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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of muscle cramps, fatigue, and tingling in her fingers and toes for the past two weeks. Upon conducting a blood test, the doctor discovers low levels of serum calcium and parathyroid hormone. The patient is new to the clinic and seems a bit confused, possibly due to hypocalcemia, and is unable to provide a complete medical history. However, she mentions that she was recently hospitalized. What is the most probable cause of her hypoparathyroidism?
Your Answer: Chronic kidney disease
Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy
Explanation:Due to their location behind the thyroid gland, the parathyroid glands are at risk of damage during a thyroidectomy, leading to iatrogenic hypoparathyroidism. This condition is characterized by low levels of both parathyroid hormone and calcium, indicating that the parathyroid glands are not responding to the hypocalcemia. The patient’s confusion and prolonged hospital stay are likely related to the surgery.
Hypocalcemia can also be caused by chronic kidney disease, which triggers an increase in parathyroid hormone production in an attempt to raise calcium levels, resulting in hyperparathyroidism. Additionally, a deficiency in vitamin D, which is activated by the kidneys and aids in calcium absorption in the terminal ileum, can also lead to hyperparathyroidism.
While a parathyroid adenoma is a common occurrence, it is more likely to cause hyperparathyroidism than hypoparathyroidism, which is a relatively rare side effect of thyroidectomy.
Anatomy and Development of the Parathyroid Glands
The parathyroid glands are four small glands located posterior to the thyroid gland within the pretracheal fascia. They develop from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches, with those derived from the fourth pouch located more superiorly and associated with the thyroid gland, while those from the third pouch lie more inferiorly and may become associated with the thymus.
The blood supply to the parathyroid glands is derived from the inferior and superior thyroid arteries, with a rich anastomosis between the two vessels. Venous drainage is into the thyroid veins. The parathyroid glands are surrounded by various structures, with the common carotid laterally, the recurrent laryngeal nerve and trachea medially, and the thyroid anteriorly. Understanding the anatomy and development of the parathyroid glands is important for their proper identification and preservation during surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 2
Correct
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A patient with a history of aortic stenosis presents with anaemia. Is there a rare association with aortic stenosis that could explain the anaemia in this patient? This is particularly relevant for elderly patients.
Your Answer: Angiodysplasia
Explanation:Aortic Stenosis and Angiodysplasia: A Possible Association
There have been numerous reports suggesting a possible link between aortic stenosis and angiodysplasia, which can result in blood loss and anemia. The exact mechanism behind this association is not yet fully understood. However, it is worth noting that replacing the stenotic valve often leads to the resolution of gastrointestinal blood loss. This finding highlights the importance of early detection and management of aortic stenosis, as it may prevent the development of angiodysplasia and its associated complications. Further research is needed to fully elucidate the relationship between these two conditions and to identify potential therapeutic targets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Correct
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A 59-year-old man has been experiencing abdominal pain that worsens after eating, along with nausea and weight loss. Imaging suggests that he may have median arcuate ligament syndrome, which is compressing a branch of the abdominal aorta that supplies the foregut. As a result, he is scheduled for surgical decompression of this vessel. Can you name the three branches of this occluded aortic branch?
Your Answer: Left gastric, hepatic, splenic
Explanation:The three branches of the coeliac trunk are the left gastric, hepatic, and splenic arteries, which can be remembered by the mnemonic Left Hand Side (LHS).
The Coeliac Axis and its Branches
The coeliac axis is a major artery that supplies blood to the upper abdominal organs. It has three main branches: the left gastric, hepatic, and splenic arteries. The hepatic artery further branches into the right gastric, gastroduodenal, right gastroepiploic, superior pancreaticoduodenal, and cystic arteries. Meanwhile, the splenic artery gives off the pancreatic, short gastric, and left gastroepiploic arteries. Occasionally, the coeliac axis also gives off one of the inferior phrenic arteries.
The coeliac axis is located anteriorly to the lesser omentum and is related to the right and left coeliac ganglia, as well as the caudate process of the liver and the gastric cardia. Inferiorly, it is in close proximity to the upper border of the pancreas and the renal vein.
Understanding the anatomy and branches of the coeliac axis is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper abdominal organs, such as pancreatic cancer or gastric ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 87-year-old male with chronic untreated hypertension arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain. Upon examination of his ECG, it is observed that there are tall QRS complexes throughout the entire ECG with elevated R-waves in the left-sided leads. What condition does this suggest?
Your Answer: Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVF)
Explanation:ST elevation is expected in the leads corresponding to the affected part of the heart in an STEMI, while ST depression, T wave inversion, or no change is expected in an NSTEMI or angina. Dilated cardiomyopathy does not have any classical ECG changes, and it is not commonly associated with hypertension as LVF. LVF, on the other hand, causes left ventricular hypertrophy due to prolonged hypertension, resulting in an increase in R-wave amplitude in leads 1, aVL, and V4-6, as well as an increase in S wave depth in leads III, aVR, and V1-3 on the right side.
ECG Indicators of Atrial and Ventricular Hypertrophy
Left ventricular hypertrophy is indicated on an ECG when the sum of the S wave in V1 and the R wave in V5 or V6 exceeds 40 mm. Meanwhile, right ventricular hypertrophy is characterized by a dominant R wave in V1 and a deep S wave in V6. In terms of atrial hypertrophy, left atrial enlargement is indicated by a bifid P wave in lead II with a duration of more than 120 ms, as well as a negative terminal portion in the P wave in V1. On the other hand, right atrial enlargement is characterized by tall P waves in both II and V1 that exceed 0.25 mV. These ECG indicators can help diagnose and monitor patients with atrial and ventricular hypertrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presents with abdominal pain.
He has a past medical history of stroke and myocardial infarction. During examination, there was noticeable distension of the abdomen and the stools were maroon in color. The lactate level was found to be 5 mmol/L, which is above the normal range of <2.2 mmol/L.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Correct Answer: Acute mesenteric ischaemia
Explanation:Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia
Acute mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a disruption in blood flow to the small intestine or right colon. This can be caused by arterial or venous disease, with arterial disease further classified as non-occlusive or occlusive. The classic triad of symptoms associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia includes gastrointestinal emptying, abdominal pain, and underlying cardiac disease.
The hallmark symptom of mesenteric ischaemia is severe abdominal pain, which may be accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal distention, ileus, peritonitis, blood in the stool, and shock. Advanced ischaemia is characterized by the presence of these symptoms.
There are several risk factors associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia, including congestive heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias (especially atrial fibrillation), recent myocardial infarction, atherosclerosis, hypercoagulable states, and hypovolaemia. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and to seek medical attention promptly if any symptoms of acute mesenteric ischaemia are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with central crushing chest pain and undergoes a coronary angiogram. Arterial blockage can result from atherosclerosis, which can cause changes in the endothelium. What is an anticipated change in the endothelium?
Your Answer: Fatty infiltration by high density lipoproteins (HDLs)
Correct Answer: Reduced nitric oxide bioavailability
Explanation:Fatty infiltration in the subendothelial space is associated with LDL particles, but the endothelium undergoes changes that include reduced nitric oxide bioavailability, proliferation, and pro-inflammatory and pro-oxidant effects.
Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications
Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages that phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.
Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath and leg swelling over the past 3 months. Upon examination, there is pitting edema to his thighs bilaterally with palpable sacral edema. Bibasal crackles are heard upon auscultation. What medication can be prescribed to improve the prognosis of the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Furosemide
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Ramipril is the correct medication for this patient with likely chronic heart failure. It is one of the few drugs that has been shown to improve the overall prognosis of heart failure, along with beta-blockers and aldosterone antagonists. Aspirin, digoxin, and furosemide are commonly used in the management of heart failure but do not offer prognostic benefit.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug treatment, according to updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is a combination of an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are recommended as second-line treatment, but potassium levels should be monitored as both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia. Third-line treatment should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenzae and one-off pneumococcal vaccines. Those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease may require a booster every 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A man in his 50s arrives at the emergency department exhibiting signs of a stroke. After undergoing a CT angiogram, it is revealed that there is a constriction in the artery that provides blood to the right common carotid.
What is the name of the affected artery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brachiocephalic artery
Explanation:The largest branch from the aortic arch is the brachiocephalic artery, which originates from it. This artery gives rise to both the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid arteries. The brachiocephalic artery is supplied by the aortic arch, while the coronary arteries are supplied by the ascending aorta. Additionally, the coeliac trunk is a branch that stems from the abdominal aorta.
The Brachiocephalic Artery: Anatomy and Relations
The brachiocephalic artery is the largest branch of the aortic arch, originating at the apex of the midline. It ascends superiorly and posteriorly to the right, lying initially anterior to the trachea and then on its right-hand side. At the level of the sternoclavicular joint, it divides into the right subclavian and right common carotid arteries.
In terms of its relations, the brachiocephalic artery is anterior to the sternohyoid, sterno-thyroid, thymic remnants, left brachiocephalic vein, and right inferior thyroid veins. Posteriorly, it is related to the trachea, right pleura, right lateral, right brachiocephalic vein, superior part of the SVC, left lateral, thymic remnants, origin of left common carotid, inferior thyroid veins, and trachea at a higher level.
The brachiocephalic artery typically has no branches, but it may have the thyroidea ima artery. Understanding the anatomy and relations of the brachiocephalic artery is important for medical professionals, as it is a crucial vessel in the human body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with diabetes presents to the vascular clinic with a chronic cold purple right leg that previously only caused pain during exercise. However, he now reports experiencing leg pain at rest for the past week. Upon examination, it is noted that he has no palpable popliteal, posterior tibial, or dorsalis pedis pulses on his right leg and a weak posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulse on his left leg. His ABPI is 0.56. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty
Explanation:The man is experiencing critical ischemia, which is a severe form of peripheral arterial disease. He has progressed from experiencing claudication (similar to angina of the leg) to experiencing pain even at rest. While lifestyle changes and medication such as aspirin and statins are important, surgical intervention is necessary in this case. His ABPI is very low, indicating arterial disease, and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty is the preferred surgical option due to its minimally invasive nature. Amputation is not recommended at this stage as the tissue is still viable.
Symptoms of peripheral arterial disease include no symptoms, claudication, leg pain at rest, ulceration, and gangrene. Signs include absent leg and foot pulses, cold white legs, atrophic skin, arterial ulcers, and long capillary filling time (over 15 seconds in severe ischemia). The first line investigation is ABPI, and imaging options include colour duplex ultrasound and MR/CT angiography if intervention is being considered.
Management involves modifying risk factors such as smoking cessation, treating hypertension and high cholesterol, and prescribing clopidogrel. Supervised exercise programs can also help increase blood flow. Surgical options include percutaneous transluminal angioplasty and surgical reconstruction using the saphenous vein as a bypass graft. Amputation may be necessary in severe cases.
Understanding Ankle Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI)
Ankle Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) is a non-invasive test used to assess the blood flow in the legs. It is a simple and quick test that compares the blood pressure in the ankle with the blood pressure in the arm. The result is expressed as a ratio, with the normal value being 1.0.
ABPI is particularly useful in the assessment of peripheral arterial disease (PAD), which is a condition that affects the blood vessels outside the heart and brain. PAD can cause intermittent claudication, which is a cramping pain in the legs that occurs during exercise and is relieved by rest.
The interpretation of ABPI results is as follows: a ratio between 0.6 and 0.9 is indicative of claudication, while a ratio between 0.3 and 0.6 suggests rest pain. A ratio below 0.3 indicates impending limb loss and requires urgent intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What changes occur in the newborn after delivery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The ductus arteriosus closes
Explanation:Within a few hours of birth, the foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus, and umbilical vessels all close. The foramen ovale, which allows blood to bypass the lungs by shunting from the right atrium to the left atrium, closes as the lungs become functional and the left atrial pressure exceeds the right atrial pressure. The ductus arteriosus, which connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, also closes to form the ligamentum arteriosum, allowing blood to circulate into the pulmonary artery and become oxygenated. After a few days, Haemoglobin F is replaced by Haemoglobin A, which has a lower affinity for oxygen and may cause physiological jaundice in the newborn due to the breakdown of fetal blood cells. The first few breaths help to expel lung fluid from the fetal alveoli. If the ductus arteriosus fails to close, it can result in a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which can lead to serious health complications such as pulmonary hypertension, heart failure, and arrhythmias.
During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old Hispanic man visits his GP for a blood pressure check-up. As he experienced ankle swelling with amlodipine, the GP recommends trying bendroflumethiazide. Can you explain the mechanism of action of this diuretic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits the sodium-chloride transporter
Explanation:Thiazides and thiazide-like drugs, such as indapamide, work by blocking the Na+-Cl− symporter at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule, which inhibits sodium reabsorption. Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic that prevents the absorption of sodium and chloride by inhibiting the sodium-chloride transporter, resulting in water remaining in the tubule through osmosis. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is used to reduce intracranial pressure after a head injury. Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist, while furosemide acts on the thick ascending loop of Henle to prevent the reabsorption of potassium, sodium, and chloride. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used to treat acute angle closure glaucoma.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain on the left side that radiates to his back. He also reports vomiting. The patient has no significant medical history.
Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.5°C, a respiratory rate of 28/min, a pulse of 110/min, and a blood pressure of 160/82 mmHg. The abdomen is tender to touch, especially over the hypochondrium, and bowel sounds are present. Urinalysis reveals amylase 3+ with glucose 2+.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Acute Abdominal Pain with Radiation to the Back
The occurrence of acute abdominal pain with radiation to the back can be indicative of two possible conditions: a dissection or rupture of an aortic aneurysm or pancreatitis. However, the presence of amylase in the urine suggests that the latter is more likely. Pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the pancreas, which can cause severe abdominal pain that radiates to the back. The presence of amylase in the urine is a common diagnostic marker for pancreatitis.
In addition, acute illness associated with pancreatitis can lead to impaired insulin release and increased gluconeogenesis, which can cause elevated glucose levels. Therefore, glucose levels may also be monitored in patients with suspected pancreatitis. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat pancreatitis as it can lead to serious complications such as pancreatic necrosis, sepsis, and organ failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man recovering from severe community-acquired pneumonia is being assessed by a consultant and a medical student. He has a medical history of hypertension, heart failure, depression, and gout, and is currently taking ramipril, atenolol, furosemide, sertraline, allopurinol, and ibuprofen. The consultant suspects that his slightly low blood pressure may be due to his medications. The patient's urea and electrolyte levels are provided below. Can you identify the role of atenolol in reducing blood pressure?
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 4.2 mmol/l
Urea 6 mmol/l
Creatinine 68 µmol/lYour Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits the release of renin from the kidneys
Explanation:Beta-blockers have an added advantage in treating hypertension as they can suppress the release of renin from the kidneys. This is because the release of renin is partly regulated by β1-adrenoceptors in the kidney, which are inhibited by beta-blockers. By reducing the amount of circulating plasma renin, the levels of angiotensin II and aldosterone decrease, leading to increased renal loss of sodium and water, ultimately lowering arterial pressure.
It is important to note that atenolol does not compete with aldosterone, unlike spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic that does compete with aldosterone for its receptor. Additionally, atenolol does not inhibit the conversion of ATI to ATII, which is achieved by ACE-inhibitors like ramipril.
While both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors are present in the heart, atenolol primarily acts on beta-1 receptors, resulting in negative inotropic, negative chronotropic, and positive lusitropic effects. Lusitropy refers to the relaxation of the heart.
Therefore, the statement that atenolol inhibits the release of renin is correct, and the fifth option is incorrect.
Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.
Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.
Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus arrives at the emergency department with loss of vision on the right side.
Which artery disease could be responsible for his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal carotid artery
Explanation:The ophthalmic artery is the first branch of the internal carotid artery and supplies the orbit. If the internal carotid artery is affected by disease, it can lead to vision loss. However, disease of the external carotid artery, which supplies structures of the face and neck, or its branches such as the facial artery (which supplies skin and muscles of the face), lingual artery (which supplies the tongue and oral mucosa), or middle meningeal artery (which supplies the cranial dura), would not result in vision loss. Disease of the middle meningeal artery is commonly associated with extradural hematoma.
The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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As a young medical trainee participating in the ward round for diabetic foot, your consultant requests you to evaluate the existence of the posterior tibial pulse. Can you identify its location?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Behind and below the medial ankle
Explanation:The lower limb has 4 primary pulse points, which include the femoral pulse located 2-3 cm below the mid-inguinal point, the popliteal pulse that can be accessed by partially flexing the knee to loosen the popliteal fascia, the posterior tibial pulse located behind and below the medial ankle, and the dorsal pedis pulse found on the dorsum of the foot.
Lower Limb Pulse Points
The lower limb has four main pulse points that are important to check for proper circulation. These pulse points include the femoral pulse, which can be found 2-3 cm below the mid-inguinal point. The popliteal pulse can be found with a partially flexed knee to lose the popliteal fascia. The posterior tibial pulse can be found behind and below the medial ankle, while the dorsal pedis pulse can be found on the dorsum of the foot. It is important to check these pulse points regularly to ensure proper blood flow to the lower limb. By doing so, any potential circulation issues can be detected early on and treated accordingly. Proper circulation is essential for maintaining healthy lower limbs and overall physical well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman has a laparoscopic cholecystectomy as a day case procedure. The surgery proves to be more challenging than expected, and a drain is inserted at the surgical site. During recovery, the patient experiences a significant loss of 1800ml of visible blood into the drain. Which of the following outcomes is not expected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Release of aldosterone via the Bainbridge reflex
Explanation:The Bainbridge reflex is a response where the heart rate is elevated due to the activation of atrial stretch receptors following a sudden infusion of blood.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of peripheral vascular disease visits their GP with essential hypertension. Which of the following medications could worsen their peripheral vascular symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Patients with peripheral vascular disease may experience worsened symptoms when taking beta-blockers, and caution should be exercised when prescribing this medication. Additionally, those with Raynaud disease may also experience aggravated symptoms. Monitoring for signs of progressive arterial obstruction is recommended.
Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.
Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.
Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-hour history of tearing chest pain. He has a past medical history of poorly controlled hypertension. His observations show:
Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
Pulse of 95 beats/min
Temperature of 37.3ºC
Blood pressure of 176/148 mmHg
Oxygen saturations of 97% on room air
Auscultation of the heart identifies a diastolic murmur, heard loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border.
What CT angiography findings would be expected in this patient's likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: False lumen of the ascending aorta
Explanation:A false lumen in the descending aorta is a significant indication of aortic dissection on CT angiography. This condition is characterized by tearing chest pain, hypertension, and aortic regurgitation, which can be detected through a diastolic murmur over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. The false lumen is formed due to a tear in the tunica intima of the aortic wall, which fills with a large volume of blood and is easily visible on angiographic CT.
Ballooning of the aortic arch is an incorrect answer as it refers to an aneurysm, which is a condition where the artery walls weaken and abnormally bulge out or widen. Aneurysms are prone to rupture and can have varying effects depending on their location.
Blurring of the posterior wall of the descending aorta is also an incorrect answer as it is a sign of a retroperitoneal, contained rupture of an aortic aneurysm. This condition may present with hypovolemic shock, hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea, leading to collapse.
Total occlusion of the left anterior descending artery is another incorrect answer as it would likely result in ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Although chest pain is a symptom of both conditions, the nature of the pain and investigation findings make aortic dissection more likely. It is important to note that coronary arteries can only be viewed through coronary angiography, which involves injecting contrast directly into the coronary arteries using a catheter, and not through CT angiography.
Aortic dissection is classified according to the location of the tear in the aorta. The Stanford classification divides it into type A, which affects the ascending aorta in two-thirds of cases, and type B, which affects the descending aorta distal to the left subclavian origin in one-third of cases. The DeBakey classification divides it into type I, which originates in the ascending aorta and propagates to at least the aortic arch and possibly beyond it distally, type II, which originates in and is confined to the ascending aorta, and type III, which originates in the descending aorta and rarely extends proximally but will extend distally.
To diagnose aortic dissection, a chest x-ray may show a widened mediastinum, but CT angiography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is the investigation of choice. However, the choice of investigations should take into account the patient’s clinical stability, as they may present acutely and be unstable. Transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE) is more suitable for unstable patients who are too risky to take to the CT scanner.
The management of type A aortic dissection is surgical, but blood pressure should be controlled to a target systolic of 100-120 mmHg while awaiting intervention. On the other hand, type B aortic dissection is managed conservatively with bed rest and IV labetalol to reduce blood pressure and prevent progression. Complications of a backward tear include aortic incompetence/regurgitation and MI, while complications of a forward tear include unequal arm pulses and BP, stroke, and renal failure. Endovascular repair of type B aortic dissection may have a role in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a medical history of heart failure, ischaemic heart disease, and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the cardiology clinic with complaints of dyspnoea and leg swelling. Upon examination, the physician notes bibasal crackles in the lungs and bilateral pitting oedema up to the mid-shin level. The heart sounds are normal. To alleviate the symptoms, the cardiologist prescribes furosemide. Which part of the kidney does furosemide target?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Na-K-2Cl symporter in the thick ascending loop of Henle
Explanation:Furosemide is a medication that is often prescribed to patients with heart failure who have excess fluid in their bodies. It works by inhibiting the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, which prevents the reabsorption of sodium. This results in a less hypertonic renal medulla and reduces the osmotic force that causes water to be reabsorbed from the collecting ducts. As a result, more water is excreted through the kidneys.
It is important to be aware of the common side effects of loop diuretics, which are listed in the notes below.
Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old patient is being evaluated on the ward 3 days after experiencing a transmural myocardial infarction (MI). The patient reports experiencing sharp, severe retrosternal chest pain that worsens with inspiration.
During the assessment, the patient's vital signs are heart rate 82 beats/min, BP 132/90 mmHg, temperature 37.8ºC, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air. Upon auscultation, a pericardial friction rub is audible.
What is the histological change in the myocardial tissue that is consistent with this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coagulative necrosis with neutrophil infiltration
Explanation:Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A patient develops a broad complex tachycardia three days following a myocardial infarction. What is the primary mechanism of action of intravenous amiodarone in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blocks voltage-gated potassium channels
Explanation:Amiodarone’s mechanism of action involves the inhibition of potassium channels.
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male is brought to the trauma unit following a car accident, with an estimated blood loss of 1200ml. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 125 beats per minute, blood pressure of 125/100 mmHg, and he feels cold to the touch.
Which component of his cardiovascular system has played the biggest role in maintaining his blood pressure stability?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arterioles
Explanation:The highest resistance in the cardiovascular system is found in the arterioles, which means they contribute the most to the total peripheral resistance. In cases of compensated hypovolaemic shock, such as in this relatively young patient, the body compensates by increasing heart rate and causing peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain blood pressure.
Arteriole vasoconstriction in hypovolaemic shock patients leads to an increase in total peripheral resistance, which in turn increases mean arterial blood pressure. This has a greater effect on diastolic blood pressure, resulting in a narrowing of pulse pressure and clinical symptoms such as cold peripheries and delayed capillary refill time.
Capillaries are microscopic channels that provide blood supply to the tissues and are the primary site for gas and nutrient exchange. Venules, on the other hand, are small veins with diameters ranging from 8-100 micrometers and join multiple capillaries exiting from a capillary bed.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman delivers a baby boy in the delivery room. The midwife observes microcephaly, polydactyly, and low-set ears during the neonatal assessment. Trisomy 13 is confirmed through rapid genetic testing. What is the most commonly associated cardiac abnormality with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Explanation:Understanding Ventricular Septal Defect
Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common congenital heart disease that affects many individuals. It is caused by a hole in the wall that separates the two lower chambers of the heart. In some cases, VSDs may close on their own, but in other cases, they require specialized management.
There are various causes of VSDs, including chromosomal disorders such as Down’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, Patau syndrome, and cri-du-chat syndrome. Congenital infections and post-myocardial infarction can also lead to VSDs. The condition can be detected during routine scans in utero or may present post-natally with symptoms such as failure to thrive, heart failure, hepatomegaly, tachypnea, tachycardia, pallor, and a pansystolic murmur.
Management of VSDs depends on the size and symptoms of the defect. Small VSDs that are asymptomatic may require monitoring, while moderate to large VSDs may result in heart failure and require nutritional support, medication for heart failure, and surgical closure of the defect.
Complications of VSDs include aortic regurgitation, infective endocarditis, Eisenmenger’s complex, right heart failure, and pulmonary hypertension. Eisenmenger’s complex is a severe complication that results in cyanosis and clubbing and is an indication for a heart-lung transplant. Women with pulmonary hypertension are advised against pregnancy as it carries a high risk of mortality.
In conclusion, VSD is a common congenital heart disease that requires specialized management. Early detection and appropriate treatment can prevent severe complications and improve outcomes for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of crushing chest pain, sweating, and palpitations. Upon examination, an ECG reveals ST elevation in leads V1-V4, indicating a myocardial infarction. Which coronary artery is most likely blocked?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior descending artery
Explanation:Anteroseptal myocardial infarction is typically caused by blockage of the left anterior descending artery. This is supported by the patient’s symptoms and ST segment elevation in leads V1-V4, which correspond to the territory supplied by this artery. Other potential occlusions, such as the left circumflex artery, left marginal artery, posterior descending artery, or right coronary artery, would cause different changes in specific leads.
The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery, while inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V4-6, I, and aVL may indicate involvement of either the left anterior descending or left circumflex artery, while lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but also possibly the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new LBBB may indicate acute coronary syndrome.
Diagram showing the correlation between ECG changes and coronary territories in acute coronary syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset left-sided foot and leg weakness and sensory loss. According to his wife, he stumbled and fell while they were out for dinner. Imaging results indicate an infarct in the anterior cerebral artery (ACA).
Which lobes of the brain are expected to be impacted the most?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontal and parietal lobes
Explanation:The anterior cerebral artery is responsible for supplying blood to a portion of the frontal and parietal lobes. While this type of stroke is uncommon and may be challenging to diagnose through clinical means, imaging techniques can reveal affected vessels or brain regions. Damage to the frontal and parietal lobes can result in significant mood, personality, and movement disorders.
It’s important to note that the occipital lobe and cerebellum receive their blood supply from the posterior cerebral artery and cerebellar arteries (which originate from the basilar and vertebral arteries), respectively. Therefore, they would not be impacted by an ACA stroke. Similarly, the middle cerebral artery is responsible for supplying blood to the temporal lobe, so damage to the ACA would not affect this area.
The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing a syncopal episode. He is currently stable and reports no warning signs prior to the episode. He has had a few similar episodes in the past but did not seek medical attention. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that his father and uncle both died suddenly from heart attacks at ages 45 and 42, respectively. An ECG reveals coved ST segment elevation in V1 and V2 leads, followed by a negative T wave. What is the definitive treatment for this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator
Explanation:The most effective management for Brugada syndrome is the implantation of a cardioverter-defibrillator, as per the NICE guidelines. This is the recommended treatment for patients with the condition, as evidenced by this man’s ECG findings, syncopal episodes, and family history of sudden cardiac deaths.
While class I antiarrhythmic drugs like flecainide and procainamide may be used in clinical settings to diagnose Brugada syndrome, they should be avoided in patients with the condition as they can transiently induce the ECG features of the syndrome.
Quinidine, another class I antiarrhythmic drug, has shown some benefits in preventing and treating tachyarrhythmias in small studies of patients with Brugada syndrome. However, it is not a definitive treatment and has not been shown to reduce the rate of sudden cardiac deaths in those with the condition.
Amiodarone is typically used in life-threatening situations to stop ventricular tachyarrhythmias. However, due to its unfavorable side effect profile, it is not recommended for long-term use, especially in younger patients who may require it for decades.
Understanding Brugada Syndrome
Brugada syndrome is a type of inherited cardiovascular disease that can lead to sudden cardiac death. It is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner and is more prevalent in Asians, with an estimated occurrence of 1 in 5,000-10,000 individuals. The condition has a variety of genetic variants, but around 20-40% of cases are caused by a mutation in the SCN5A gene, which encodes the myocardial sodium ion channel protein.
One of the key diagnostic features of Brugada syndrome is the presence of convex ST segment elevation greater than 2mm in more than one of the V1-V3 leads, followed by a negative T wave and partial right bundle branch block. These ECG changes may become more apparent after the administration of flecainide or ajmaline, which are the preferred diagnostic tests for suspected cases of Brugada syndrome.
The management of Brugada syndrome typically involves the implantation of a cardioverter-defibrillator to prevent sudden cardiac death. It is important for individuals with Brugada syndrome to receive regular medical monitoring and genetic counseling to manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain, sweating, and nausea. His ECG reveals ST elevation. Which phase of the cardiac action potential does this correspond to? The ST segment of the ECG represents a period of sluggish calcium influx in the cardiac action potential.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phase 2
Explanation:The ST segment in the ECG is caused by the slow influx of calcium during phase 2 of the cardiac action potential. Understanding the cardiac action potential is important for interpreting the electrical activity of the heart as reflected in the ECG waveform. The QRS complex represents rapid depolarisation, the ST segment represents the plateau phase, and the T wave represents repolarisation.
Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman presents to a respiratory clinic with worsening breathlessness and a recent diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension. The decision is made to initiate treatment with bosentan. Can you explain the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endothelin antagonist
Explanation:Bosentan, a non-selective endothelin antagonist, is used to treat pulmonary hypertension by blocking the vasoconstrictive effects of endothelin. However, it may cause liver function abnormalities, requiring regular monitoring. Endothelin agonists would worsen pulmonary vasoconstriction and are not suitable for treating pulmonary hypertension. Guanylate cyclase stimulators like riociguat work with nitric oxide to dilate blood vessels and treat pulmonary hypertension. Sildenafil, a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, selectively reduces pulmonary vascular tone to treat pulmonary hypertension.
Understanding Endothelin and Its Role in Various Diseases
Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by the vascular endothelium. Initially, it is produced as a prohormone and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme. Endothelin interacts with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C, leading to calcium release. This interaction is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases, including primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.
Endothelin is known to promote the release of angiotensin II, ADH, hypoxia, and mechanical shearing forces. On the other hand, it inhibits the release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin. Raised levels of endothelin are observed in primary pulmonary hypertension, myocardial infarction, heart failure, acute kidney injury, and asthma.
In recent years, endothelin antagonists have been used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension. Understanding the role of endothelin in various diseases can help in the development of new treatments and therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which section of the ECG indicates atrial depolarization?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: P wave
Explanation:The depolarization of the atria is represented by the P wave. It should be noted that the QRS complex makes it difficult to observe the repolarization of the atria.
Understanding the Normal ECG
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.
The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.
Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An individual who has been a lifelong smoker and is 68 years old arrives at the Emergency Department with a heart attack. During the explanation of his condition, a doctor mentions that the arteries supplying his heart have been narrowed and damaged. What substance is increased on endothelial cells after damage or oxidative stress, leading to the recruitment of monocytes to the vessel wall?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vascular cell adhesion molecule-1
Explanation:VCAM-1 is a protein expressed on endothelial cells in response to pro-atherosclerotic conditions. It binds to lymphocytes, monocytes, and eosinophils, causing adhesion to the endothelium. Its expression is upregulated by cytokines and is critical in the development of atherosclerosis.
Understanding Acute Coronary Syndrome
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe various acute presentations of ischaemic heart disease. It includes ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. ACS usually develops in patients with ischaemic heart disease, which is the gradual build-up of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries. This can lead to a gradual narrowing of the arteries, resulting in less blood and oxygen reaching the myocardium, causing angina. It can also lead to sudden plaque rupture, resulting in a complete occlusion of the artery and no blood or oxygen reaching the area of myocardium, causing a myocardial infarction.
There are many factors that can increase the chance of a patient developing ischaemic heart disease, including unmodifiable risk factors such as increasing age, male gender, and family history, and modifiable risk factors such as smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and obesity.
The classic and most common symptom of ACS is chest pain, which is typically central or left-sided and may radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms include dyspnoea, sweating, and nausea and vomiting. Patients presenting with ACS often have very few physical signs, and the two most important investigations when assessing a patient with chest pain are an electrocardiogram (ECG) and cardiac markers such as troponin.
Once a diagnosis of ACS has been made, treatment involves preventing worsening of the presentation, revascularising the vessel if occluded, and treating pain. For patients who’ve had a STEMI, the priority of management is to reopen the blocked vessel. For patients who’ve had an NSTEMI, a risk stratification tool is used to decide upon further management. Patients who’ve had an ACS require lifelong drug therapy to help reduce the risk of a further event, which includes aspirin, a second antiplatelet if appropriate, a beta-blocker, an ACE inhibitor, and a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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