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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old man who is a known case of von Willebrand disease has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man who is a known case of von Willebrand disease has started bleeding following the excision of a sebaceous cyst.Administration of which of the following agents is most likely to be beneficial?

      Your Answer: Factor X concentrate

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin

      Explanation:

      Desmopressin is useful in managing mild to moderate episodes of bleeding in von Willebrand disease (vWD).

      vWD is the most common hereditary coagulopathy resulting from the deficiency or abnormal function of von Willebrand factor (vWF). vWF promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and other platelets and is also involved in the transport and stabilization of factor VIII.

      There are seven subtypes of vWD. Type 1 vWD (autosomal dominant) is the most common and accounts for 80% of the cases. Type 2 vWD (autosomal dominant or recessive) accounts for 15% of the cases. There is a significant spectrum of severity ranging from spontaneous bleeding and epistaxis through to troublesome excessive bleeding following minor procedures.

      Bleeding time is mostly used as a diagnostic test for vWD. Treatment options include administration of tranexamic acid for minor cases undergoing minor procedures. More significant bleeding or procedures respond well to desmopressin (DDAVP). It is most effective in type 1 vWD, less effective in type 2 and contraindicated in type 2B. Individuals who cannot have desmopressin or in whom it is contraindicated usually receive factor VIII concentrates containing vWF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 42 year old lawyer is rushed to the emergency room after she...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old lawyer is rushed to the emergency room after she was found lying unconscious on her left arm with an empty bottle of Diazepam beside her. Her left arm has red and purple marks and is swollen. Her hand is stiff and insensate. Which of the following substances would be expected to be present in her urine in increased quantities?

      Your Answer: Myoglobin

      Explanation:

      Answer: Myoglobin

      When muscle is damaged, a protein called myoglobin is released into the bloodstream. It is then filtered out of the body by the kidneys. Myoglobin breaks down into substances that can damage kidney cells.
      Compartment syndrome is a painful condition that occurs when pressure within the muscles builds to dangerous levels. This pressure can decrease blood flow, which prevents nourishment and oxygen from reaching nerve and muscle cells.

      Compartment syndrome can be either acute or chronic.

      Acute compartment syndrome is a medical emergency. It is usually caused by a severe injury. Without treatment, it can lead to permanent muscle damage.

      Chronic compartment syndrome, also known as exertional compartment syndrome, is usually not a medical emergency. It is most often caused by athletic exertion. Compartments are groupings of muscles, nerves, and blood vessels in your arms and legs. Covering these tissues is a tough membrane called a fascia. The role of the fascia is to keep the tissues in place, and, therefore, the fascia does not stretch or expand easily.
      Compartment syndrome develops when swelling or bleeding occurs within a compartment. Because the fascia does not stretch, this can cause increased pressure on the capillaries, nerves, and muscles in the compartment. Blood flow to muscle and nerve cells is disrupted. Without a steady supply of oxygen and nutrients, nerve and muscle cells can be damaged.

      In acute compartment syndrome, unless the pressure is relieved quickly, permanent disability and tissue death may result. This does not usually happen in chronic (exertional) compartment syndrome.

      Compartment syndrome most often occurs in the anterior (front) compartment of the lower leg (calf). It can also occur in other compartments in the leg, as well as in the arms, hands, feet, and buttocks.

      Acute compartment syndrome usually develops after a severe injury, such as a car accident or a broken bone. Rarely, it develops after a relatively minor injury.

      Conditions that may bring on acute compartment syndrome include:

      A fracture.
      A badly bruised muscle. This type of injury can occur when a motorcycle falls on the leg of the rider, or a football player is hit in the leg with another player’s helmet.
      Re-established blood flow after blocked circulation. This may occur after a surgeon repairs a damaged blood vessel that has been blocked for several hours. A blood vessel can also be blocked during sleep. Lying for too long in a position that blocks a blood vessel, then moving or waking up can cause this condition. Most healthy people will naturally move when blood flow to a limb is blocked during sleep. The development of compartment syndrome in this manner usually occurs in people who are neurologically compromised. This can happen after severe intoxication with alcohol or other drugs.
      Crush injuries.
      Anabolic steroid use. Taking steroids is a possible factor in compartment syndrome.
      Constricting bandages. Casts and tight bandages may lead to compartment syndrome. If symptoms of compartment syndrome develop, remove or loosen any constricting bandages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      59.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of these conditions is mithramycin used for? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these conditions is mithramycin used for?

      Your Answer: Defect in vitamin D metabolism/activation

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia of malignancy

      Explanation:

      Mithramycin or Plicamycin is a tricyclic pentaglycosidic antibiotic derived from Streptomyces strains. It inhibits RNA and protein synthesis by adhering to DNA. It is used as a fluorescent dye and as an antineoplastic agent. It is also used to reduce hypercalcaemia, especially caused by malignancy. Plicamycin is currently used in multiple areas of research, including cancer cell apoptosis and as a metastasis inhibitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Due to a plantarflexion–inversion ankle sprain, which is the first ligament to rupture?...

    Incorrect

    • Due to a plantarflexion–inversion ankle sprain, which is the first ligament to rupture?

      Your Answer: Calcaneofibular ligament

      Correct Answer: Anterior talofibular ligament

      Explanation:

      The anterior talofibular ligament passes from the anterior margin of the fibular malleolus. It is the most commonly injured ligament, as part of the lateral ligament of the ankle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      88.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Thalamic syndrome will most likely result in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Thalamic syndrome will most likely result in:

      Your Answer: Hypotonia

      Correct Answer: Hyperaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Signs and symptoms of thalamic syndrome include contralateral hemi anaesthesia, burning or aching sensation in one half of a body (hyperaesthesia), often accompanied by mood swings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which part of the nephron would have to be damaged to stop the...

    Correct

    • Which part of the nephron would have to be damaged to stop the reabsorption of the majority of salt and water?

      Your Answer: Proximal tubule

      Explanation:

      The proximal tubule is the portion of the duct system of the nephron of the kidney which leads from Bowman’s capsule to the loop of Henle. It is conventionally divided into the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) and the proximal straight tubule (PST). The proximal tubule reabsorbs the majority (about two-thirds) of filtered salt and water. This is done in an essentially iso-osmotic manner. Both the luminal salt concentration and the luminal osmolality remain constant (and equal to plasma values) along the entire length of the proximal tubule. Water and salt are reabsorbed proportionally because the water is dependent on and coupled with the active reabsorption of Na+. The water permeability of the proximal tubule is high and therefore a significant transepithelial osmotic gradient is not possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old female presents with a history of increasingly severe ano-rectal pain for...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female presents with a history of increasingly severe ano-rectal pain for the past 24 hours. On examination, she has a low-grade fever, and the skin surrounding the anus appears normal. She has not, however, tolerated an attempted digital rectal examination (DRE). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fissure-in-ano

      Correct Answer: Intersphincteric abscess

      Explanation:

      Presence of fever and severe pain point towards the diagnosis of an abscess rather than a fissure. Although fissures may be painful, they do not, in themselves, cause fever. Moreover, a case of fissure-in-ano typically presents with bright red PR bleed.

      The management option for intersphincteric abscess includes examination of the ano-rectum under general anaesthesia and drainage of the sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man is diagnosed with emphysema and cirrhosis of the liver. Which...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is diagnosed with emphysema and cirrhosis of the liver. Which of the following condition may be the cause of both cirrhosis and emphysema in this patient?

      Your Answer: Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency is a condition characterised by the lack of a protein that protects the lungs and liver from damage, called alpha1-antytripsin. The main complications of this condition are liver diseases such as cirrhosis and chronic hepatitis, due to accumulation of abnormal alpha 1-antytripsin and emphysema due to loss of the proteolytic protection of the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      69.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 4 week old baby is taken to the clinic with bile stained...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 week old baby is taken to the clinic with bile stained vomiting. He had a congenital diaphragmatic hernia and an exomphalos. What is the most likely underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Duodenal atresia

      Correct Answer: Intestinal malrotation

      Explanation:

      Answer: Intestinal malrotation

      During normal abdominal development, the 3 divisions of the GI tract (i.e., foregut, midgut, hindgut) herniate out from the abdominal cavity, where they then undergo a 270º counter clockwise rotation around the superior mesenteric vessels. Following this rotation, the bowels return to the abdominal cavity, with fixation of the duodenojejunal loop to the left of the midline and the cecum in the right lower quadrant.

      Intestinal malrotation refers to any variation in this rotation and fixation of the GI tract during development. Interruption of typical intestinal rotation and fixation during foetal development can occur at a wide range of locations; this leads to various acute and chronic presentations of disease. The most common type found in paediatric patients is incomplete rotation predisposing to midgut volvulus, requiring emergent operative intervention.

      Acute midgut volvulus

      Usually occurs during the first year of life

      Sudden onset of bilious emesis

      Diffuse abdominal pain out of proportion to physical examination

      Acute duodenal obstruction

      This anomaly is usually recognized in infants and is due to compression or kinking of the duodenum by peritoneal bands (Ladd bands).

      Patients present with forceful vomiting, which may or may not be bile-stained, depending on the location of the obstruction with respect to the entrance of the common bile duct (ampulla of Vater).

      Malrotation may occur as an isolated anomaly or in association with other congenital anomalies; 30-62% of children with malrotation have an associated congenital anomaly. All children with diaphragmatic hernia, gastroschisis, and omphalocele have intestinal malrotation by definition. Additionally, malrotation is seen in approximately 17% of patients with duodenal atresia and 33% of patients with jejunoileal atresia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following clinical signs will be demonstrated in a case of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clinical signs will be demonstrated in a case of Brown-Séquard syndrome due to hemisection of the spinal cord at mid-thoracic level?

      Your Answer: Ipsilateral spastic paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception (position sense) and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation beginning one or two segments below the lesion

      Explanation:

      Brown–Séquard syndrome results due to lateral hemisection of the spinal cord and results in a loss of motricity (paralysis and ataxia) and sensation. The hemisection of the cord results in a lesion of each of the three main neural systems: the principal upper motor neurone pathway of the corticospinal tract, one or both dorsal columns and the spinothalamic tract. As a result of the injury to these three main brain pathways the patient will present with three lesions. The corticospinal lesion produces spastic paralysis on the same side of the body (the loss of moderation by the upper motor neurons). The lesion to fasciculus gracilis or fasciculus cuneatus results in ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception (position sense). The loss of the spinothalamic tract leads to pain and temperature sensation being lost from the contralateral side beginning one or two segments below the lesion. At the lesion site, all sensory modalities are lost on the same side, and an ipsilateral flaccid paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      63.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen...

    Incorrect

    • When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen in the listener?

      Your Answer: A greater number of hair cells become activated

      Correct Answer: The location of maximal basilar membrane displacement moves toward the base of the cochlea

      Explanation:

      An increase in the frequency of sound waves results in a change in the position of maximal displacement of the basilar membrane in the cochlea. Low pitch sound produces maximal displacement towards the cochlear apex and greatest activation of hair cells there. With an increasing pitch, the site of greatest displacement moves towards the cochlear base. However, increased amplitude of displacement, increase in the number of activated hair cells, increased frequency of discharge of units in the auditory nerve and increase in the range of frequencies to which such units respond, are all seen in increases in the intensity or a sound stimulus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      120.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 43-year-old male with no significant medical history is currently being kept nil-by-mouth...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old male with no significant medical history is currently being kept nil-by-mouth for an elective bilateral inguinal hernia repair. Which of the following describes the best fluid regimen for this patient over the following 24 hours?

      Your Answer: 1 L normal saline with 20 mmol potassium and 2 L 5% dextrose with 20 mmol potassium in each bag

      Explanation:

      If patients need IV fluids for routine maintenance alone, restrict the initial prescription to:
      25–30 ml/kg/day of water and
      approximately 1 mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium and chloride and
      approximately 50–100 g/day of glucose to limit starvation ketosis.
      Weight-based potassium prescriptions should be rounded to the nearest common fluids available (for example, a 67 kg person should have fluids containing 20 mmol and 40 mmol of potassium in 24 hours). Potassium should not be added to intravenous fluid bags as this is dangerous.

      Sodium chloride 0.9%, with or without additional potassium, is one of the most commonly used IV fluids in UK practice.

      Glucose 5% solution provides a useful means of giving free water for, once the glucose is metabolised, the fluid is distributed throughout total body water. It is, therefore, a potentially useful means of correcting or preventing simple dehydration and the glucose content will also help to prevent starvation ketosis, although it is important to recognize that it will not make much of a contribution to covering patients overall nutritional needs. The use of 5% glucose, will increase risks of significant hyponatraemia, particularly in children, the elderly, patients on diuretics and those with excess ADH due to osmotic and non-osmotic stimuli (a problem is seen quite frequently in hospitalized patients). Nevertheless, hyponatremia is likely to be avoided by not exceeding recommended volumes of maintenance IV fluids and by careful monitoring of patients’ clinical volume status and electrolyte measurements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      2205.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 63-year old lady presents with pain in multiple bones and renal failure....

    Correct

    • A 63-year old lady presents with pain in multiple bones and renal failure. On enquiry, there is history of recurrent pneumonia in the past. What will be the likely finding on her bone marrow biopsy?

      Your Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell malignancy that produce excessive monoclonal immunoglobulins. The disease presents with bone pains, renal dysfunction, increased calcium, anaemia and recurrent infections. Diagnosis is by demonstrating the presence of M-protein in urine or serum, lytic bone lesions, light chain proteinuria or excessive plasma cells on marrow biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      93
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - C5a (a complement component) is a potent? ...

    Incorrect

    • C5a (a complement component) is a potent?

      Your Answer: Opsonin

      Correct Answer: Anaphylotoxin

      Explanation:

      C5a is a strong chemoattractant as well as an anaphylotoxin and is involved in the recruitment of inflammatory cells such as neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, and T lymphocytes. It is also involved in activation of phagocytic cells, release of granule-based enzymes and generation of oxidants. All of which contribute to innate immune functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The majority of gallstones are mainly composed of: ...

    Correct

    • The majority of gallstones are mainly composed of:

      Your Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Bile salts are formed out of cholesterol in the liver cells. Occasionally, precipitation of cholesterol occurs resulting into cholesterol stones developing in the gall bladder.
      These cholesterol gallstones are the most common type and account for 80% of all gallstones. Another type, accounting for 20% gallstones is pigment stones which are composed of bilirubin and calcium salts. Occasionally, stones of mixed origin are also seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood supply to the seminal vesicles?

      Your Answer: Renal

      Correct Answer: Middle rectal

      Explanation:

      Ligation of middle rectal artery is most likely to affect the blood supply of seminal vesicles since arteries supplying the seminal vesicles are derived from the middle and inferior vesical and middle rectal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 39-year-old homosexual is admitted with diarrhoea of three-month duration. He is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old homosexual is admitted with diarrhoea of three-month duration. He is found to be HIV positive with a CD4 cell count <50/μL. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficle

      Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium

      Explanation:

      Based on the history and findings, the most likely causative organism is cryptosporidium. It can cause severe, chronic, and possibly fatal diarrhoea in immunocompromised patients.

      In patients with HIV/AIDS, clinical manifestations of cryptosporidiosis vary with the degree of immune compromise. Those with CD4 cell counts above 180–200/μL may be asymptomatic or develop self-limiting diarrhoeal illness. However, patients with advanced AIDS (CD4 cell counts <50/μL) can have severe diarrhoea that can persist for several months, resulting in severe dehydration, weight loss and malnutrition, extended hospitalizations, and mortality. In addition, patients with advanced AIDS are at greater risk of developing extraintestinal infection, particularly of the biliary, pancreatic, and respiratory tracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      678.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Where is the mental foramen located? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the mental foramen located?

      Your Answer: In the mandible

      Explanation:

      The mental foramen is found bilaterally on the anterior surface of the mandible adjacent to the second premolar tooth. The mental nerve and terminal branches of the inferior alveolar nerve and mental artery leave the mandibular canal through it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      100.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is likely to result in hematocolpos in a 12-year...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is likely to result in hematocolpos in a 12-year old girl?

      Your Answer: Imperforate hymen

      Explanation:

      Hematocolpos means accumulation of blood in vagina and hematometra is accumulation of blood in the uterus. These are most likely seen with an imperforate hymen; which is seen I 1 in 2000 females. If spontaneous resolution does not occur, treatment involves making a hole in the hymen to allow discharge of menstrual blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 20-year old college student was diagnosed with meningitis that had developed due...

    Correct

    • A 20-year old college student was diagnosed with meningitis that had developed due to an acute cavernous sinus thrombosis from an ear infection. Which of the following superficial venous routes is the usual path that an infected blood clot takes to reach the cavernous sinus?

      Your Answer: Facial vein

      Explanation:

      The facial vein is the usual communication between the cavernous sinus and the pterygoid sinus. It is through this vein that an infected clot can travel to the cavernous sinus and cause infection. The pterygoid plexus is a venous plexus that is situated between the temporalis muscle and lateral pterygoid muscle, and partly between the two pterygoid muscles. The pterygoid plexus is connected to the facial vein by the deep facial vein. This connection is what makes this area where this sinus and the facial vein are located a danger zone. The danger zone or triangle of the face is the area from the corners of the mouth to the nose bridge. The sinus connection in this area makes it possible for infection to reach the cavernous sinus and at times cause meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      107.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is involved in vitamin B12 absorption? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is involved in vitamin B12 absorption?

      Your Answer: Intrinsic factor

      Explanation:

      Absorption of vitamin B12 is by an active transport process and occurs in the ileum. Most cobalamins are bound to proteins and are released in the stomach due to low pH and pepsin. The cobalamins then bind to R proteins, i.e. haptocorrin (HC) secreted from salivary glands and gastric juice. Another cobalamin binding protein is Intrinsic factor (IF) secreted from the gastric parietal cells. The cobalamin-HC complex is digested by pancreatic proteases in the intestinal lumen, and the free cobalamin then binds to IF. The complex then reaches a transmembrane receptor in the ileum and undergoes endocytosis. Cobalamin is then released intracellularly and binds to transcobalamin II (TC II). The newly formed complex then exits the ileal cell and enters the blood circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      439.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Linezolid is an antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by bacteria that are resistant to other antibiotics. Which of the...

    Correct

    • Linezolid is an antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by bacteria that are resistant to other antibiotics. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be effectively treated by linezolid?

      Your Answer: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Linezolid is a synthetic antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by multiresistant bacteria, including streptococci and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Linezolid is effective against Gram-positive pathogens, notably Enterococcus faecium, S. aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus pyogenes. It has almost no effect on Gram-negative bacteria and is only bacteriostatic against most enterococci.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?

      Your Answer: Dermis of the skin

      Correct Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity

      Explanation:

      Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Painful erections along with deviation of the penis to one side when erect...

    Incorrect

    • Painful erections along with deviation of the penis to one side when erect are seen in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peyronie’s disease

      Explanation:

      Peyronie’s disease leads to development of fibrous plaques in the penile soft tissue and occurs in 1% of men, most commonly affecting white males above 40 years age. It is a connective tissue disorder named after a French surgeon, François de la Peyronie who first described it. Symptoms include pain, hard lesions on the penis, abnormal curvature of erect penis, narrowing/shortening, painful sexual intercourse and in later stages, erectile dysfunction. 30% cases report fibrosis in other elastic tissues such as Dupuytren’s contractures of the hand. There is likely a genetic predisposition as increased incidence is noted among the male relatives of an affected individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left leg. He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract is a sensory pathway originating in the spinal cord that transmits information to the thalamus. There are two main parts of the spinothalamic tract: the lateral spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature and the anterior spinothalamic tract transmits touch (crude touch). The decussation of this pathway occurs at the level of the spinal cord. Hence, a unilateral lesion of the lateral spinothalamic tract causes contralateral loss of pain and temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves...

    Incorrect

    • In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves coincide with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Second heart sound

      Explanation:

      The beginning of ventricular systole corresponds to the beginning of the QRS complex in the ECG. The beginning of the ventricular systole also corresponds to the closure of the atrioventricular valves, causing the first heart sound (S1). S2, the second heart sound is due to closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves at the end of ventricular systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 40 year old man sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old man sustained a fracture to the surgical neck of his left humerus. Which of the following arteries is suspected to be injured in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior humeral circumflex

      Explanation:

      The posterior humeral circumflex artery arises from the axillary artery and runs with the axillary nerve through the quadrangular space which is bounded laterally by the surgical neck of the humerus. After winding around the surgical neck of the humerus, it is distributed to the deltoid muscle and the shoulder joint. Thus fractures in the surgical neck of the humerus could result in an injury to this artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it...

    Incorrect

    • What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it emerges from the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extension of the thigh would be the action most affected

      Explanation:

      As the inferior gluteal nerve emerges from the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis muscle, it divides into branches and enters the gluteus maximus muscle which extends the femur and bends the thigh in line with the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the nerve supply to the muscles of the lateral compartment of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the nerve supply to the muscles of the lateral compartment of the leg ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The peroneus longus and peroneus brevis in the lateral compartment of the leg take nerve supply from the superficial peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 50 year old lawyer is admitted to the medical ward for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old lawyer is admitted to the medical ward for an endarterectomy. His CT report confirms a left temporal lobe infarct. Which visual defect is most likely to be encountered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right superior quadranopia

      Explanation:

      Quadrantanopia refers to an anopia affecting a quarter of the field of vision. While quadrantanopia can be caused by lesions in the temporal and parietal lobes, it is most commonly associated with lesions in the occipital lobe.
      A lesion affecting one side of the temporal lobe may cause damage to the inferior optic radiations (known as the temporal pathway or Meyer’s loop) which can lead to superior quadrantanopia on the contralateral side of both eyes (colloquially referred to as pie in the sky).

      Therefore, a left temporal lobe infarct will affect the right superior quadrantanopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Post-operative Management And Critical Care (0/1) 0%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (2/4) 50%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (1/1) 100%
Basic Sciences (10/17) 59%
Pathology (4/5) 80%
Anatomy (2/5) 40%
Physiology (4/7) 57%
Colorectal Surgery (0/1) 0%
Generic Surgical Topics (0/2) 0%
Paediatric Surgery (0/1) 0%
Peri-operative Care (1/1) 100%
Clinical Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed