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  • Question 1 - A 10-month-old girl comes to the paediatric outpatient clinic with a four month...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old girl comes to the paediatric outpatient clinic with a four month history of bloating, diarrhoea and failure to gain weight. Her development is otherwise normal. What is the most suitable screening antibody test for her?

      Your Answer: Antithyroid stimulating hormone (anti-TSH)

      Correct Answer: Antitissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG)

      Explanation:

      Reliable Antibody Test for Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune condition that targets the gliadin epitope in gluten. It often presents in children with symptoms such as failure to thrive and diarrhoea, which can start during weaning. To diagnose coeliac disease, doctors use antibody tests such as anti-TTG, anti-endomysial antibody, and antigliadin. Among these, anti-TTG is the most reliable and is used as a first-line screening test due to its sensitivity of nearly 100%. Anti-endomysial antibodies are more expensive and observer-dependent, so they are not recommended as a first-line screening test. Antigliadin is rarely measured due to its lower accuracy. It is also important to measure IgA levels because IgA-deficient patients may be asymptomatic and cause a false-negative anti-TTG test.

      Autoimmune Conditions and Antibody Tests

      Autoimmune conditions can cause a variety of symptoms, including diarrhoea and bloating. Graves’ autoimmune thyroid disease, for example, may present with diarrhoea, but bloating is not commonly associated. To diagnose autoimmune conditions, doctors use antibody tests such as ANCA, which is raised in many autoimmune conditions, including some patients with ulcerative colitis. However, ANCA is not raised in coeliac disease. Therefore, it is important to use the appropriate antibody test for each autoimmune condition to ensure an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old baker visits his GP with concerns about yellowing sclera that have...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old baker visits his GP with concerns about yellowing sclera that have developed over the past week. He has no significant medical history except for a recent viral infection that he has since recovered from. He drinks socially, consuming approximately 20 units per week, and has been in a four-year relationship with his girlfriend. His aunt's death from complications of Wilson's disease is a cause for concern, as her eyes also turned yellow before she became seriously ill. What is the most frequently linked outcome with Wilson's disease?

      Your Answer: Low urinary copper

      Correct Answer: Low ceruloplasmin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wilson’s Disease and Haemochromatosis: Key Diagnostic Markers

      Wilson’s disease and haemochromatosis are two genetic conditions that can lead to serious health consequences if left untreated. Understanding the key diagnostic markers for each condition is crucial for early diagnosis and management.

      Wilson’s disease is characterized by a build-up of copper in the body, resulting in liver disease and neuropsychiatric disease. Low ceruloplasmin and high urinary copper are typical markers of Wilson’s disease, along with the presence of Kayser-Fleischer rings. Definitive diagnosis is obtained via liver biopsy, and treatment aims at lifelong reduction of copper levels.

      On the other hand, haemochromatosis results in iron overload and accumulation in different organs, leading to liver cirrhosis, cardiomyopathy, and other complications. High transferrin saturation and elevated serum ferritin are key diagnostic markers for haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that positive antinuclear antibody and positive antimitochondrial antibody are not diagnostic for Wilson’s disease or haemochromatosis, as they are associated with other autoimmune conditions. Early diagnosis and management of these conditions is crucial for reducing the risk of serious and potentially life-threatening consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman reports difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids, with occasional food...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman reports difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids, with occasional food getting stuck and needing to be washed down with a large drink. Achalasia of the oesophagus is suspected. Which nerve supplies the muscularis externa of the oesophagus?

      Your Answer: Vagus nerves

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerves are part of the tenth pair of cranial nerves and work with sympathetic nerves to form the oesophageal plexus. They have a parasympathetic function, stimulating peristalsis and supplying smooth muscle. The lower oesophageal sphincter, which relaxes to allow food into the stomach, is influenced by the vagus nerve. Oesophageal achalasia can occur when there is increased tone of the lower oesophageal sphincter, incomplete relaxation, and lack of peristalsis, leading to dysphagia and regurgitation.

      The glossopharyngeal nerves are mixed cranial nerves that supply motor fibres to the stylopharyngeus muscle and parasympathetic fibres to the parotid gland. They also form the pharyngeal plexus with the vagus nerve, supplying the palate, larynx, and pharynx.

      The greater splanchnic nerves contribute to the coeliac plexus, which supplies the enteric nervous system and the adrenals. The intercostal nerves arise from the anterior rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves and supply various structures in their intercostal space. The phrenic nerves supply the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A dishevelled-looking 70-year-old woman is admitted from a nursing home following a fall....

    Incorrect

    • A dishevelled-looking 70-year-old woman is admitted from a nursing home following a fall. Her son indicates that she has become increasingly forgetful over the last 2 months. She has had diarrhoea for the last 3 weeks, thought to be related to an outbreak of norovirus at her nursing home, and has been vomiting occasionally. On examination you notice a scaly red rash on her neck and hands.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Correct Answer: Pellagra

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Different Medical Conditions

      Pellagra: A Serious Condition Caused by Niacin Deficiency

      Pellagra is a severe medical condition that can lead to death if left untreated. It is characterized by three classical features, including diarrhoea, dermatitis, and dementia. The condition is caused by a deficiency of niacin, which is required for all cellular processes in the body. Pellagra can also develop due to a deficiency of tryptophan, which can be converted to niacin. Treatment for pellagra involves vitamin replacement with nicotinamide.

      Scurvy: Bleeding Gums and Muscle Pains

      Scurvy is a medical condition that can cause red dots on the skin, but it typically presents with bleeding gums and muscle pains. The condition is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C, which is required for the synthesis of collagen in the body. Treatment for scurvy involves vitamin C replacement.

      Post-Infective Lactose Intolerance: Bloating and Abdominal Discomfort

      Post-infective lactose intolerance is a medical condition that typically presents after gastrointestinal infections. It can cause bloating, belching, and abdominal discomfort, as well as loose stool. However, the history of skin changes and forgetfulness would point more towards pellagra.

      Depression: Not Related to Skin Changes or Diarrhoea/Vomiting

      Depression is a medical condition that can cause a range of symptoms, including low mood, loss of interest, and fatigue. However, it is not related to skin changes or diarrhoea/vomiting.

      Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE): Painful Swollen Joints and Red ‘Butterfly’ Rash

      SLE is a medical condition that typically presents with painful swollen joints and a red ‘butterfly’ rash over the face. Other common symptoms include fever, mouth ulcers, and fatigue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old man returns from a trip to Thailand and experiences fatigue, malaise,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man returns from a trip to Thailand and experiences fatigue, malaise, loss of appetite, and jaundice. He has no significant medical history and denies excessive alcohol consumption. Upon investigation, his serum total bilirubin is 71 μmol/L (1-22), serum alanine aminotransferase is 195 U/L (5-35), and serum alkaline phosphatase is 100 U/L (45-105). His serum IgM antihepatitis A is negative, but serum IgG antihepatitis A is positive. Additionally, his serum hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is positive, but serum antibody to hepatitis C is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Leptospirosis

      Correct Answer: Acute hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hepatitis and Leptospirosis

      Hepatitis B is a sexually transmitted disease that can be diagnosed by the presence of HBsAg and IgM anti-HBc antibodies. On the other hand, acute hepatitis A can be diagnosed by positive IgM anti-HAV antibodies, while the presence of IgG anti-HAV antibodies indicates that the illness is not caused by HAV. Acute hepatitis C is usually asymptomatic, but can be diagnosed through the demonstration of anti-HCV antibodies or HCV RNA. Meanwhile, acute hepatitis E is characterized by a more pronounced elevation of alkaline phosphatase and can be diagnosed through the presence of serum IgM anti-HEV antibodies.

      Leptospirosis, also known as Weil’s disease, is caused by the spirochaete Leptospira and can cause acute hepatitis. It is transmitted through direct contact with infected soil, water, or urine, and can enter the body through skin abrasions or cuts. Diagnosis of leptospirosis is done through an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for Leptospira IgM antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with vague, crampy central abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with vague, crampy central abdominal ‘discomfort’ for the last three days. He was recently prescribed codeine phosphate for knee pain, which is secondary to osteoarthritis. He has never had this type of abdominal discomfort before. He last moved his bowels three days ago but denies nausea and vomiting. His past medical history is significant for hypertension. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history and denies any history of alcohol use. He has had no previous surgery.
      His physical examination is normal. His observations and blood test results are shown below.
      Temperature 36.3°C
      Blood pressure 145/88 mmHg
      Respiratory rate 15 breaths/min
      Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 99% (room air)
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 5.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 1.5 mg/dl 0–10 mg/l
      Total bilirubin 5.0 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      The Emergency doctor performs an abdominal ultrasound to examine for an abdominal aortic aneurysm. During this process, he also performs an ultrasound scan of the right upper quadrant, which shows several gallstones in a thin-walled gallbladder. The abdominal aorta is visualised and has a diameter of 2.3 cm. The patient’s abdominal pain is thought to be due to constipation.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient’s gallstones?

      Your Answer: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

      Correct Answer: No intervention required

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Management Options for Gallstone Disease

      Gallstone disease is a common condition that can present with a variety of symptoms. The management of this condition depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the severity of their disease. Here are some differentiating management options for gallstone disease:

      No Intervention Required:
      If a patient presents with vague abdominal pain after taking codeine phosphate, it is important to exclude the possibility of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. However, if the patient has asymptomatic gallstone disease, no intervention is required, and they can be managed expectantly.

      Elective Cholecystectomy:
      For patients with asymptomatic gallstone disease, prophylactic cholecystectomy is not indicated unless there is a high risk of life-threatening complications. However, if the patient has symptomatic gallstone disease, such as colicky right upper quadrant pain, elective cholecystectomy may be necessary.

      Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography (ERCP):
      ERCP is indicated for patients with common duct bile stones or if stenting of benign or malignant strictures is required. However, if the patient has asymptomatic gallstone disease, ERCP is not necessary.

      Immediate Cholecystectomy:
      If a patient has acute cholecystitis (AC), immediate cholecystectomy is indicated. AC typically presents with right upper quadrant pain and elevated inflammatory markers.

      Percutaneous Cholecystectomy:
      For critically unwell patients who are poor surgical candidates, percutaneous cholecystectomy may be necessary. This procedure involves the image-guided placement of a drainage catheter into the gallbladder lumen to stabilize the patient before a more controlled surgical approach can be taken in the future.

      In summary, the management of gallstone disease depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the severity of their disease. It is important to differentiate between the different management options to provide the best possible care for each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after several episodes of vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after several episodes of vomiting bright red blood. He has presented to the same hospital in the past for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, alcohol intoxication and peptic ulcer disease (PUD). The gastroenterology team review the patient and perform an urgent gastroscopy, which reveals several oesophageal varices.
      Which of the following medications should be prescribed to this patient to reduce his chance of future variceal bleeding?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Alcoholic Liver Disease and Variceal Bleeding Prophylaxis

      Secondary prophylaxis for variceal haemorrhage in patients with alcoholic liver disease involves the use of non-specific beta-blockers like nadolol and propranolol. These medications reduce portal inflow and prevent further episodes of variceal bleeding. However, it is important to initiate treatment at the lowest possible dose and monitor for complications such as bradycardia.

      Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor commonly used for reflux and PUD, is not indicated for the management of variceal bleeding. Erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic with prokinetic properties, has no role in secondary prophylaxis for variceal bleeding.

      Atenolol, a cardioselective beta-blocker, is not the preferred choice for patients with oesophageal varices as it has limited effect on peripheral tissues. Instead, a non-selective beta-blocker is more appropriate.

      H2 antagonists like ranitidine and cimetidine can be used as alternatives to proton pump inhibitors in some patients with reflux and PUD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 5-year old child has been admitted to the hospital after experiencing fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year old child has been admitted to the hospital after experiencing fever, feeling unwell, and developing bloody diarrhea for the past two days. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Giardiasis

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli 0157

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Diarrhoea and Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome

      Enterohaemorrhagic verocytotoxin-producing E coli 0157:H7 is the most probable cause of acute diarrhoea and haemolytic uraemic syndrome. This type of E coli is known to produce toxins that can damage the lining of the intestine and cause bloody diarrhoea. In severe cases, it can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome, a condition that affects the kidneys and can cause kidney failure.

      Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that can cause chronic diarrhoea, but it would be unusual for it to present acutely as in this case. Polio and giardiasis are other possible causes of diarrhoea, but they typically present as non-bloody diarrhoea. It is important to identify the underlying cause of acute diarrhoea and haemolytic uraemic syndrome to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of tiredness, epigastric discomfort and an episode of passing black stools. His past medical history includes a 4-year history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he takes regular methotrexate, folic acid and naproxen. He recently received a course of oral corticosteroids for a flare of his rheumatoid arthritis. He denies alcohol consumption and is a non-smoker. On systemic enquiry he reports a good appetite and denies any weight loss. The examination reveals conjunctival pallor and a soft abdomen with tenderness in the epigastrium. His temperature is 36.7°C, blood pressure is 112/68 mmHg, pulse is 81 beats per minute and oxygen saturations are 96% on room air. A full blood count is taken which reveals the following:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Haemoglobin 76 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 68 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 380 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal Conditions: Peptic Ulcer, Atrophic Gastritis, Barrett’s Oesophagus, Gastric Cancer, and Oesophageal Varices

      Peptic Ulcer:
      Peptic ulceration is commonly caused by NSAID use or Helicobacter pylori infection. Symptoms include dyspepsia, upper gastrointestinal bleeding, and iron deficiency anaemia. Treatment involves admission to a gastrointestinal ward for resuscitation, proton pump inhibitor initiation, and urgent endoscopy. If caused by H. pylori, triple therapy is initiated.

      Atrophic Gastritis:
      Atrophic gastritis is a chronic inflammatory change of the gastric mucosa, resulting in malabsorption and anaemia. However, it is unlikely to account for melaena or epigastric discomfort.

      Barrett’s Oesophagus:
      Barrett’s oesophagus is a histological diagnosis resulting from chronic acid reflux. It is unlikely to cause the patient’s symptoms as there is no history of reflux.

      Gastric Cancer:
      Gastric cancer is less likely due to the lack of risk factors and additional ‘red flag’ symptoms such as weight loss and appetite change. Biopsies of peptic ulcers are taken at endoscopy to check for an underlying malignant process.

      Oesophageal Varices:
      Oesophageal varices are caused by chronic liver disease and can result in severe bleeding and haematemesis. However, this diagnosis is unlikely as there is little history to suggest chronic liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound. The surgeon informs her that one of the stones is quite large and is currently lodged in the bile duct, about 5 cm above the transpyloric plane. The surgeon explains that this plane is a significant anatomical landmark for several abdominal structures.
      What structure is located at the level of the transpyloric plane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Origin of the superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The transpyloric plane, also known as Addison’s plane, is an imaginary plane located at the level of the L1 vertebral body. It is situated halfway between the jugular notch and the superior border of the pubic symphysis and serves as an important anatomical landmark. Various structures lie in this plane, including the pylorus of the stomach, the first part of the duodenum, the duodeno-jejunal flexure, both the hepatic and splenic flexures of the colon, the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the hila of the kidneys and spleen, the ninth costal cartilage, and the spinal cord termination. Additionally, the origin of the superior mesenteric artery and the point where the splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein join to form the portal vein are located in this plane. The cardio-oesophageal junction, where the oesophagus meets the stomach, is also found in this area. It is mainly intra-abdominal, 3-4 cm in length, and houses the gastro-oesophageal sphincter. The ninth costal cartilage lies at the transpyloric plane, not the eighth, and the hila of both kidneys are located here, not just the superior pole of the left kidney. The uncinate process of the pancreas, which is an extension of the lower part of the head of the pancreas, lies between the superior mesenteric vessel and the aorta, and the neck of the pancreas is situated along the transpyloric plane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (2/8) 25%
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