effects: All medications used to treat epilepsy have potential side effects, so patients should be carefully monitored for any adverse reactions. Women of childbearing age should avoid sodium valproate due to the risk of neural tube defects.
6. Consider MRI if EEG shows abnormality: MRI is indicated for patients with new-onset epilepsy or failure of first-line medication, unless there is a clear diagnosis of idiopathic generalised epilepsy. In acute situations, a CT scan may be necessary.
By following these key steps and considerations, healthcare professionals can help to ensure that patients with epilepsy receive the best possible care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as ‘an explosion’ and ‘the worst headache of her life’. She denies any vomiting or recent trauma and has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there are no cranial nerve abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. She has no significant medical or family history. The pain has subsided with codeine, and she wants to be discharged.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:Management of Suspected Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Importance of Lumbar Puncture
When a patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis through appropriate investigations. While a CT scan of the head is often the first-line investigation, it may not always detect an SAH. In such cases, a lumbar puncture can be a valuable tool to confirm the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.
Xanthochromia analysis, which detects the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid, can help differentiate between traumatic and non-traumatic causes of blood in the fluid. To ensure the accuracy of the test, the lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, and the third sample should be sent for xanthochromia analysis.
In cases where an SAH is suspected, it is crucial not to discharge the patient without further investigation. Overnight observation may be an option, but it is not ideal as it delays diagnosis and treatment. Similarly, prescribing analgesia may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue.
The best course of action in suspected SAH is to perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further damage and improve outcomes for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with his wife, complaining of feeling excessively tired during the day. He has been prescribed donepezil for Alzheimer's disease (AD), and he has observed some improvement in his cognitive abilities with this medication. However, his wife reports that he struggles to sleep at night and is becoming increasingly lethargic during the day.
What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trazodone
Explanation:Medications for Alzheimer’s Disease: Choosing the Right Treatment
Alzheimer’s Disease (AD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. Patients with AD often experience sleeping difficulties due to changes in circadian rhythms and medication side-effects. Trazodone, an atypical antidepressant, is often used as adjunctive treatment in patients with AD to manage insomnia. Along with sleep hygiene measures, such as avoidance of naps, daytime activity, and frequent exercise, trazodone is likely to help this patient’s sleeping problems.
Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, is used to manage the psychotic manifestations of AD. However, the clinical scenario has not provided any evidence that the patient is suffering from psychosis. Rivastigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is unlikely to benefit the patient who is already taking a similar medication.
Memantine, an N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist, can be used as adjunctive treatment or monotherapy in patients who do not tolerate cholinesterase inhibitors. However, this patient is experiencing sleeping difficulty and is more likely to benefit from a medication that specifically targets this clinical problem.
Tacrine, a centrally acting anticholinesterase inhibitor medication, was previously used for the management of AD. However, due to its potent side-effect profile of fatal hepatotoxicity, it is now rarely used. Additionally, tacrine is unlikely to help this patient’s insomnia.
Choosing the right medication for AD requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and potential side-effects. Trazodone may be a suitable option for managing insomnia in patients with AD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by air ambulance after being involved in a road traffic accident. According to witnesses this was a high-impact car crash and the other passenger in the car has unfortunately already passed away. The man is unconscious when he arrives, and initial assessment reveals a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 9. He has some minor facial injuries and is bleeding from his nose.
What is the appropriate initial management for traumatic brain injury in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maintain pCO2 4.5 kPa
Explanation:Management of Traumatic Brain Injury: Key Considerations
Traumatic brain injury (TBI) is a serious condition that requires prompt and appropriate management to prevent secondary injury and improve outcomes. Here are some key considerations for managing TBI:
Maintain pCO2 4.5 kPa: Sedation and ventilation should be used to maintain a pCO2 of 4.5 kPa to protect the brain. Adequate oxygenation is also essential.
Permissive hypotension: Hypotension should be treated aggressively to prevent secondary ischaemic injury. Mean arterial pressure should be maintained >75 mmHg.
Intubation if GCS falls below 6: Patients with a GCS score below 8 should be intubated to maintain their airway. Spinal immobilisation is also essential.
Head-up tilt to 30 degrees: Head-up tilt to 30 degrees is an accepted measure to minimise rises in intracranial pressure in patients with TBI. Care should be taken if the patient has a cervical spine injury.
Fluid resuscitation with saline: Initial fluid resuscitation should be with a crystalloid, such as normal saline, and/or blood. Albumin should be avoided.
By following these key considerations, healthcare professionals can effectively manage TBI and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy spends the night out with his buddies, drinking 7 pints of beer and a few shots of whiskey. He dozes off in his friend's kitchen with his arm hanging over the back of a chair. The next morning, he experiences tenderness in his right armpit area and is unable to straighten his fingers. What other symptom is he likely to exhibit with this injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Numbness over the dorsal aspect of the right hand between the thumb and index finger
Explanation:Understanding Hand Numbness and Weakness: A Guide to Nerve Supply
Hand numbness and weakness can be caused by nerve injuries in various locations. The radial nerve, a branch of the brachial plexus, can be injured in the axillary region, humerus, or forearm, resulting in numbness over the dorsal aspect of the hand between the thumb and index finger. The ulnar nerve supplies the little finger and adductor pollicis, while the median nerve innervates the palm and radial lumbricals. Understanding the nerve supply can aid in diagnosing and treating hand numbness and weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused, disoriented, and having an unsteady gait. During the past four months she has been depressed and has declined food. She has lost approximately 12 kg in weight.
She appears thin and is disoriented in time and place. She reports having double vision. Neither eye abducts normally. Her gait is unsteady although the limbs are strong. The liver and spleen are not enlarged.
What would be the most appropriate initial step in her treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous thiamine
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological disorder caused by a deficiency of thiamine, a vital nutrient. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. The oculomotor findings associated with this condition include bilateral weakness of abduction, gaze evoked nystagmus, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and vertical nystagmus in the primary position.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is commonly linked to chronic alcohol abuse, but it can also occur in individuals with poor nutritional states, such as those with dialysis, advanced malignancy, AIDS, and malnutrition. Urgent treatment is necessary and involves administering 100 mg of fresh thiamine intravenously, followed by 50-100 mg daily. It is crucial to give IV/IM thiamine before treating with IV glucose solutions, as glucose infusions may trigger Wernicke’s disease or acute cardiovascular beriberi in previously unaffected patients or worsen an early form of the disease.
In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological disorder that requires prompt treatment. It is essential to recognize the symptoms and underlying causes of this condition to prevent further complications. Early intervention with thiamine supplementation can help improve outcomes and prevent the progression of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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What is the type of cell that utilizes its Ciliary to assist in the movement of cerebrospinal fluid throughout the central nervous system of vertebrates?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ependymal cells
Explanation:The Functions of Cerebrospinal Fluid and the Roles of Different Types of Nervous System Cells
The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear and colourless fluid that circulates in the subarachnoid space, ventricular system of the brain, and central canal of the spinal cord. It provides the brain and spinal cord with mechanical and immunological buoyancy, chemical/temperature protection, and intracranial pressure control. The circulation of CSF within the central nervous system is facilitated by the beating of the Ciliary of ependymal cells, which line the brain ventricles and walls of the central canal. Therefore, ependymal cells are responsible for this function.
Different types of nervous system cells have distinct roles in supporting the nervous system. Astrocytes provide biochemical support to blood-brain barrier endothelial cells, supply nutrients to nervous tissue, maintain extracellular ion balance, and aid in repairing traumatic injuries. Microglial cells are involved in immune defence of the central nervous system. Oligodendrocytes generate myelin sheaths on neurones of the central nervous system, while Schwann cells generate myelin sheaths on neurones of the peripheral nervous system.
In summary, the CSF plays crucial roles in protecting and supporting the central nervous system, and ependymal cells are responsible for its circulation. Different types of nervous system cells have distinct functions in supporting the nervous system, including biochemical support, immune defence, and myelin sheath generation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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The ward nurses express concern about a 46-year-old man who was admitted with jaundice yesterday. They discovered him in the linen cupboard, disoriented and searching for his luggage so he could check-out before midday. Upon your arrival, he is still confused and unsteady, with a tachycardia of 120 bpm and nystagmus. However, he poses no immediate danger to himself or others. Which medication would be suitable for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thiamine IV and chlordiazepoxide orally (PO)
Explanation:Treatment Plan for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcohol Withdrawal
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a disorder caused by thiamine deficiency commonly seen in alcohol withdrawal. The triad of ophthalmoplegia, confusion, and ataxia characterizes it. If left untreated, it can lead to Korsakoff syndrome with lasting memory impairment. The following treatment plan is recommended:
Treatment Plan for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcohol Withdrawal
1. Thiamine IV: Parenteral thiamine (Pabrinex®) is required and should be given in a setting where resuscitation facilities are available due to the risk of anaphylaxis. Thiamine is also given prophylactically in alcohol withdrawal.
2. Chlordiazepoxide PO: Given orally as required (PRN) to control the symptoms of delirium tremens. The dosage should be adjusted according to symptom severity.
3. Haloperidol IM: Antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol or IM benzodiazepines are not required in this instance where the patient is not at risk to himself or others.
4. N-acetylcysteine IV: N-Acetylcysteine is used commonly for the treatment of paracetamol overdose. There is no evidence that this patient has a liver impairment as a result of paracetamol overdose.
5. Propranolol PO: Propranolol is used for the treatment of portal hypertension and although likely, there is no evidence this patient has portal hypertension.
6. Thiamine IM and midazolam IM: Thiamine is not given IM. There is no indication for IM benzodiazepines as this patient is co-operating with treatment. A chlordiazepoxide withdrawal regime would be better suited to this patient’s needs. This can be given orally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man is discharged from hospital after an episode of meningitis. The organism was diagnosed as being Streptococcus pneumoniae after a lumbar puncture and the patient was treated with ceftriaxone. On discharge, his observations were normal. He has a past medical history of asthma treated with salbutamol and low-dose inhaled corticosteroids. He has no known drug allergies.
A few days following his discharge, he started experiencing postural headaches that were worse when sitting upright. He grades his pain as 7/10. He has been feeling nauseated, although has had no vomiting episodes. He also has some minor neck stiffness and is not confused. He attends A&E, as he is worried about his new symptoms. There is evidence of extrathecal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Diagnosis is confirmed on a computed tomography (CT) myelogram.
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s headache?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spontaneous intracranial hypotension
Explanation:Distinguishing Spontaneous Intracranial Hypotension from Other Conditions
Spontaneous intracranial hypotension (SIH) is a condition that affects around 5 per 100,000 of the general population, with a peak age at diagnosis of 40 years. It is more common in women and develops due to a weakness in the spinal dura, which could be congenital, iatrogenic, or due to calcification of spinal discs. Lumbar punctures, which are commonly performed to aid the diagnosis of meningitis, are a common cause of SIH.
Clinically, SIH causes a postural headache that worsens when standing or sitting and improves when lying down. It is associated with leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and can be diagnosed with a CT myelogram. Interestingly, CSF opening pressure is often normal, making diagnosis by repeat lumbar puncture unhelpful. Treatment typically involves an epidural blood patch.
It is important to distinguish SIH from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. A subdural hematoma, for example, would be diagnosed on a CT head by the presence of concave opacity and typically has a slow onset with fluctuating confusion. Aseptic meningitis, which presents with symptoms similar to meningitis, would be confirmed on microscopy of lumbar puncture. Insufficiently treated meningitis would not cause a postural headache, and a subarachnoid hemorrhage would cause a sudden-onset thunderclap headache.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of difficulty speaking, swallowing, and experiencing sudden emotional outbursts of laughter or tears. Upon examination, the doctor observes a spastic tongue, an exaggerated jaw jerk, normal gag reflex, and bilateral upper motor neuron signs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudobulbar palsy
Explanation:Understanding Pseudobulbar Palsy: Symptoms, Causes, and Differential Diagnosis
Pseudobulbar palsy is a neurological condition that results from lesions in the corticobulbar pathways connecting the cortex to the brainstem. This article aims to provide a comprehensive understanding of pseudobulbar palsy, including its symptoms, causes, and differential diagnosis.
Symptoms of Pseudobulbar Palsy
Patients with pseudobulbar palsy may experience emotional lability, difficulty swallowing, and spastic dysarthria, which can cause a husky or gravelly voice. On examination, patients may exhibit an exaggerated jaw jerk, weak muscles of mastication, a spastic immobile tongue, and bilateral upper motor neuron signs.Causes of Pseudobulbar Palsy
Pseudobulbar palsy can occur due to demyelination, such as in multiple sclerosis, motor neuron disease, and bilateral cerebrovascular disease. Other causes include traumatic brain injury, brain tumors, and infections.Differential Diagnosis
It is important to differentiate pseudobulbar palsy from other neurological conditions that may present with similar symptoms. For example, a frontal lobe tumor can cause emotional lability and personality changes, but it would not explain the bilateral upper motor neuron signs and voice changes seen in pseudobulbar palsy. Bulbar palsy, on the other hand, is caused by lower motor neuron disturbance and presents with nasal speech and tongue fasciculations, absent gag reflex, and lower motor neuron signs. Cerebellar infarcts and Huntington’s disease can also present with speech and motor impairments, but they have distinct clinical features that differentiate them from pseudobulbar palsy.Conclusion
Pseudobulbar palsy is a neurological condition that can cause emotional lability, difficulty swallowing, and spastic dysarthria. It is important to consider this diagnosis in patients presenting with these symptoms and to differentiate it from other neurological conditions that may have similar presentations. Early diagnosis and management can improve patient outcomes and quality of life. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old student is admitted to hospital with symptoms of fever, headache, photophobia and vomiting. The general practitioner administers 1.2 g of intramuscular benzylpenicillin before transferring the patient to the hospital. On examination, the patient's temperature is 38.0 °C, pulse 100 bpm and blood pressure 150/80 mmHg. No rash is visible, but there is mild neck stiffness. A CT scan of the brain is performed and shows no abnormalities. A lumbar puncture is also performed, and the results are as follows:
- Opening pressure: 20 cm H2O
- Appearance: Clear
- Red cell count: 25/mcl
- Lymphocytes: 125/mcl
- Polymorphs: 5/mcl
- Glucose: 4.5 mmol/l (blood glucose 5.5 mmol/l)
- Protein: 0.5 g/l
- Gram stain: No organisms seen
- Culture: No growth
What diagnosis is consistent with these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viral meningitis
Explanation:Viral meningitis is a serious condition that should be treated as such if a patient presents with a headache, sensitivity to light, and stiffness in the neck. It is important to correctly interpret the results of a lumbar puncture to ensure that the appropriate treatment is administered. The appearance, cell count, protein level, and glucose level of the cerebrospinal fluid can help distinguish between bacterial, viral, and tuberculous meningitis. Bacterial meningitis is characterized by cloudy or purulent fluid with high levels of polymorphs and low levels of lymphocytes, while tuberculous meningitis may have a clear or slightly turbid appearance with a spider web clot and high levels of lymphocytes. Viral meningitis typically has clear or slightly hazy fluid with high levels of lymphocytes and normal protein and glucose levels. A subarachnoid hemorrhage may present with similar symptoms but would not have signs of infection and would show a large number of red blood cells and a color change in the cerebrospinal fluid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair loss. He has a medical history of high blood pressure and asthma and takes salbutamol, amlodipine, and simvastatin. He appears to be in good health, and his neurological exam is unremarkable. The results of his auto-antibody screen are negative, but his creatine kinase (CK) level is 1,000 U/l, which is higher than the normal range of 22-198 U/l. What is the most likely cause of this man's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Statin therapy
Explanation:Understanding the Differential Diagnosis of Elevated CK Levels
Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels can indicate a variety of underlying conditions. When considering an elevated CK, it is important to take a detailed medication history as statin therapy, which is a common medication, can cause CK levels to rise in up to 5% of patients. Other common causes of mildly elevated CK include hypothyroidism, steroid use, and alcohol excess.
Polymyositis is a potential differential diagnosis for a patient with elevated CK and fatigue, but it typically presents with objective proximal muscle weakness. The CK levels are often considerably higher than in the scenario described. Dermatomyositis, which features dermatological features alongside myositis, may present with papules on the hands, periorbital edema, flagellate erythema, or nailfold hemorrhages, none of which are present in this history.
Extensive exercise can cause elevated CK levels, but it does not usually raise levels to the extent seen in this scenario. Rhabdomyolysis, which is a common cause of elevated CK, often occurs in elderly patients who have experienced a fall and long lie. However, there is no such history in this case, and CK levels in these patients are usually significantly higher.
In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of elevated CK levels requires a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, medication use, and presenting symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A patient aged 50 presents to the ENT clinic with facial pain. The patient reports experiencing frequent attacks of pain around the left eye and left cheek, with up to 15-20 attacks per day. The attacks are short, lasting 3-4 minutes but can last up to 15 minutes, and can be triggered by neck movements. The patient also experiences watering of the left eye during the attacks. There are no associated symptoms of vomiting, aversion to light or sound, or limb weakness. Both ear, nose, and throat and neurological examinations are normal, and the patient is normotensive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paroxysmal hemicrania
Explanation:Distinguishing Paroxysmal Hemicrania from Other Headache Syndromes
Paroxysmal hemicrania is a type of headache syndrome that is characterized by intense pain on one side of the face lasting for 2-25 minutes. Unlike other headache syndromes, the pain never occurs on the opposite side of the face. Autonomic symptoms such as rhinorrhea, ptosis, watering of the eye, and eyelid edema are often present. Neck movements or pressure on the neck can trigger the attacks, and the headache responds well to indomethacin. It is important to distinguish paroxysmal hemicrania from other headache syndromes such as migraine, trigeminal neuralgia, cluster headache, and frontal lobe glioblastoma. Migraine typically presents with intermittent attacks accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia, or nausea. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by shorter electric shock-like pains in response to specific stimuli. Cluster headache consists of fewer but longer attacks per day, occurring at a consistent time, and with minimal response to indomethacin. Frontal lobe glioblastoma is not consistent with the history of paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A man in his early 50s presents with a painless lump in the right posterior triangle of his neck. He undergoes an excision biopsy under general anaesthetic. After the procedure, he experiences difficulty shrugging his right shoulder.
Which nerve is most likely to have been affected during the surgery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accessory
Explanation:Nerves of the Neck: Functions and Effects of Damage
The neck is home to several important nerves that control various muscles and sensory functions. Understanding the functions of these nerves and the effects of damage can help diagnose and treat neurological conditions.
Accessory Nerve: This nerve supplies motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to shrug the shoulder due to loss of innervation to the trapezius.
Cervical Plexus: Arising deep to the sternocleidomastoid, the cervical plexus innervates the skin to the back of the head, neck, and collarbones, as well as some anterior neck muscles such as the omohyoid. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.
Hypoglossal Nerve: The hypoglossal nerve innervates all intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.
Vagus Nerve: The vagus nerve is the longest autonomic nerve in the body and interfaces with the parasympathetic control of the heart, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract.
Long Thoracic Nerve of Bell: This nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle. Damage to this nerve leads to winging of the scapula but no issues with shoulder movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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