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Question 1
Correct
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What is the brain region responsible for controlling body temperature?
Your Answer: Pre-optic hypothalamus
Explanation:The Hypothalamus and Temperature Regulation
The hypothalamus plays a crucial role in regulating body temperature. This area of the brain is responsible for maintaining a stable internal temperature, regardless of external conditions. It is important to note that this process is completely automatic and not related to the sensation of heat or cold.
However, certain drugs can interfere with the hypothalamus’s ability to regulate temperature. Neuroleptics, amphetamine-like compounds, and SSRIs are examples of drugs that can disrupt this process. It is important for individuals taking these medications to be aware of the potential side effects and to consult with their healthcare provider if they experience any changes in body temperature.
In summary, the hypothalamus is responsible for temperature regulation, and certain drugs can interfere with this process. the role of the hypothalamus in maintaining a stable internal temperature is important for maintaining overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
Correct
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A man who is 53 years old has been referred to the outpatient clinic as his renal function is declining. After diagnosis, it is found that he has AD polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). His mother passed away at the age of 50 due to a stroke, and his father is still alive. He is worried about the possibility of passing on the disorder to his son. What is the likelihood of his son inheriting ADPKD?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) is a genetic condition that usually manifests between the ages of 30-50. Patients with ADPKD experience a decline in renal function and hypertension. In addition to renal cysts, they may also develop hepatic and berry aneurysms, which may be relevant if there is a maternal history of the disease. ADPKD is an autosomal dominant condition, meaning that there is a 50% chance of passing it on to offspring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 3
Correct
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In which part of the gastrointestinal system is water mainly taken up?
Your Answer: Small intestine
Explanation:The Function of the Large Intestine
Although many people believe that the primary function of the large intestine is to absorb water, this is not entirely accurate. In fact, the majority of water and fluids that are ingested or secreted are actually reabsorbed in the small intestine, which is located before the large intestine in the digestive tract. While the large intestine does play a role in absorbing some water and electrolytes, its primary function is to store and eliminate waste products from the body. This is achieved through the formation of feces, which are then eliminated through the rectum and anus. Overall, while the large intestine is an important part of the digestive system, its function is more complex than simply absorbing water.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 4
Correct
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In the context of acid-base balance, what compensatory mechanisms would be observed in an individual who has a pH of 7.20 (normal range: 7.35-7.45) and is experiencing metabolic acidosis?
Your Answer: Increased respiratory rate
Explanation:Compensation Mechanisms in Metabolic Acidosis
In metabolic acidosis, the level of bicarbonate in the blood is low, which is not a compensation. To counteract this, the body increases the respiratory rate to lower the level of CO2 in the blood, resulting in a respiratory alkalosis. This compensatory mechanism is aimed at increasing the blood pH. However, there is a limit to how much the increased respiratory rate can compensate for the metabolic acidosis.
In summary, the body has several mechanisms to compensate for metabolic acidosis, including respiratory alkalosis. While an increased respiratory rate can help to increase the blood pH, it is not a complete solution and has its limits. these compensation mechanisms is important in diagnosing and treating metabolic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman reports experiencing numbness and tingling in her hands during the early morning hours. She has noticed difficulty holding small tools for her hobby of model making. During a clinic examination, Tinel's sign is positive and there is a loss of sensation over the palmar aspect of the lateral three and a half digits. What nerve injury is most likely present?
Your Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:The median nerve enters the hand through the carpal tunnel, which is deep to the flexor retinaculum. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by inflammation of synovial sheaths that reduce the size of the carpal tunnel, affecting the median nerve the most. Symptoms include weakness in the thumb and sensory changes in the forearm and axilla. Tinel’s and Phalen’s tests can recreate these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Correct
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A trial is proposed to see whether excess alcohol use is a risk factor for osteoporosis in older adults.
It is decided to perform a case-control study rather than a cohort study.
What is an advantage of a case-control study in this context?Your Answer: It is possible to study diseases that are rare
Explanation:Advantages of Case-Control Studies
A case-control study is a type of research that compares the characteristics of patients with a particular disease to a control group of patients who do not have the disease. This type of study has several advantages. Firstly, it is particularly useful for investigating rare diseases, as it allows researchers to identify potential risk factors that may be contributing to the development of the disease. Additionally, case-control studies can investigate a wide range of risk factors, which can help to identify potential causes of the disease.
Another advantage of case-control studies is that there is no loss to follow up, as all patients are already known to have the disease or not. This means that researchers can collect data more quickly and efficiently than in other types of studies. Finally, case-control studies are relatively cheap to perform, which makes them a cost-effective way to investigate potential risk factors for a disease.
The results of case-control studies are usually reported as an odds ratio, which compares the odds of exposure to a particular risk factor in the case group to the odds of exposure in the control group. This can help to identify which risk factors are most strongly associated with the disease, and can provide valuable information for developing prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Correct
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How can the contribution of the extra chromosome be described in a chromosome disorder where both the mother and father provide nearly equal amounts?
Your Answer: 47, XXY
Explanation:Maternal and Paternal Inheritance in Chromosomal Abnormalities
In certain chromosomal abnormalities, the source of the extra chromosome can be traced back to either the mother or the father. In Klinefelter’s syndrome, where there is an extra X chromosome, the maternal source accounts for about 60% of cases. This is a higher percentage compared to other possibilities. Trisomy 21, which is also known as Down syndrome, is maternally derived in 95% of cases. On the other hand, trisomy 13 and 18 are more commonly derived from the mother. In the case of 47,XYY, where there is an extra Y chromosome, the extra chromosome comes from the father. the source of the extra chromosome can provide insight into the genetic mechanisms behind these chromosomal abnormalities. By identifying the source, it may also be possible to predict the likelihood of recurrence in future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 8
Correct
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What are the differences in surface anatomy of abdominal organs from birth to 10 years of age?
Your Answer: The bladder descends and becomes impalpable
Explanation:Developmental Changes in Palpation of Abdominal Organs
In infants, the bladder is located higher in the pelvis, making it palpable even when empty. However, as the child grows, the pelvis descends, and the bladder becomes less palpable unless it is very full. The kidneys, on the other hand, are difficult to palpate in all individuals, regardless of age. Intra-abdominal masses in infants may grow to a large size before they are noticed.
The large bowel completes its rotation from right to left in utero, generating the ascending, transverse, and descending colon. This process is finished by the third trimester and does not continue after birth. The liver is normally palpable one finger’s breadth below the costal margin in infants, but this physiological hepatomegaly recedes during the first few years. The spleen may be slightly enlarged at birth, but it is not normally palpable below the costal margin at any time during childhood or adulthood.
In summary, the palpation of abdominal organs changes as a child grows and develops. While some organs may be palpable in infants, they become less so as the child ages. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these developmental changes to accurately assess and diagnose any potential issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A study evaluating the effectiveness of a novel treatment for metastatic breast cancer in comparison to standard therapy found a decrease in the primary outcome of death from metastatic disease from 60% at five years to 45% (p=0.032). What is the relative risk reduction linked with the new treatment?
Your Answer: 10%
Correct Answer: 20%
Explanation:Relative Risk Reduction
When analyzing data, two terms that are commonly used are absolute risk reduction and relative risk reduction. Absolute risk reduction refers to the actual difference in risk between two groups, while relative risk reduction is the percentage reduction in risk between the two groups.
For example, if a study found that the absolute risk reduction was 10% at five years, this means that there was a 10% difference in risk between the two groups being compared. However, if the relative risk reduction was calculated to be 20%, this means that the risk of the outcome was reduced by 20% in the group receiving the intervention compared to the group that did not receive it.
It is important to note that even if a study does not produce a significant difference, it is still possible to compute these risks. Relative risk reduction can be a more powerful reflection of the efficacy of an intervention in cases where absolute changes may be quite small. Therefore, both absolute and relative risk reduction can provide a more comprehensive of the impact of an intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 10
Correct
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In a study of 26,000 females, 1,300 subjects were found to have either overt or subclinical hypothyroidism. The prevalence of hypothyroidism in this population was 5%. What is the most appropriate term to describe the 1,300 cases of hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Prevalence
Explanation:Prevalence and Incidence in Medical Terminology
Prevalence and incidence are two important terms used in medical terminology to describe the occurrence of a disorder in a specific population. Prevalence refers to the rate of a disorder in a particular population at a given time, while incidence refers to the number of new cases of the disorder that develop over a specific period.
In simpler terms, prevalence tells us how many people in a population have a particular disorder at a given time, while incidence tells us how many new cases of the disorder are diagnosed during a specific time frame. For example, if the prevalence of diabetes in a population is 10%, it means that 10% of the population has diabetes at a given time. On the other hand, if the incidence of diabetes in the same population is 2%, it means that 2% of the population was diagnosed with diabetes during a specific time frame, such as a year.
the difference between prevalence and incidence is important for healthcare professionals as it helps them to identify the burden of a particular disorder in a population and plan appropriate interventions. By knowing the prevalence and incidence of a disorder, healthcare professionals can also monitor trends over time and evaluate the effectiveness of interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male is admitted with an intracranial bleed and is under the care of the neurosurgeons. After undergoing magnetic resonance angiography, he undergoes clipping of a cerebral arterial aneurysm and is stable the following morning. The surgical team records the following blood chemistry results on successive postoperative days:
Day 1:
- Plasma Sodium: 130 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L
- Urea: 4.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 95 µmol/L
Day 2:
- Plasma Sodium: 127 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
- Urea: 4.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 90 µmol/L
Day 3:
- Plasma Sodium: 124 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
- Urea: 4.4 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 76 µmol/L
Day 4:
- Plasma Sodium: 120 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L
- Urea: 5.0 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 70 µmol/L
Normal Ranges:
- Plasma sodium: 137-144 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L
- Urea: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 60-110 µmol/L
On day four, the patient is put on a fluid restriction of 1 litre per day. Investigations at that time show:
- Plasma osmolality: 262 mOsmol/L (278-305)
- Urine osmolality: 700 mOsmol/L (350-1000)
- Urine sodium: 70 mmol/L -
What is the most likely diagnosis to explain these findings?Your Answer: Fluid overload
Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)
Explanation:The causes of hyponatremia are varied and can include several underlying conditions. One common cause is the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), which is characterized by elevated urine sodium, low plasma osmolality, and an osmolality towards the upper limit of normal. Diabetes insipidus, on the other hand, leads to excessive fluid loss with hypernatremia.
Fluid overload is another possibility, but it is unlikely in patients who have commenced fluid restriction. Hypoadrenalism may also cause hyponatremia, but it is not likely in the context of this patient’s presentation. Other causes of SIADH include pneumonia, meningitis, and bronchial carcinoma.
Sick cell syndrome is also associated with hyponatremia and is due to the loss of cell membrane pump function in particularly ill subjects. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hyponatremia to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the way in which ciprofloxacin works?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interference with DNA replication
Explanation:Antibiotics and their Mechanisms of Action
Antibiotics are drugs that are used to treat bacterial infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms within the bacteria to either kill or inhibit their growth. One example is ciprofloxacin, which disrupts the function of DNA gyrase and interferes with DNA synthesis. However, there are many other antibiotics that act by different mechanisms.
Penicillins and cephalosporins, as well as vancomycin, work by inhibiting the cell wall of bacteria. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole, or co-trimoxazole, inhibit folic acid metabolism. Dapsone also works by inhibiting folic acid metabolism. Rifampicin inhibits transcription, while aminoglycosides and tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis at the 30S subunit. Chloramphenicol, macrolides, and clindamycin inhibit protein synthesis at the 50S subunit.
the mechanisms of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a specific bacterial infection. It also helps in preventing the development of antibiotic resistance, as different mechanisms of action can be used in combination to target bacteria in different ways.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the estimated occurrence rate of congenital talipes equinovarus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 1000 live births
Explanation:Talipes Equinovarus Deformity: A Common Congenital Orthopaedic Abnormality
Talipes equinovarus deformity is a relatively common congenital orthopaedic abnormality, occurring in about 1 in 1000 live births. This condition is also known as clubfoot, and it is characterized by a foot that is turned inward and downward. The deformity can affect one or both feet and can range from mild to severe.
Despite being a congenital condition, the exact cause of talipes equinovarus is not fully understood. However, it is believed to be a combination of genetic and environmental factors. The condition can be diagnosed during pregnancy through ultrasound, and treatment typically involves a combination of stretching, casting, and bracing. In severe cases, surgery may be necessary.
Overall, while talipes equinovarus deformity can be a challenging condition to manage, early diagnosis and treatment can lead to successful outcomes and improved quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which nerve provides the motor supply to the brachialis muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial and musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation:The Brachialis Muscle: Anatomy and Innervation
The brachialis muscle is responsible for flexing the forearm and is located in the anterior half of the humerus and intermuscular septa. It attaches to the coronoid process and tuberosity of the ulna at the elbow joint. The main nerve supply for the brachialis muscle is the musculocutaneous nerve, with C6 and radial nerve also playing a role. Additionally, the lateral part of the brachialis muscle is supplied by branches from the C7 root. Overall, the brachialis muscle is an important muscle for forearm flexion and is innervated by multiple nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 70-year-old man with a history of two previous TIAs and an inferior myocardial infarction. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 40 cigarettes per day. You suspect the presence of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) and are curious about the typical characteristics of a large AAA that has not yet ruptured.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Distal lower limb emboli and chronic ischaemia
Explanation:Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a dilation or widening of the arterial wall, usually resulting from a weakness. Most AAAs are infrarenal and fusiform, with saccular aneurysms involving a localized out-pocketing. They are often asymptomatic but can cause severe pain and have a high mortality rate if ruptured. Ischemia-related erectile dysfunction is not typically associated with expanding AAA, and progressive renal failure is more likely due to renovascular disease or hypertensive nephropathy. Back pain and weight loss are not features of AAA, and a stable AAA should not cause mesenteric ischemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is the function of delta cells in the pancreas?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Produce somatostatin
Explanation:Pancreatic Cell Functions
The pancreas is an important organ in the body that plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. It is made up of different types of cells that produce various hormones and enzymes. Alpha cells are responsible for producing glucagon, which helps increase blood sugar levels. On the other hand, beta cells produce insulin, which helps lower blood sugar levels. Lastly, PP cells produce pancreatic polypeptide, which helps regulate pancreatic secretion and digestion.
Aside from hormone production, the pancreas also produces enzymes that aid in digestion. Trypsinogen is one of these enzymes, which is produced in the ducts of the exocrine pancreas. It is then converted to trypsin by enzymes found in the gut mucosa. Trypsin plays a crucial role in breaking down proteins in the small intestine, allowing for better absorption of nutrients.
In summary, the pancreas is a complex organ that performs various functions to maintain the body’s overall health. Its different types of cells work together to regulate blood sugar levels and aid in digestion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the primary function of mitochondrial cytochromes in the process of electron transport?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electron acceptors and donors
Explanation:The Role of Cytochromes in ATP Production and Drug Metabolism
Cytochromes are metalloproteins that contain haem and play a crucial role in the electron transport chain, which is part of oxidative phosphorylation. They act within enzyme complexes to accept and donate electrons, establishing a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane. This gradient, known as the proton motive force (PMF), drives ATP synthesis catalysed by ATP synthase. Cytochromes are necessary for ATP production, but they do not directly catalyse the reaction.
The cytochrome P450 family, also known as the CYP family, is a group of enzymes involved in the metabolism of various drugs. Their name comes from their peak spectrophotometric absorption wavelength, which is 450 nm. However, the cytochromes of the electron transport chain do not perform this role.
Cytochromes contain iron as part of a haem ring, and their capacity to act as electron acceptors and donors comes from the oxidoreduction between Fe2+ and Fe3+. Although they do store iron, this is not a major role. Overall, cytochromes play a crucial role in ATP production and drug metabolism, making them important for various biological processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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In a case-control study on the association between coffee drinking and lung cancer, 100 patients with lung cancer and 100 healthy controls were recruited.
It was reported that the odds ratio of lung cancer in people who drank coffee daily as compared to those who did not drink coffee was 1.3 (p=0.01).
Based on these findings, what is a valid conclusion regarding the relationship between daily coffee consumption and lung cancer risk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: People who drink coffee daily were at 1.3 times increased odds of being in the lung cancer group
Explanation:The FEV1/FVC ratio is a key measurement in lung function tests. In normal subjects, this ratio ranges from 0.75 to 0.85. If the ratio is less than 0.70, it suggests an obstructive problem that reduces the FEV1, which is the volume of air that can be expelled in one second. However, if the ratio is normal, it indicates that the individual has a healthy respiratory system.
In cases of restrictive lung disease, the FVC is reduced, which can also affect the FEV1/FVC ratio. In such cases, the ratio may be normal or even high. Therefore, it is important to interpret the FEV1/FVC ratio in conjunction with other lung function test results to accurately diagnose and manage respiratory conditions. This ratio can help healthcare professionals identify potential lung problems and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is not a characteristic of Prader-Willi syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abnormality of maternally inherited chromosome 15q
Explanation:Prader-Willi Syndrome
Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic disorder that is associated with a deletion on the paternal 15q in 70% of cases. It is characterized by neonatal hypotonia and poor feeding, moderate mental handicap, small genitalia, hyperphagia, and obesity in later childhood.
Individuals with Prader-Willi Syndrome often have difficulty controlling their appetite, which can lead to obesity and related health problems. They may also have developmental delays and intellectual disabilities. The condition is caused by a missing piece of genetic material on chromosome 15 that is inherited from the father.
Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Prader-Willi Syndrome and improve quality of life for affected individuals and their families. Treatment may include growth hormone therapy, behavioral therapy, and nutritional counseling. It is important for individuals with Prader-Willi Syndrome to receive ongoing medical care and support throughout their lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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To what does the term axon varicosity refer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A series of swellings along the length of an axon from which certain types of neurones can release neurotransmitters
Explanation:Axon Varicosities: Small Swellings Along the Length of an Axon
Axon varicosity refers to a series of small swellings found along the length of an axon. These structures are commonly found in neurones of the autonomic nervous system and are responsible for releasing neurotransmitters from the presynaptic neurone directly onto the effector organs, such as smooth muscle. Axon varicosities are important because they allow for efficient and rapid communication between neurones and their target organs. By releasing neurotransmitters directly onto the effector organs, axon varicosities can quickly and effectively modulate the activity of these organs. Overall, axon varicosities play an important role in the functioning of the autonomic nervous system and are a key component of the neural communication system in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female presents with tiredness and vague aches for many years. The following results were obtained:
- Serum sodium: 135 mmol/L (133-144)
- Serum potassium: 3.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Serum urea: 5.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Serum creatinine: 100 μmol/L (50-100)
- Serum calcium: 2.78 mmol/L (2.20 - 2.60)
- Serum albumin: 38 g/L (35-50)
- Corrected calcium: 3.02 mmol/L (2.20-2.60)
- Serum phosphate: 0.87 mmol/L (0.80 - 1.45)
- Serum alk phosphatase: 117 IU/L (30-115)
- Serum asp transaminase: 20 I U/L (5-45)
- Serum bilirubin: 8 umol/L (1-17)
The patient appears generally well, with a blood pressure of 160/80 mmHg, a pulse of 80 beats per minute, normal heart, chest and abdominal examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia and Primary Hyperparathyroidism
Hypercalcaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. While there are several possible causes of hypercalcaemia, primary hyperparathyroidism is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with a long history of the condition, no weight loss, and no respiratory symptoms. Although other conditions can also cause hypercalcaemia, the absence of these symptoms makes them less likely. In cases of primary hyperparathyroidism, phosphate levels will typically be at the lower end of the normal range.
Primary hyperparathyroidism is relatively common in elderly populations, with up to 1% of individuals affected. Symptoms can include renal calculi, depression, bone pain, and abdominal pain from peptic ulceration. Hypertension is also a common feature. Additionally, the polyuria associated with hypercalcaemia may lead to mild hypokalaemia.
In summary, hypercalcaemia is a condition that can have several possible causes, but primary hyperparathyroidism is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with a long history of the condition, no weight loss, and no respiratory symptoms. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including renal calculi, depression, bone pain, and abdominal pain, as well as hypertension and mild hypokalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man has suffered a stab wound to his right forearm, resulting in an inability to extend his fingers. Fortunately, there is no sensory or vascular damage. Which nerve do you suspect has been affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve
Explanation:Forearm Nerve Innervation
The forearm is innervated by several nerves, each with its own specific functions. The posterior interosseous nerve supplies all the extensor muscles except for the brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus. It does not have any cutaneous branch. On the other hand, the anterior interosseous nerve innervates the pronator quadratus, the flexor pollicis longus, and the flexor digitorum profundus to the index finger. Meanwhile, the median nerve innervates the flexor and pronator muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm, except for the flexor carpi ulnaris and part of the flexor digitorum profundus. It also innervates the thenar muscles and lateral two lumbricals in the hand. The musculocutaneous nerve, on the other hand, innervates the three muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm: the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis. Lastly, the ulnar nerve innervates the flexor muscles of the forearm, including the flexor carpi ulnaris and flexor digitorum profundus, unlike the median nerve. It also innervates the intrinsic muscles of the hand. the specific functions of each nerve is crucial in diagnosing and treating any nerve-related conditions in the forearm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new autoantibody test in detecting suspected Hashimoto's disease in individuals over the age of 50 who reported fatigue. The test was administered to 1000 participants and compared to FNA biopsy results, which served as the gold standard for diagnosis. The table below displays the findings:
Antibody +ve Antibody -ve Total
Hashimoto's disease confirmed at FNA 35 15 50
No evidence of disease at FNA 30 920 950
What is the approximate sensitivity of the autoantibody test for detecting Hashimoto's disease in individuals over the age of 50 who experience fatigue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:Sensitivity in Medical Testing
When it comes to medical testing, sensitivity is a crucial factor to consider. It refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify individuals who have a particular condition. To calculate sensitivity, we need to look at the number of true positives and false negatives. For example, let’s say that 50 individuals were diagnosed with Hashimoto’s disease using a gold standard test of biopsy. Out of these 50, only 35 were identified by an antibody test.
To calculate sensitivity, we can use the formula: true positive / (true positive + false negative). In this case, the sensitivity would be 35/(35+15) = 70%. This means that the antibody test correctly identified 70% of the individuals who had Hashimoto’s disease.
Another way to understand sensitivity is to look at the proportion of true positives that the test correctly identifies. In this example, out of the 50 patients who had Hashimoto’s disease, 35 were correctly identified by the antibody test. However, 15 were falsely identified as negative, even though they actually had the condition.
In summary, sensitivity is an important measure of a medical test’s accuracy. It tells us how well the test can identify individuals who have a particular condition. By sensitivity, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about which tests to use and how to interpret their results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of fatigue, lethargy, and abdominal discomfort with constipation. Despite denying depression, her academic performance has declined. On examination, she appears pale and thin with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg. Her laboratory results show low potassium levels, high bicarbonate levels, and a slightly elevated ESR. A chest X-ray is normal. Based on these findings, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Anorexia Nervosa and Electrolyte Imbalances
Anorexia nervosa is a possible diagnosis for a patient with low sodium and potassium levels, especially if vomiting is present. Interestingly, despite the severe weight loss associated with anorexia nervosa, albumin levels tend to remain normal. However, if albumin levels are reduced, other causes such as sepsis should be considered. Addison’s disease and Conn’s syndrome are also conditions that can cause electrolyte imbalances, but their clinical presentations differ from that of anorexia nervosa. Cushing’s disease, on the other hand, is not a likely diagnosis in this case. It is important to consider the underlying cause of electrolyte imbalances in order to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A trial is to be set up to examine a new drug for the maintenance of remission in all people over the age of 50 with ulcerative colitis.
A randomised double blinded placebo controlled trial recruits patients in hospital with an exacerbation of their ulcerative colitis. A standard questionnaire is used to record the frequency of exacerbations of disease over a two year period.
Results show that there is no difference between the drug and placebo and the results are published in a medical journal.
To which form of bias is this study most susceptible?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Selection bias
Explanation:Types of Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias in clinical trials refers to a systematic difference between the results obtained from a randomized controlled trial and the true state of affairs. There are different types of bias that can occur in clinical trials. Selection bias occurs when the study population is different from the population to whom the results will be applied. Allocation bias occurs when patients are not randomly assigned to a particular treatment. Assessment bias occurs when the observer knows which treatment the subject is taking. Observer bias is when one observer consistently under or over reports a particular variable. Recall bias applies to case-control studies when a patient is more likely to remember a particular detail of exposure if they go on to develop the disease.
One example of selection bias is the early results of trials of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) demonstrating potentially positive results on reduction in cardiovascular risk. It has been argued that women of higher social classes who exercised more were likely to choose HRT, which could have influenced the results. It is important to identify and minimize bias in clinical trials to ensure that the results obtained are reliable and can be applied to the population of interest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A clinical trial was conducted to compare operative treatment with bracing therapy for scoliosis. Thirty patients who met the criteria for surgery were assigned to group A, while 60 patients who refused surgery or had contraindications were treated with bracing alone in group B. The patients in group A were older and had a poorer performance status compared to group B. Three patients in each group were lost to follow-up for unknown reasons. What is the most probable bias in this study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Selection bias
Explanation:Types of Bias in Medical Studies
Medical studies can be affected by various types of bias that can impact the accuracy of the results. One type of bias is selection bias, which occurs when the allocation of patients into different treatment groups is not randomised. This can lead to a systematic difference in the outcomes between the groups, as low-risk patients may be more likely to receive a certain treatment. Another type of bias is response bias, which can occur in questionnaire studies when there is a systematic difference between those who participate and those who do not.
Performance bias is another type of bias that can occur when there is a systematic difference in the treatments received by the two groups other than the study treatments. Attrition bias can also occur when a significant proportion of subjects are lost to follow up, with proportions or reasons different between the treatment groups. However, in the described study, the proportion of attrition is low, so this type of bias is not very likely. Confounding factors may also bias the results, but this can be reduced during the data analysis stage using multivariate or stratified analyses. Overall, it is important to consider and address these types of bias in medical studies to ensure accurate and reliable results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A cohort study of 5,000 elderly patients aimed to determine whether the consumption of green tea has an effect on cognitive decline. Roughly half of the patients drank green tea regularly and half did not.
What is a drawback of conducting a cohort study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: When the outcome of interest is rare a very large sample size is needed
Explanation:Cohort Studies: Advantages and Disadvantages
A cohort study is a research method that involves following a group of individuals over a period of time to determine whether exposure to a particular factor has an effect on the incidence of disease. Although they are time-consuming and expensive, cohort studies have several advantages. For instance, they can be used to study rare exposure factors and are less prone to recall bias than case-control studies. Additionally, they can measure the incidence or risk of a disease, which is useful in determining the effectiveness of interventions.
One of the main advantages of cohort studies is that they allow researchers to study exposure factors that are rare. This is because they involve following a group of individuals over a period of time, which means that even if the exposure factor is rare, it may still be possible to observe its effects. Another advantage is that cohort studies are less susceptible to recall bias than case-control studies. This is because the exposure factor is measured before the disease occurs, which reduces the likelihood of participants misremembering their exposure.
However, cohort studies also have some disadvantages. One of the main disadvantages is that they are time-consuming and expensive to perform. This is because they involve following a group of individuals over a period of time, which requires a significant amount of resources. Additionally, cohort studies may not be suitable for studying diseases that have a long latency period, as it may take many years for the disease to develop. Finally, cohort studies may be affected by loss to follow-up, which can reduce the validity of the results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the most common characteristic of a patient with a deficiency in vitamin C?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perifollicular haemorrhages and hyperkeratosis
Explanation:Vitamin C Deficiency and its Symptoms
Vitamin C is primarily found in fruits and vegetables. When there is a deficiency of ascorbic acid, it can lead to a condition called scurvy. The symptoms of scurvy include inflamed and bleeding gums, impaired wound healing, and petechiae. Cutaneous findings such as follicular hyperkeratosis, perifollicular haemorrhages, ecchymoses, xerosis, leg oedema, poor wound healing, and bent or coiled body hairs are also common.
It is important to note that cheilosis and red tongue are more indicative of vitamin B12 or iron deficiency, while diarrhoea and delusions suggest vitamin B deficiency (pellagra). Ocular muscle palsy and dementia are more likely to be caused by thiamine deficiency or Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Vitamin C deficiency is not uncommon among the elderly population, and it is crucial to be aware of the signs and symptoms to make a proper diagnosis. The diagnosis can be confirmed by measuring vitamin C concentrations in the white cell. By the symptoms and causes of vitamin C deficiency, individuals can take steps to prevent and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a myocardial infarction. Upon assessment, the nursing staff observes her blood pressure to be 90/50 mmHg and her pulse to be only 32. The ECG confirms that she is experiencing complete heart block. As you attempt to determine the location of the MI, you consider the typical position of the sinoatrial node, which serves as the cardiac pacemaker.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In the right atrium near the entrance of the superior vena cava
Explanation:The Conducting System of the Heart
The conducting system of the heart is responsible for initiating and coordinating the contractions of the heart muscle. It begins at the sinoatrial (SA) node, which is located in the right atrium and acts as the cardiac pacemaker. The SA node produces the first contraction signal, which rapidly propagates through the walls of both atria. This signal is then picked up by the atrioventricular (AV) node, located in the interatrial septum near the opening of the coronary sinus. The AV bundle runs along the septum, allowing conduction to pass through the insulating fibrous skeleton of the heart. The AV bundle divides into right and left bundles, which then divide into subendocardial branches (Purkinje fibres) that extend into the walls of the respective ventricles, allowing for contraction of the ventricles.
The SA node and AV node are supplied by the right coronary artery in most people, but can also be supplied by the circumflex branch of the left coronary artery. Damage to these nodes can be temporary and recoverable, but anterior wall myocardial infarctions (MIs) can cause permanent damage to the conducting system, requiring a permanent pacemaker. In cases where the normal conduction system fails, an escape rhythm may originate in the ventricles, producing a wide complex escape rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the inheritance pattern of Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia
Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of telangiectasia, recurrent epistaxis, and a positive family history for the disorder. The major cause of morbidity and mortality associated with this disorder is the presence of arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) in multiple organs, which can lead to haemorrhage.
AVMs are abnormal connections between arteries and veins that bypass the capillary system. In individuals with hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, these AVMs can occur in various organs, including the lungs, liver, brain, and gastrointestinal tract. The presence of AVMs in these organs can lead to complications such as stroke, brain abscess, liver failure, and gastrointestinal bleeding.
Due to the potential severity of the complications associated with hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, early diagnosis and management are crucial. Treatment options include embolization, surgery, and medication to control bleeding. Regular monitoring and screening for AVMs in affected individuals and their family members can also help to prevent or minimize complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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