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Question 1
Incorrect
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A young man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, tiredness, and pallor. Upon conducting a full blood count, it is revealed that he has acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Among the following options, which is linked to the poorest prognosis in ALL?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Philadelphia chromosome present
Explanation:Prognostic Factors in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several factors that can affect the prognosis of a patient with ALL. Good prognostic factors include having the FAB L1 type, common ALL, a pre-B phenotype, and a low initial white blood cell count. On the other hand, poor prognostic factors include having the FAB L3 type, B or T cell type, the Philadelphia translocation (t(9;22)), increasing age at diagnosis, male sex, CNS involvement, and a high initial white blood cell count (e.g. > 100).
It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these prognostic factors when diagnosing and treating patients with ALL. By identifying these factors, they can better predict the outcome of the disease and tailor treatment plans accordingly. Patients with good prognostic factors may have a better chance of survival and may require less aggressive treatment, while those with poor prognostic factors may need more intensive therapy. Overall, the prognostic factors in ALL can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with a complaint of missed periods for the past four months despite negative pregnancy tests. She is also distressed about the loss of her libido and has noticed milk leakage with minimal nipple stimulation during intercourse. On physical examination, her blood pressure is 122/70 mmHg, pulse is 70 and regular, and general physical examination is unremarkable. Which blood test is most likely to show elevated levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:Symptoms and Diagnosis of Hyperprolactinaemia
Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin in the body. This condition is typically associated with symptoms such as milk production, decreased libido, and absence of menstruation. However, visual disturbances are not always present, as many cases of hyperprolactinaemia are related to a microprolactinoma.
When diagnosing hyperprolactinaemia, it is important to assess thyroid status as this condition is often associated with hypothyroidism. Thyroxine levels are usually low in individuals with hyperprolactinaemia. Additionally, beta-HCG levels are elevated in pregnancy, so it is important to rule out pregnancy as a potential cause of elevated prolactin levels.
In summary, hyperprolactinaemia is a condition that can present with a variety of symptoms, but is typically characterized by elevated prolactin levels. Diagnosis involves assessing thyroid status and ruling out pregnancy as a potential cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What are the products of VLDL digestion by lipoprotein lipase in peripheral tissues?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low density lipoprotein (LDL) and free fatty acids
Explanation:Different types of lipoproteins carry lipids and cholesterol throughout the body. Chylomicrons transport dietary lipids, VLDLs transport liver-synthesized lipids, LDLs carry cholesterol, and HDLs transport cholesterol back to the liver for breakdown. Fatty acids are broken down by pancreatic lipase and absorbed as free fatty acids and monoglycerides, which are then reformed into triglycerides and packaged into chylomicrons. The liver processes chylomicron remnants and liposomes into various lipoprotein forms, including VLDL and LDL. Apolipoproteins are proteins that bind to lipids to form lipoproteins. HDL particles remove cholesterol from circulation and transport it back to the liver. Oxidized LDL is harmful to the body and promotes atherosclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with melaena and an INR of 8. He is currently taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, as well as antihypertensive medication and cholesterol-lowering agents. He recently received antibiotics from his GP for a cough. Which medication is the likely culprit for his elevated INR?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Medications that Interfere with Warfarin and Increase INR
Certain medications can affect the duration of warfarin’s effects in the body by interfering with the cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver. This can cause the INR to increase or decrease rapidly, making patients who are on a stable warfarin regimen vulnerable. To remember the drugs that inhibit cytochrome P450 and increase the effects of warfarin, the mnemonic O-DEVICES can be helpful.
Omeprazole, disulfiram, erythromycin, valproate, isoniazide, cimetidine and ciprofloxacin, ethanol (acutely), and sulphonamides are the drugs that can interfere with warfarin’s effects. These drugs can increase the INR, which can lead to bleeding complications. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients who are taking warfarin and any of these medications closely to ensure that their INR remains within the therapeutic range. Patients should also inform their healthcare providers of any new medications they are taking to avoid potential interactions with warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman who is in hospital for pneumonia begins to deteriorate on her third day of intravenous antibiotics. She develops purple bruises on her skin and on the inside of her mouth, and tells you that she feels short of breath and fatigued. Her platelet count has dropped from 165 × 109/l to 43 × 109/l over the last two days. She also complains of blurred vision in the last few hours.
Which of the following will form part of her initial management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plasma exchange
Explanation:Treatment Options for Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment. The most common initial management for TTP is plasma exchange, which aims to remove the antibodies that block the ADAMTS13 enzyme and replace the ADAMTS13 enzymes in the blood. Intravenous methylprednisone and rituximab may also be used in conjunction with plasma exchange.
Aspirin should only be considered when the platelet count is above 50 × 109/l, and even then, it is not an essential part of initial management and will depend on the patient’s comorbidities. Cryoprecipitate is not recommended for TTP treatment, as it is indicated for disseminated intravascular coagulation or fibrinogen deficiency.
Factor VIII infusion is used for haemophilia A, a C-linked-recessive disorder that presents with excessive bleeding and anaemia, and is less likely to be associated with thrombocytopenia and TTP. Platelet transfusions are relatively contraindicated in TTP and should only be considered in cases of catastrophic bleeding or urgent surgery that cannot wait until after plasma exchange. Platelet transfusions increase the risk of arterial thrombosis, which can lead to myocardial infarction and stroke.
In summary, plasma exchange is the most common initial management for TTP, and other treatment options should be carefully considered based on the patient’s individual circumstances. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting to affect her work as a receptionist. She has been referred to the gynaecology clinic for evaluation of menorrhagia. What results would you anticipate on her complete blood count (CBC)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin - low, MCV - reduced
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Results for Anaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Haemoglobin and MCV
When interpreting blood results for anaemia, it is important to understand the relationship between haemoglobin and mean corpuscular volume (MCV). A low haemoglobin and reduced MCV may indicate iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia, which is a common cause of microcytosis. Treatment for this would involve managing the underlying menorrhagia and supplementing with iron. On the other hand, a low haemoglobin and raised MCV may indicate macrocytic anaemia, commonly associated with vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. It is important to note that a normal haemoglobin with a reduced MCV or a normal haemoglobin and MCV is unlikely in cases of significant symptoms and abnormal bleeding. Understanding these relationships can aid in the diagnosis and management of anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman is being evaluated in the pre-operative clinic for an elective cholecystectomy. She has no other medical conditions except for two episodes of cholecystitis within the past year. Additionally, she has never undergone a blood transfusion before. What information should be included in the request to the blood bank?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group and save only
Explanation:Blood Testing for Elective Surgeries
When it comes to elective surgeries, a group and save blood testing procedure is typically sufficient. This is a common practice in modern blood banks and involves determining the patient’s blood group and confirming it, as well as conducting an antibody screen. If the antibody screen test comes back positive, additional tests such as a cross match or direct Coombs’ test (also known as the direct antiglobulin test or DAT) may be necessary. However, these tests are not typically performed unless the patient has a recent history of blood transfusions or known red cell antibodies. Overall, the group and save method is a standard and effective way to ensure that patients have the appropriate blood type available in case of a transfusion during elective surgeries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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As a part of a haematology rotation, a final-year medical student is asked to give a PowerPoint presentation to the team about a 20-year-old patient who presented with sickle-cell crisis.
With regard to sickle-cell disease, which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aplastic crisis can be precipitated by parvovirus B19
Explanation:Understanding Aplastic Crisis and Sickle-Cell Disease
Aplastic crisis is a condition of transient bone marrow failure that can be precipitated by parvovirus B19, Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), or Streptococcus. In sickle-cell disease, aplastic crisis is usually caused by parvovirus B19 and is characterized by reticulocytopenia, symptomatic anemia, and the presence of parvovirus immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies. It is managed by monitoring and symptomatic relief with blood transfusion until normal erythrocyte function returns. Aplastic crisis is most common in individuals of Mediterranean descent.
Sickle-cell disease is most common in individuals of Black Afro-Caribbean descent and, to a lesser extent, in individuals of Mediterranean or Middle Eastern descent. It occurs as a result of the production of an abnormal beta (β) chain in haemoglobin, caused by a mutation that changes adenine to thymine in the sixth codon of the β chain gene. This results in the formation of HbS, which circulates in the blood and forms polymers in the deoxygenated state, causing sickling of red blood cells. The resulting blood film shows elongated, thin, sickled red blood cells, target cells, and Howell–Jolly bodies.
Splenomegaly is most usually seen in childhood, as most children with sickle-cell disease have a splenic infarction event in late childhood and develop hyposplenism. Spherocytes, on the other hand, are abnormal red blood cells with a spherical shape, seen on the blood film of spherocytosis, a form of haemolytic anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man was admitted with pain in the left groin. He had fallen from his chair, after which the pain started. He was unable to walk and his left leg was externally rotated. X-rays revealed a neck of femur fracture. He lives alone in a flat and is a vegetarian. His past medical history includes shortness of breath, body itching and occasional swelling of legs. His blood tests revealed:
Investigation Result Normal range
Haemoglobin 120 g/l 135–175 g/l
Calcium 3.5 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Phosphate 1.52 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 184 mm/h 0–15 mm/h
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Diagnosis of Multiple Myeloma in a Patient with Pathological Fracture
A man has sustained a pathological fracture after a minor trauma, which is likely due to lytic bone lesions. He also presents with anemia, raised calcium, and ESR, all of which are consistent with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. This is further supported by his age group for presentation.
Other possible diagnoses, such as osteoporosis, vitamin D deficiency, acute leukemia, and malignancy with metastasis, are less likely based on the absence of specific symptoms and laboratory findings. For example, in osteoporosis, vitamin D and phosphate levels are normal, and ESR and hemoglobin levels are not affected. In vitamin D deficiency, calcium and phosphate levels are usually normal or low-normal, and ESR is not raised. Acute leukemia typically presents with systemic symptoms and normal serum calcium levels. Malignancy with metastasis is possible but less likely without preceding symptoms suggestive of an underlying solid tumor malignancy.
In summary, the patient’s clinical presentation and laboratory findings suggest a diagnosis of multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic with a four-month history of abdominal swelling and discomfort along with breathlessness. Upon examination, he appears unwell and pale. The liver is palpable 12 cm below the right costal margin, and the spleen is palpable 15 cm below the left costal margin. No lymphadenopathy is detected. The following investigations were conducted:
Hb 59 g/L (130-180)
RBC 2.1 ×1012/L -
PCV 0.17 l/l -
MCH 30 pg (28-32)
MCV 82 fL (80-96)
Reticulocytes 1.4% (0.5-2.4)
Total WBC 23 ×109/L (4-11)
Normoblasts 8% -
Platelets 280 ×109/L (150-400)
Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7)
Lymphocytes 5.2 ×109/L (1.5-4)
Monocytes 1.3 ×109/L (0-0.8)
Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
Basophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.1)
Metamyelocytes 5.1 ×109/L -
Myelocytes 1.6 ×109/L -
Blast cells 0.4 ×109/L -
The blood film shows anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, and occasional erythrocyte tear drop cells. What is the correct term for this blood picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leukoerythroblastic anaemia
Explanation:Leukoerythroblastic Reactions and Myelofibrosis
Leukoerythroblastic reactions refer to a condition where the peripheral blood contains immature white cells and nucleated red cells, regardless of the total white cell count. This means that even if the overall white cell count is normal, the presence of immature white cells and nucleated red cells can indicate a leukoerythroblastic reaction. Additionally, circulating blasts may also be seen in this condition.
On the other hand, myelofibrosis is characterized by the presence of tear drop cells. These cells are not typically seen in other conditions and are therefore considered a hallmark of myelofibrosis. Tear drop cells are red blood cells that have been distorted due to the presence of fibrous tissue in the bone marrow. This condition can lead to anemia, fatigue, and other symptoms.
Overall, both leukoerythroblastic reactions and myelofibrosis are conditions that can be identified through specific characteristics in the peripheral blood. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these findings in order to properly diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue that has lasted for 2 months. She has been consuming approximately 20 units of alcohol per week for the past decade. Her blood test reveals the following results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 126 fl 82–100 fl
What is the most probable cause of her anaemia based on these blood results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Causes of Macrocytic and Microcytic Anaemia
Anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or haemoglobin in the blood. Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia where the red blood cells are larger than normal, while microcytic anaemia is a type where the red blood cells are smaller than normal. Here are some of the causes of macrocytic and microcytic anaemia:
Alcohol Excess: Alcohol toxicity can directly affect the bone marrow, leading to macrocytic anaemia. Additionally, alcoholism can cause poor nutrition and vitamin B12 deficiency, which can also lead to macrocytosis.
Congenital Sideroblastic Anaemia: This is a rare genetic disorder that produces ringed sideroblasts instead of normal erythrocytes, leading to microcytic anaemia.
Iron Deficiency: Iron deficiency is a common cause of anaemia, especially in women. However, it causes microcytic anaemia, not macrocytic anaemia.
Blood Loss from Menses: Chronic blood loss due to menorrhagia can result in microcytic iron deficiency anaemia. However, this is a physiological process and would not cause macrocytic anaemia.
Thalassemia: Thalassaemia is a genetic disorder that leads to abnormal or low haemoglobin, resulting in microcytic anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency assessment unit with concerns of fluid leakage from her vagina. Upon examination, her pad is saturated with what appears to be amniotic fluid. What component of the fluid may indicate premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha fetoprotein
Explanation:Using Biomarkers to Detect Premature Rupture of Membranes
Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) can be difficult to diagnose in some cases. In 2006, a study was conducted to determine if measuring certain biomarkers in vaginal fluid could be used as an indicator of membrane rupture. The study found that alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) had the highest accuracy in predicting PROM, with a specificity and sensitivity of 94%. This suggests that AFP could be used as a marker in cases where diagnosis is uncertain.
In addition to AFP, other biomarkers have been identified for different purposes. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker for colon cancer, while cancer antigen 125 (CA125) is a tumor marker for ovarian cancer. By measuring these biomarkers, doctors can detect the presence of cancer and monitor its progression. Overall, biomarkers have proven to be a valuable tool in diagnosing and monitoring various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old white woman without past medical history presents with pallor, shortness of breath, palpitations and difficulty balancing.
On examination, her vitals are heart rate 110 bpm at rest and 140 bpm on ambulation, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, temperature 37 ° C and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. She is pale. Her lungs are clear to auscultation; her heart rate is regular without murmurs, rubs or gallops; her abdomen is soft and non-tender; she is moving all extremities equally, and a stool guaiac test is heme-negative. Her gait is wide and she has difficulty balancing. She has decreased sensation to fine touch in her feet. Her mini-mental status exam is normal.
Blood work shows:
Haematocrit: 0.19 (0.35–0.55)
Mean cell volume: 110 fl (76–98 fl)
White blood cell count: 5 × 109/l (4–11 × 109/l)
Which one of the following findings would most likely lead to the correct diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
Explanation:Causes and Symptoms of Vitamin B12 Deficiency
Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to macrocytic anaemia and neurological symptoms. The most common cause of this deficiency is the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of dietary vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Without it, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed, leading to deficiency and anaemia. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include fatigue, lethargy, dyspnoea on exertion, and neurological symptoms such as peripheral loss of vibration and proprioception, weakness, and paraesthesiae. If left untreated, it can lead to hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and demyelination of the spinal cord, causing ataxia.
Diagnosis can be made with a vitamin B12 level test, which reveals anaemia, often pancytopenia, and a raised MCV. A blood film reveals hypersegmented neutrophils, megaloblasts, and oval macrocytes. Treatment involves replacement of vitamin B12.
Other possible causes of vitamin B12 deficiency include intestinal tapeworm, which is rare, and gastrointestinal malignancy, which causes iron deficiency anaemia with a low MCV. Destruction of the anterior and lateral horns of the spinal cord describes anterolateral sclerosis (ALS), which is characterised by progressive muscle weakness and would not cause anaemia or loss of sensation. Enlargement of the ventricles on head CT indicates hydrocephalus, which could explain the wide-based gait but not the anaemia and other symptoms. A haemoglobin A1c of 12.2% is associated with diabetes, which could explain decreased peripheral sensation to fine touch but would not be associated with megaloblastic anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A patient on the ward receiving a blood transfusion after knee replacement surgery is noted to have rigors.
On examination, their temperature is 39°C (baseline 36.5°C). They also complain of abdominal pain and their blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg (baseline 126/84 mmHg).
What is the next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the transfusion immediately and commence IV fluids
Explanation:Management of Acute Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction
When a patient experiences a temperature rise of more than 2°C, abdominal pain, and hypotension after a blood transfusion, an acute haemolytic transfusion reaction should be suspected. In such cases, the transfusion must be stopped immediately, and the set should be taken down. Saline infusion should be initiated to maintain the patient’s blood pressure.
The blood bank should be notified of the suspected reaction, and a sample may need to be collected for further investigation. However, the priority is to manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent further complications. If the reaction is severe, the transfusion should not be continued.
In summary, prompt recognition and management of acute haemolytic transfusion reactions are crucial to prevent serious complications. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in monitoring patients who receive blood transfusions and act quickly if any adverse reactions occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with a painful and swollen right leg that has been bothering her for the past three days. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis in the same leg ten years ago after returning from her honeymoon in Australia. Additionally, she was treated for pleurisy three years ago by her general practitioner. She has been experiencing recurrent water infections for the past two years, with intermittent bouts of flank pain and dark urine in the morning. Her general practitioner has recently investigated this issue, but the ultrasound scan of her renal tract and intravenous pyelogram were normal. She works as a cashier in a building society and lives with her husband and two children. She does not have a recent history of travel, but she smokes 10 cigarettes daily and occasionally drinks alcohol. On examination, her right calf is swollen, red, and tender, but she appears otherwise well. Her blood tests show low hemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets, as well as elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
Explanation:Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria: A Clonal Defect of Red Cells
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) is a condition where red blood cells have an increased susceptibility to lysis by complement due to an acquired clonal defect. This disorder typically presents in young adults and is often associated with other stem cell disorders, such as aplastic anaemia. The classic symptom of PNH is the intermittent passage of bloody urine, which tends to occur more frequently at night for unknown reasons. Diagnosis is often made through investigation of anaemia, pancytopenia, or recurrent thrombotic episodes, which are likely caused by complement-induced platelet aggregation. Flow cytometry can confirm the diagnosis by demonstrating a lack of erythrocyte membrane proteins CD59 and decay accelerating factor (DAF).
Overall, PNH is a rare but serious condition that can lead to significant complications if left untreated. Early diagnosis and management are crucial for improving outcomes and preventing further damage to the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with progressive weakness in his right upper limb and both lower limbs over the past four months. He has also developed digital infarcts affecting the second and third fingers on the right hand and the fifth finger on the left. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses are palpable, and there is an asymmetrical neuropathy. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 120 g/L (130-170), a white cell count of 12.5 ×109/L (4-10), a platelet count of 430 ×109/L (150-450), and an ESR of 50 mm/hr (0-15). Urine examination shows proteinuria and 10-15 red blood cells per high power field without casts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa
Explanation:Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a systemic disease that affects small or medium-sized arteries in various organs, leading to a wide range of symptoms such as nerve damage, skin issues, joint and muscle pain, kidney problems, and heart issues. Laboratory findings include anemia, increased white blood cells and platelets, and elevated inflammatory markers. ANCA testing can help differentiate PAN from other vasculitis diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A plasma donor on a continuous flow separator machine experiences light headedness, muscle cramps, and circumoral paraesthesia. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Investigate and treat citrate toxicity
Explanation:Citrate Toxicity and Hypocalcaemia in Apheresis Patients
This patient is experiencing symptoms of citrate toxicity, which has led to hypocalcaemia. While it is possible for haemorrhage to occur at the site of venepuncture or venous access, this is typically easy to identify through clinical examination. Sepsis is an uncommon occurrence if proper aseptic precautions have been taken, and the symptoms described here are not indicative of an infection. Immediate treatment is necessary, and this can be achieved by slowing or stopping the apheresis process. Treatment options include the administration of oral or intravenous calcium replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male has a history of severe rheumatoid arthritis for the past four years. Despite being compliant with therapy (NSAIDs and methotrexate), the disease remains poorly controlled. Recently, he has been experiencing extreme fatigue. Upon conducting an FBC, the following results were obtained:
- Haemoglobin 70 g/L (120-160)
- White cell count 1.5 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelet count 40 ×109/L (150-400)
What could be the possible cause of his pancytopenia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Pancytopenia in a Patient with Erosive Rheumatoid Arthritis
This patient is showing signs of pancytopenia, a condition where there is a decrease in all three blood cell types (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). Given her history of erosive rheumatoid arthritis for the past three years, it is likely that she has been on immunosuppressive therapy, which can lead to this type of blood disorder.
Immunosuppressive drugs such as methotrexate, sulfasalazine, penicillamine, and gold can all have an impact on blood cell production and lead to pancytopenia. It is important to monitor patients on these medications for any signs of blood disorders and adjust treatment accordingly. Early detection and management can prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is the diagnostic tool for beta thalassaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Beta Thalassaemia
Beta thalassaemia can be diagnosed through the presence of mild microcytic anaemia, target cells on the peripheral blood smear, and a normal red blood cell count. However, the diagnosis is confirmed through the elevation of Hb A2, which is demonstrated by electrophoresis. In beta thalassaemia patients, the Hb A2 level is typically around 4-6%.
It is important to note that in rare cases where there is severe iron deficiency, the increased Hb A2 level may not be observed. However, it becomes evident with iron repletion. Additionally, patients with the rare delta-beta thalassaemia trait do not exhibit an increased Hb A2 level.
In summary, the diagnosis of beta thalassaemia can be suggested through certain symptoms and blood tests, but it is confirmed through the measurement of Hb A2 levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of shortness of breath, fever and a productive cough. She has suffered multiple severe infections over the past five years; however, she has no other past medical history.
On examination, you note intercostal recessions and the use of accessory muscles of respiration. She has significant coarse crepitations in her right lower lobe.
You take some basic observations, which are as follows:
Temperature: 39.8 °C
Heart rate: 120 bpm
Respiratory rate: 26 breaths/min
Blood pressure: 150/94 mmHg (lying) 146/90 mmHg (standing)
Oxygen saturation: 86% on room air
Her initial investigation findings are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
White cell count (WCC) 14.4 × 109/l 4–11. × 109/l
Neutrophils 12800 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
Lymphocytes 1400 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
Haemoglobin (Hb) 110 g/dl 115–155 g/dl
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 94 fl 76–98 fl
Platelets 360 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Her chest X-ray shows significant consolidation in the right lower lobe.
A blood film comes back and shows the following: sickled erythrocytes and Howell–Jolly bodies.
A sputum culture is grown and shows Streptococcus pneumoniae, and the patient’s pneumonia is managed successfully with antibiotics and IV fluid therapy.
What condition is predisposing this patient to severe infections?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splenic dysfunction
Explanation:The patient has sickle cell disease and a history of recurrent infections, indicating long-term damage to the spleen. The blood film shows signs of splenic disruption, such as Howell-Jolly bodies, and a low lymphocyte level, which may be due to reduced lymphocyte storage capacity in the shrunken spleen. This is different from a splenic sequestration crisis, which is an acute pediatric emergency. The current admission may be an acute chest pain crisis, but it is not the cause of the recurrent infections. The patient does not have acute lymphoblastic leukemia, as there is no evidence of blastic cells or pancytopenia. Advanced HIV is a possibility, but the blood film suggests sickle cell disease. While the patient is at risk of an aplastic crisis, it typically occurs in younger patients after a parvovirus B19 infection, which is not present in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his neck. He reports no other symptoms. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 100 g/l and a white cell count of 23 × 109/l. A blood film reveals smear cells, with more than 60% of the cells being small mature lymphocytes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Explanation:Differentiating Leukaemia and Lymphoma: Understanding CLL and Other Types
Leukaemia and lymphoma are two types of blood cancers that can present with similar symptoms. However, each type has distinct characteristics that can help differentiate them. Among the different types of leukaemia and lymphoma, B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (B-CLL) is the most common leukaemia in adults. It is characterized by peripheral blood lymphocytosis and uncontrolled proliferation of B cell lymphocytes in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and splenomegaly. Patients with CLL are often asymptomatic, and the condition is often picked up incidentally.
In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is a common leukaemia of children aged 2–5 years and is very rare in adults. Multiple myeloma, on the other hand, is the uncontrolled proliferation of plasma cells and presents with bone pain, hypercalcaemia, renal failure, and neutropenia. Chronic myeloid leukaemia tends to present with more systemic, B symptoms in a slightly younger age group, and a classic symptom is massive hepatosplenomegaly.
While lymphoma is a possibility in this age group, CLL is the most likely diagnosis as it is more common in this age group and in the western world. Further investigation would be used to confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the characteristics of each type of leukaemia and lymphoma can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and overall weakness. She denies any other symptoms. Upon examination, the patient has conjunctival pallor and an inflamed, red tongue. Initial blood tests show a macrocytic anemia. Further testing reveals positive antiparietal cell antibodies.
What result is most likely to be found upon further investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low vitamin B12
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a patient with low vitamin B12 and related symptoms
Pernicious anaemia, coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, and multiple myeloma are among the possible conditions that may cause low vitamin B12 levels and related symptoms. Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune disorder that affects the gastric mucosa and impairs the production of intrinsic factor, leading to vitamin B12 deficiency and anaemia. Coeliac disease is a chronic immune-mediated enteropathy that affects the small intestine and causes malabsorption of nutrients, including vitamin B12. Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and cause various symptoms, including diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and weight loss. Multiple myeloma is a malignant plasma cell disorder that can cause bone pain, anaemia, and other symptoms, but is less likely to present with low vitamin B12 levels as the primary feature.
The differential diagnosis of these conditions may involve various tests and procedures, such as blood tests for antibodies and vitamin B12 levels, endoscopy with biopsies of the duodenum or colon, and bone marrow examination. The specific findings on these tests can help to distinguish between the different conditions and guide further management. For example, the presence of parietal cell antibodies and intrinsic factor antibodies in the blood may support a diagnosis of pernicious anaemia, while villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia in the duodenal biopsies may suggest coeliac disease. Transmural inflammation with granuloma formation in the colon biopsies may indicate Crohn’s disease, while plasma cell infiltration in the bone marrow may suggest multiple myeloma.
Overall, the diagnosis of a patient with low vitamin B12 and related symptoms requires a thorough evaluation of the clinical history, physical examination, and laboratory findings, as well as consideration of the possible differential diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with a leg ulcer which needs debridement. His platelet counts are 15 ×109/l. His blood sugars are poorly controlled and he has been started on a sliding scale insulin. He has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions.
What is the recommended product to increase platelet counts to a safe level for debridement surgery in a diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura who has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions and has poorly controlled blood sugars, and is slightly older?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin
Explanation:Treatment options for ITP patients
Intravenous immunoglobulin is the preferred treatment for patients with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) who also have diabetes. Steroids may be used as a trial treatment if the patient does not have any contraindications for steroid-related complications. Platelets are not typically effective in raising platelet counts in ITP patients because they are destroyed by the antibodies. However, they may be used in emergency situations to treat major bleeding. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the individual patient’s medical history and current condition when selecting a treatment plan for ITP. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the correct information regarding the storage requirements and lifespan of blood products?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fresh frozen plasma is stored at −25°C for up to 36 months
Explanation:Storage Guidelines for Blood Products
Blood products such as fresh frozen plasma, red cells, and platelets have specific storage guidelines to ensure their safety and efficacy. Fresh frozen plasma can be stored for up to 36 months at a temperature of −25°C. On the other hand, red cells are stored at a temperature of 4°C for a maximum of 35 days, while platelets are stored at a temperature of 22°C for up to 5 days on a platelet shaker/agitator.
These guidelines are important to follow to maintain the quality of blood products and prevent any adverse reactions in patients who receive them. It is crucial to store blood products at the appropriate temperature and for the recommended duration to ensure their effectiveness when used in transfusions. Healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines and ensure that they are followed to provide safe and effective blood transfusions to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary greatly. What is the estimated risk of hepatitis B transmission in the United Kingdom, for instance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 per 1 million donations
Explanation:Infective Risks of Blood Transfusion
Blood transfusions carry the risk of transmitting viral infections such as hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV. The likelihood of infection varies depending on the source of the donation and the type of testing used. In the UK, the risk of contracting hepatitis B from a blood transfusion is approximately 1 in 1.3 million donations. The risks for HIV and hepatitis C are even lower, at 1 in 6.5 million and 1 in 28 million donations, respectively. It is important for healthcare professionals to have a comprehensive of these risks when obtaining consent from patients for blood transfusions. Adequate knowledge and communication can help patients make informed decisions about their healthcare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 5-month history of night sweats and weight loss. He has no history of cough, shortness of breath or foreign travel. He denies any back or joint pain. He is normally fit and well, except for high blood pressure for which he takes enalapril. He continues to drink ten units of alcohol per week.
On examination, he is noted to have cervical and groin lymphadenopathy, with an enlarged spleen. The remainder of the examination and observations are normal.
Which of the following is most likely to be used in the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rituximab
Explanation:The patient in question is displaying symptoms of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, including night sweats, weight loss, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. While other symptoms may include pruritus, fever, and shortness of breath, the most common treatment for progressive non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a combination chemotherapy called R-CHOP, which includes rituximab. Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody used for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis. The other options, including infliximab, lenalidomide, radiotherapy, and rifampicin, are used for different conditions such as Crohn’s disease, multiple myeloma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and tuberculosis, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A frequent contributor complains of yellowing of the eyes and fever after donating blood for five days.
What should be the subsequent suitable step for the medical officer in charge of the blood bank?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recall blood products from this donor and arrange for retesting of this donor
Explanation:Managing Donor Complications and Blood Products
When a donor develops complications, it is important to assess how to manage both the donor and the blood products from the donation. In such cases, the blood products should be recalled until further testing and clarification of the donor’s illness. It is crucial to prevent the release of any of the blood products. However, the donor should not be immediately struck off the register until further testing results are available. It is important to take these precautions to ensure the safety of the blood supply and prevent any potential harm to recipients. Proper management of donor complications and blood products is essential to maintain the integrity of the blood donation system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man experiences sudden paralysis on the right side of his body. He has been a smoker for 30 years, consuming 15 cigarettes a day. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2°C, pulse 80/minute, respiratory rate 18/minute, and blood pressure 150/95 mm Hg. An angiogram of the brain shows blockage in a branch of the middle cerebral artery. Laboratory results indicate a haemoglobin A1c level of 80 mmol/mol (9.5%). Which component of blood lipids is the most significant factor in contributing to his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxidised low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
Explanation:The patient had a stroke likely caused by cerebral atherosclerosis or embolic disease from the heart due to ischaemic heart disease from atherosclerosis. LDL brings cholesterol to arterial walls, and when there is increased LDL or hypertension, smoking, and diabetes, there is more degradation of LDL to oxidised LDL which is taken up into arterial walls via scavenger receptors in macrophages to help form atheromas. Chylomicrons transport exogenous products and are formed in intestinal epithelial cells. HDL particles remove cholesterol from the circulation and transport it back to the liver for excretion or re-utilisation. Lipoprotein lipase hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins and promotes cellular uptake of chylomicron remnants, lipoproteins, and free fatty acids. VLDL transports endogenous triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol and cholesteryl esters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman, who has received a 3-unit blood transfusion following a hysterectomy, begins to feel unwell with a fever and chills 3 or 4 days later. There are no obvious signs of active bleeding. On examination, you note that she is mildly jaundiced.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Pre-transfusion haemoglobin (Hb) 92 g/l 115–155 g/l
Post-transfusion Hb 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
Platelets 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Bilirubin 90 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 50 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
What is the most likely diagnosis for this 36-year-old woman who has received a 3-unit blood transfusion following a hysterectomy and is experiencing fever, chills, and mild jaundice without signs of active bleeding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delayed transfusion haemolysis
Explanation:Delayed Transfusion Haemolysis: A Possible Cause for Minimal Increase in Haemoglobin
A patient who has received a 3-unit transfusion has only shown a minimal increase in haemoglobin levels, which is a cause for concern. The rise in bilirubin without a corresponding increase in liver enzymes suggests haemolysis from a delayed transfusion haemolysis reaction. This type of reaction occurs when a patient without certain red cell antigens is exposed to these antigens through blood transfusion, resulting in the development of new antibodies and haemolysis after 3-14 days. Symptoms include fevers, rigors, rash, and jaundice, which are less severe and more gradual in onset than acute haemolytic reactions.
Medical management of this patient will involve screening for a wider range of possible antigens and access to a blood bank with a sufficient number of available units for a clean transfusion. Serious complications of blood transfusion are rare due to screening techniques, leukocyte depletion, and improved collection and storage.
Other potential transfusion-related reactions and their approximate time-course include hyperacute (minutes to hours), acute (hours to days), and late (days or longer). Bacterial sepsis is a possible reaction that would occur most likely in the acute time course, but it does not explain the minimal increase in haemoglobin following a 3-unit transfusion. Further haemorrhage, cholestasis of pregnancy, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) are also unlikely causes.
In conclusion, delayed transfusion haemolysis is a possible cause for the minimal increase in haemoglobin levels in this patient. It is important to consider this reaction and manage it appropriately to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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These results were obtained on a 65-year-old male:
Hb 110 g/L (120-170)
RBC 4.8 ×1012/L (4.2-5.8)
Hct 0.365 (0.37-0.49)
MCV 75 fL (82-98)
MCH 33.2 pg (28-33)
Platelets 310 ×109/L (140-450)
WBC 8.21 ×109/L (4.5-11)
Neutrophils 6.45 ×109/L (1.8-7.5)
Lymphocytes 1.23 ×109/L (1.0-4.5)
Monocytes 0.28 ×109/L (0-0.8)
Eosinophils 0.18 ×109/L (0.02-0.5)
Basophils 0.09 ×109/L (0-0.1)
Others 0.18 ×109/L -
What could be the possible reason for these FBC results in a 65-year-old male?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal blood loss
Explanation:Microcytic Anaemia in a 63-Year-Old Female
A Full Blood Count (FBC) analysis has revealed that a 63-year-old female is suffering from microcytic anaemia, which is characterized by low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and low haemoglobin (Hb) levels. This type of anaemia is typically caused by iron deficiency, which is often the result of blood loss. However, in this case, menorrhagia can be ruled out as the patient is postmenopausal. Therefore, the most likely cause of the microcytic anaemia is peptic ulceration. It is important to note that pernicious anaemia or folate deficiency can cause macrocytosis, which is characterized by elevated MCV levels. Proper diagnosis and treatment are necessary to address the underlying cause of the microcytic anaemia and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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