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  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He has been researching possible complications of his condition online and is worried about potential cardiac issues.
      Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most probable in this patient?

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities Associated with Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is commonly associated with cardiac abnormalities, with aortic root dilatation being the most prevalent, found in approximately 80% of cases. This can lead to aortic regurgitation and even dissection. While there is some evidence of a slight increase in atrial septal defects in Marfan syndrome patients, it is not as common as aortic regurgitation or mitral valve prolapse. Dilated cardiomyopathy can also present in Marfan syndrome patients, although it is not as prevalent as aortic root dilatation or regurgitation. Pulmonary regurgitation is also increased in incidence in Marfan syndrome, but it is still less common than aortic regurgitation. Finally, while persistent ductus arteriosus is more commonly found in Marfan syndrome patients than in the general population, the association is relatively weak. Overall, Marfan syndrome patients should be monitored closely for these cardiac abnormalities to ensure proper management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. Upon assessment,...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. Upon assessment, his respiratory rate is 20/min, heart rate is 170/min, and BP is 78/40 mmHg. An ECG reveals a regular tachycardia with a wide complex. The patient is given a peripheral venous line, blood is drawn, and an ECG monitor is attached. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Adenosine

      Correct Answer: DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Given the patient’s syncope, low BP, and regular wide complex tachycardia, which is likely to be ventricular tachycardia, the appropriate next step is DC cardioversion since the systolic BP is below 90 mmHg. Adenosine is not relevant in this scenario as it is used for managing narrow complex regular tachycardia with no adverse features. Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication that could be used to treat ventricular tachycardia, but it is not appropriate in this case due to the patient’s syncope and low BP.

      Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.

      The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.

      For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack and received coronary stenting. He was prescribed multiple medications and his blood test results showed:
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 6.2 mmol/l
      Which of the following antihypertensive drugs could be causing this result?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is caused by ACE inhibitor.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a painful left...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a painful left leg that has been getting worse for several hours. She has no other symptoms and has a medical history of asthma, hypertension, and a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 8 weeks ago.

      During the examination, the left calf diameter is approximately 4 cm larger than the right calf, but there is no oedema.

      What would be the most suitable initial investigation?

      Your Answer: CT angiogram of the leg

      Correct Answer: Proximal leg vein ultrasound

      Explanation:

      If the Wells score for a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is 2 or higher, a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be arranged within 4 hours. In this case, the patient’s Wells score is 2 due to recent major surgery within 12 weeks and a calf swelling at least 3 cm larger than the asymptomatic side. It is important to note that a CT angiogram of the leg is not appropriate for diagnosing DVT, and ultrasound is the preferred imaging modality. A CT pulmonary angiogram would only be necessary if the patient had symptoms suggestive of pulmonary embolism. A chest X-ray is not relevant in this scenario. If ultrasound is not possible within 4 hours, a D-dimer test could be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation given, but the initial choice is to perform an ultrasound scan as soon as possible.

      NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      71.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 52-year-old man of African ethnicity visits the GP after receiving results from...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man of African ethnicity visits the GP after receiving results from ambulatory home blood pressure monitoring. The average reading was 152/96 mmHg, and he has no medical history. During today's visit, his heart rate is 78 bpm, blood pressure is 160/102 mmHg, and oxygen saturations are 97%. What should the GP do next?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      For a newly diagnosed patient of black African or African-Caribbean origin with hypertension, adding a calcium channel blocker (CCB) such as nifedipine is recommended as the first-line treatment. This is because ACE inhibitors and ARBs are less effective in patients of these ethnicities. Lifestyle advice alone is not sufficient if the patient’s average blood pressure reading on ambulatory monitoring is greater than 150/95 mmHg. Ramipril is not the first-line option for this patient population, and Losartan is a second-line option after CCBs.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 63-year-old woman complains of unmanageable twitching and cramping in her legs. She...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman complains of unmanageable twitching and cramping in her legs. She has a medical history of heart failure and reports that her symptoms began a few days after starting a new medication prescribed by her cardiologist. As a result, you order routine blood tests that reveal hypokalaemia. Which medication is the probable culprit for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Individuals with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 40% or lower should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, unless there are contraindications or intolerance. This is supported by numerous clinical trials that have shown their efficacy in reducing hospital admissions and mortality rates. The dosage should be started low and gradually increased until the target dose or the highest tolerated dose is achieved, with regular monitoring of renal function and serum electrolytes.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.

      As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.

      However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.

      In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 49-year-old man is being evaluated at the smoking cessation clinic. Is there...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man is being evaluated at the smoking cessation clinic. Is there any medical condition that would make it inappropriate to prescribe bupropion for him?

      Your Answer: Epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Reduced seizure threshold is a contraindication for the use of bupropion in patients with epilepsy.

      NICE guidance recommends offering nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion to patients for smoking cessation, with no preference for one medication over another. NRT should be offered in combination for those with high nicotine dependence or inadequate response to single forms. Varenicline should be started a week before the target stop date and monitored for adverse effects, including nausea and suicidal behavior. Bupropion should also be started before the target stop date and is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Pregnant women should be tested for smoking and referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services, with first-line interventions being cognitive behavior therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support. NRT may be used if other measures fail, but varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest pain....

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest pain. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals ST-elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient has a history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril, aspirin and simvastatin. What is the most effective course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Aspirin + clopidogrel + IV heparin + immediate percutaneous coronary intervention

      Explanation:

      Immediate percutaneous coronary intervention with aspirin, clopidogrel, and IV heparin is recommended.

      Myocardial infarction, specifically ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), can be managed using evidence-based approaches. Patients without contraindications should be given aspirin and a P2Y12-receptor antagonist, with ticagrelor being preferred over clopidogrel due to improved outcomes despite slightly higher bleeding rates. Unfractionated heparin is typically given to patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), but low-molecular weight heparin can also be used. Oxygen therapy should not be routinely administered, but supplemental oxygen can be given to patients with oxygen saturation levels below 94% or those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure.

      Primary PCI is the preferred treatment for STEMI, but it may not be available in all centers. Thrombolysis can be performed in patients without access to primary PCI, with tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) offering clear mortality benefits over streptokinase. Tenecteplase is easier to administer and has non-inferior efficacy to alteplase with a similar adverse effect profile. An ECG should be performed 90 minutes following thrombolysis to assess whether there has been a greater than 50% resolution in the ST elevation. If there has not been adequate resolution, rescue PCI is superior to repeat thrombolysis. For patients successfully treated with thrombolysis, PCI has been shown to be beneficial, but the optimal timing is still being investigated.

      For patients with diabetes mellitus, NICE recommends using a dose-adjusted insulin infusion with regular monitoring of blood glucose levels to keep glucose below 11.0 mmol/l. Intensive insulin therapy regimes are not recommended routinely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 73-year-old male patient with chronic heart failure presented to the cardiology clinic...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old male patient with chronic heart failure presented to the cardiology clinic for follow-up after experiencing pulmonary edema. He is currently taking bisoprolol, lisinopril, and spironolactone. During the consultation, you observed that he has an irregularly irregular pulse. The patient reports ongoing breathlessness on exertion since the decompensation episode. What medication would you recommend adding as the next step in managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      If the patient has chronic heart failure along with atrial fibrillation, digoxin is highly recommended. However, if the patient does not have atrial fibrillation, the next step in management would be a combination of hydralazine and a nitrate like isosorbide mononitrate. While furosemide can be used for immediate fluid offloading, it does not have a positive impact on long-term outcomes.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old woman with isolated systolic hypertension, who also has urinary tract infections,...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with isolated systolic hypertension, who also has urinary tract infections, osteoporosis and diabetes, attends outpatients with a blood pressure reading of 192/88 mmHg. Which of the following medications would you prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Correct Answer: Valsartan

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Medication for Hypertension: A Guide

      When it comes to treating hypertension, there are several medications to choose from. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) as first-line treatment for those under 55, while calcium channel blockers (CCBs) are preferred for patients over 55 and those of Afro-Caribbean origin. Beta blockers, once a common choice, are no longer recommended as first-line treatment.

      If initial treatment is not effective, a thiazide diuretic can be added to an ACE inhibitor or ARB and CCB. Alpha blockers, such as doxazosin, are no longer commonly used for hypertension and are contraindicated in patients with urinary incontinence. Valsartan, an ARB, is an alternative for patients who cannot tolerate an ACE inhibitor.

      For elderly patients with isolated systolic hypertension, a dihydropyridine CCB like amlodipine is the drug of choice, especially if thiazides are not an option. Beta blockers should be used with caution in patients with asthma and are not indicated in this case. By carefully considering the patient’s age, ethnicity, and medical history, healthcare providers can choose the most appropriate medication for treating hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A geriatric patient presents with chronic heart failure.
    Which of the following drugs should...

    Correct

    • A geriatric patient presents with chronic heart failure.
      Which of the following drugs should be used as a first-line treatment for heart failure?

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Heart Failure Medications: Uses and Recommendations

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management and treatment. There are several medications available for heart failure, each with its own specific uses and recommendations.

      Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by reducing levels of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor, resulting in reduced vasoconstriction and a reduction in left ventricular afterload. It is recommended as a first-line treatment for all patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction.

      Digoxin is recommended for worsening or severe heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction despite first- and second-line treatment for heart failure.

      Aspirin should be prescribed for patients with heart failure and atherosclerotic arterial disease, including coronary heart disease. It is not useful in monotherapy for the treatment of heart failure.

      Furosemide is a diuretic that is routinely used for the relief of congestive symptoms and fluid retention in patients with heart failure. It should be titrated according to need after the initiation of subsequent heart failure therapies.

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist that forms the second-line treatment in patients with heart failure. It is important to closely monitor potassium and creatinine levels and the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). Specialist advice should be sought if the patient develops hyperkalaemia or renal function deteriorates.

      In summary, the appropriate medication for heart failure depends on the individual patient’s condition and needs. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 58-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has experienced two episodes of fainting...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has experienced two episodes of fainting in the past month. The first occurred while he was climbing stairs, and the second occurred last week as he was exiting a swimming pool. There were no warning signs before either episode. Witnesses to the most recent episode reported that he was unconscious for approximately 15 seconds. He reports feeling disoriented for only a few seconds after regaining consciousness. On physical examination, his pulse is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/86 mmHg, his lungs are clear, and there is a systolic murmur that radiates to the carotid area. Which of the following tests should be ordered first?

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      The presence of a systolic murmur could indicate the possibility of aortic stenosis (AS). It is crucial to prioritize ruling out this condition as syncope, which is a late symptom, often occurs during physical activity in patients with AS.

      Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope, and a characteristic ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can also cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The most common causes of aortic stenosis are degenerative calcification in older patients and bicuspid aortic valve in younger patients.

      If a patient is asymptomatic, observation is usually recommended. However, if the patient is symptomatic or has a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, valve replacement is necessary. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

      In summary, aortic stenosis is a condition that can cause various symptoms and requires prompt management to prevent complications. The causes of aortic stenosis vary, and treatment options depend on the patient’s age, operative risk, and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man presents to his GP for a hypertension review. His home...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his GP for a hypertension review. His home readings indicate an average blood pressure of 162/96 mmHg. He reports feeling generally well, and physical examination is unremarkable. Previous investigations have not revealed an underlying cause for his hypertension. Recent blood tests show normal electrolyte levels and kidney function. He is currently on ramipril, amlodipine, and bendroflumethiazide. What would be the most appropriate medication to add for the management of this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker or beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      If a patient has poorly controlled hypertension and is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic, and their potassium level is above 4.5mmol/l, the best option is to add an alpha- or beta-blocker. According to NICE guidelines, this patient has resistant hypertension, which is stage 4 of the NICE flowchart for hypertension management. Spironolactone can also be introduced at this stage, but only if the patient’s serum potassium is less than 4.5mmol/l, as spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Indapamide is not suitable for someone who is already taking a thiazide diuretic like bendroflumethiazide. Furosemide is typically used for hypertension management in patients with heart failure or kidney disease, which is not present in this case. Hydralazine is primarily used for emergency hypertension management or hypertension during pregnancy, not for long-term management.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      57.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his General...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his General Practitioner with a heavy feeling in his chest for the past two hours. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is taken, which shows 1.4 mm ST-segment elevations in leads II III and aVF.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inferior MI

      Explanation:

      Based on the electrocardiogram (ECG) findings, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is an inferior myocardial infarction (MI), which occurs in the territory of the right coronary artery. This is indicated by ST-segment elevations in leads I, II, and aVF. Other ECG changes, such as complete heart block and bradycardia, may also be present due to the arterial supply the RCA gives to the atrioventricular and sinoatrial nodes. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may suggest acute coronary syndrome.

      Acute pericarditis is unlikely as it presents with sharp retrosternal chest pain and a pericardial friction rub on auscultation, with different ECG findings such as widespread concave ST-segment elevations and PR segment depression.

      An anterolateral MI would show ST-segment elevations in the anterolateral leads, while a posterior MI would show ST-segment depressions in the anterior leads with tall R waves.

      In a pulmonary embolism (PE), ECG changes may include a large S wave in lead I, a large Q wave in lead III, and an inverted T wave in lead III – S1Q3T3, but this is only seen in a minority of patients. Most patients with a PE would have a normal ECG or sinus tachycardia, with signs of right-heart strain sometimes present. The clinical presentation of a PE would also differ from that of an MI, with symptoms such as tachypnea, tachycardia, lung crackles, fever, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old man presents to the GP for a blood pressure review after...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the GP for a blood pressure review after a clinic reading of 154/100 mmHg. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and COPD, which are managed with inhalers. His home blood pressure readings over the past week have averaged at 140/96 mmHg. What is the initial intervention that should be considered?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics.

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that there was little difference in outcomes between patients who had tight blood pressure control (targets < 130/85 mmHg) and those with more relaxed control (< 140-160/90-100 mmHg), except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke in the former group. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. Further management then follows that of non-diabetic patients. It is important to note that autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. Therefore, the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, particularly when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset chest pain and...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset chest pain and nausea. He is not taking any regular medications. An ECG reveals ST depression and T wave inversion in leads V2-V4, and troponin levels are elevated. The patient receives a STAT 300mg aspirin, and there are no immediate plans for primary PCI. According to the GRACE score, the 6-month mortality risk is 8.0%. The patient is stable. What is the best course of treatment going forward?

      Your Answer: Fondaparinux, prasugrel or ticagrelor, and refer for coronary angiography within 72 hours

      Explanation:

      The current treatment plan of prescribing fondaparinux, clopidogrel, and scheduling a coronary angiography in 3 months is incorrect. Clopidogrel is typically prescribed for patients with a higher risk of bleeding or those taking an oral anticoagulant. Additionally, delaying definitive treatment for a high-risk patient by scheduling a coronary angiography in 3 months could lead to increased mortality. Instead, a more appropriate treatment plan would involve prescribing prasugrel, unfractionated heparin, and a glycoprotein IIB/IIIA inhibitor, and referring the patient for urgent PCI within 2 hours. However, it should be noted that this treatment plan is specific to patients with STEMI and access to PCI facilities.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 17 - A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset chest pain. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril. His vital signs are as follows: BP 153/90 mmHg in his right arm and 130/80 in his left arm, heart rate 89/minute, temperature 37.2ºC, respiration rate 17/minute, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Upon examination, the patient has absent pulses in his right leg and diminished pulses in his left leg.

      What is the recommended diagnostic test for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE)

      Correct Answer: CT angiography chest/abdomen/pelvis

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms of thoracic aortic dissection and is stable, CT angiography is the preferred diagnostic test. This imaging technique provides a clear view of the aorta and helps plan surgical intervention if necessary. In cases of proximal aortic dissection, inter-arm blood pressure measurements may reveal a difference of over 20 mmHg, with the right arm showing higher pressure due to its proximity to the heart. The absence or reduction of femoral pulses on one or both sides is also a common finding. While a chest x-ray may show signs associated with aortic dissection, it is not specific enough for diagnosis. Transesophageal echocardiography (TOE) is used to confirm the diagnosis if CT angiography is inconclusive or if the patient is unstable. Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) is less sensitive and specific than TOE for detecting aortic dissection.

      Understanding Aortic Dissection: Classification, Investigation, and Management

      Aortic dissection is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is classified according to the location of the tear in the aorta, with type A affecting the ascending aorta in two-thirds of cases, and type B affecting the descending aorta distal to the left subclavian origin in one-third of cases. The DeBakey classification further divides aortic dissection into type I, which originates in the ascending aorta and propagates to at least the aortic arch, and type II, which is confined to the ascending aorta. Type III originates in the descending aorta and rarely extends proximally but will extend distally.

      To diagnose aortic dissection, imaging studies such as chest x-ray and CT angiography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis are essential. Transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE) may be more suitable for unstable patients who cannot undergo CT scanning. Management of type A aortic dissection requires surgical intervention, but blood pressure should be controlled to a target systolic of 100-120 mmHg while awaiting surgery. Type B aortic dissection can be managed conservatively with bed rest and IV labetalol to reduce blood pressure and prevent progression.

      Complications of aortic dissection depend on the location of the tear. Backward tears can lead to aortic incompetence/regurgitation and myocardial infarction, while forward tears can cause unequal arm pulses and blood pressure, stroke, and renal failure. Endovascular repair of type B aortic dissection may have a role in the future. It is important to remember that patients may present acutely and be clinically unstable, so the choice of investigations and management should take this into account.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 18 - As a physician on the night shift cardiac arrest team, you receive an...

    Incorrect

    • As a physician on the night shift cardiac arrest team, you receive an emergency page requesting immediate assistance on the geriatric ward. Upon arrival, you discover the nursing staff performing chest compressions on an unresponsive patient with no carotid pulse. You instruct them to continue compressions while you apply defibrillator pads to the patient's chest. After a brief pause in compressions, the defibrillator monitor displays a monomorphic, broad complex tachycardia. What is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer: Immediately give 3 back-to-back defibrillator shocks followed by CPR

      Correct Answer: Immediately give 1 defibrillator shock followed by CPR

      Explanation:

      When pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) is identified, the immediate and correct treatment is a single defibrillator shock followed by 2 minutes of CPR. This is in contrast to using intravenous adenosine or amiodarone, which are not appropriate in this scenario. The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines now recommend a single shock for ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless VT. Administering 3 back-to-back shocks followed by 1 minute of CPR is part of the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm, but it is not the most appropriate next step in management for a delayed recognition of rhythm like in the above case. In contrast, continued CPR with 30 chest compressions to 2 breaths is appropriate in a basic life support scenario where a defibrillator is not yet available.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 19 - What is the primary mode of operation of simvastatin in elderly patients? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary mode of operation of simvastatin in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Decreases intrinsic cholesterol synthesis

      Explanation:

      The rate-limiting enzyme in hepatic cholesterol synthesis, HMG-CoA reductase, is inhibited by statins.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Room with a 3-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Room with a 3-day history of flu-like symptoms. She is now experiencing severe central chest pain that worsens with coughing and improves when she sits upright. Upon examination, she has a rapid heart rate and a temperature of 38.5 °C. A third heart sound is heard upon auscultation.
      What is the probable cause of this patient's chest pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis is an inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart, causing chest pain that is relieved by sitting forward and worsened by lying flat or coughing. Patients may display signs of infection, and a pericardial friction rub may be heard during examination. Blood tests, electrocardiography, chest X-ray, and echocardiography are used to diagnose pericarditis. Causes include viral, bacterial, and fungal infections, as well as other conditions. Treatment aims to address the underlying cause and may include analgesia and bed rest. Aortic dissection, myocardial ischemia, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and pneumonia are other possible causes of chest pain, but each has distinct symptoms and characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (11/19) 58%
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