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  • Question 1 - A patient in their 60s was diagnosed with disease of a heart valve...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s was diagnosed with disease of a heart valve located between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta. Which of the following is most likely to describe the cusps that comprise this heart valve?

      Your Answer: Anterior and septal cusps

      Correct Answer: Right, left and posterior cusps

      Explanation:

      Different Cusps of Heart Valves

      The heart has four valves that regulate blood flow through the chambers. Each valve is composed of cusps, which are flaps that open and close to allow blood to pass through. Here are the different cusps of each heart valve:

      Aortic Valve: The aortic valve is made up of a right, left, and posterior cusp. It is located at the junction between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta.

      Mitral Valve: The mitral valve is usually the only bicuspid valve and is composed of anterior and posterior cusps. It is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle.

      Tricuspid Valve: The tricuspid valve has three cusps – anterior, posterior, and septal. It is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

      Pulmonary Valve: The pulmonary valve is made up of right, left, and anterior cusps. It is located at the junction between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.

      Understanding the different cusps of heart valves is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner due to irregular and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner due to irregular and unpredictable menstrual cycle and headaches. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain shows a midline lesion. Further investigations reveal that her prolactin level is 2314 ng/ml (2–29 ng/ml). To reduce the prolactin level, which mediator is manipulated for medical treatment?

      Your Answer: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Targeting Hormones in Prolactinoma Treatment

      Prolactinoma is a pituitary lesion that results in excessive prolactin secretion. To reduce prolactin levels, dopamine agonists like bromocriptine are used. While there are other hormones that can affect prolactin secretion, they are not therapeutic targets in prolactinoma treatment. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) increases adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion, while gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) can indirectly decrease GnRH secretion. Somatostatin decreases thyroid-stimulating hormone and growth hormone secretion, but does not affect prolactin. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) increases prolactin and TSH release, but is not a therapeutic target due to its effects on thyroid regulation and the superiority of dopamine agonists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      57.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - After a weekend of hiking, a 50-year-old man finds that he is having...

    Incorrect

    • After a weekend of hiking, a 50-year-old man finds that he is having difficulty raising his right arm. The weakness is found to be of abduction of the right shoulder with particular difficulty initiating the movement. The movement at the shoulder that can be elicited is not particularly painful and there is no loss of cutaneous sensation.
      Which one of the following structures is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Correct Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      The suprascapular nerve arises from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus and provides motor innervation to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are involved in shoulder abduction and external rotation. It also supplies sensory innervation to the skin over the posterior aspect of the shoulder. Injury to this nerve often results from repetitive overhead lifting, and athletes involved in sports like tennis and volleyball are at particular risk. In the case of the patient described, the injury is likely due to repetitive compression of the nerve from his backpack while hiking. Damage to the axillary nerve would result in loss of motor and sensory function to the deltoid and teres minor muscles, while injury to the deltoid muscle would result in difficulty of shoulder abduction and pain. Damage to the subacromial bursa would not significantly impair shoulder function but would be painful. The infraspinatus muscle is not responsible for initiating shoulder abduction and a muscle lesion would likely be painful, making it an unlikely option for the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      57.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What would be advantageous...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What would be advantageous to prescribe for her along with hydrocortisone?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Medications for Addison’s Disease: What Works and What Doesn’t

      Addison’s disease is a condition where the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. Patients with this condition require replacement therapy with both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid medications. Fludrocortisone is a common mineralocorticoid replacement therapy used in Addison’s disease. However, medications such as aspirin, the combined oral contraceptive pill, and the progesterone only pill have no role in treating this condition. Additionally, dexamethasone is not used as a replacement therapy for Addison’s disease. It is important for patients with Addison’s disease to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate medications for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother, reporting pain...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother, reporting pain in his left hip. The mother mentions that he had a recent bout of the flu. Upon examination, the boy appears alert with a heart rate of 80 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min, temperature of 38.5ºC, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturations of 98% on room air. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer for same-day assessment

      Explanation:

      If a child is experiencing hip pain or a limp and also has a fever, it is crucial to refer them for immediate assessment, even if the suspected diagnosis is transient synovitis.

      Transient synovitis is often the cause of hip pain in children following a previous illness, such as the flu. However, discharging the patient with oral antibiotics is not recommended as this condition is typically managed conservatively. Antibiotics may only be necessary if there are signs of a septic joint.

      Similarly, discharging the patient with pain relief alone is not appropriate. Although a septic joint is unlikely, it cannot be ruled out without a formal assessment by orthopaedics.

      Reassuring the patient and discharging them without assessment is also not an option. Given the child’s current fever and recent illness history, it is essential to conduct a thorough evaluation before considering discharge.

      It is critical to refer a child with hip pain and a fever for same-day assessment to rule out the possibility of a septic joint. However, routine referral to orthopaedics is not necessary as this may cause unnecessary delays in urgent assessment.

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In the liver, what is the primary enzyme responsible for converting glucose to...

    Incorrect

    • In the liver, what is the primary enzyme responsible for converting glucose to glucose-6-phosphate during glycolysis?

      Your Answer: Phosphofructokinase

      Correct Answer: Glucokinase (hexokinase type IV)

      Explanation:

      Hexokinases and Glucokinase in Glycolysis

      Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is the first step in glycolysis, and is facilitated by hexokinases, a group of enzymes. Mammals have four types of hexokinases, with tissue-specific expression and characteristics. Hexokinases I-III are known as ‘low Km hexokinases’ due to their high affinity for glucose, even at low concentrations. This allows them to convert any available glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, which is then trapped inside the cell and available for energy production. These hexokinases are expressed in many tissues, especially those with high energy requirements like muscle.

      On the other hand, glucokinase has a higher Km, which allows the reaction rate to vary significantly within the physiological glucose range. This makes it a ‘glucose sensor’ with tissue-dependent expression, particularly in liver and pancreatic beta cells. Glucokinase plays a crucial role in regulating glucose homeostasis. In beta cells, it regulates glucose-stimulated insulin release, while in the liver, it regulates the balance of glycogen/glucose interconversion and glucose export.

      Mutations in glucokinase can lead to loss-of-function or gain-of-function effects. Loss-of-function mutations cause a form of MODY (type II) and result in persistent hyperglycemia. Gain-of-function mutations can cause hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycemia in children. Due to the latter effect, there is interest in developing glucokinase activators as a potential treatment for type 2 diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old female accountant presents to her local urgent care centre with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female accountant presents to her local urgent care centre with a 4 day history of right side thumb and wrist pain. She complains of pain down the dorsal aspect of her thumb towards the radial aspect of her wrist which occurs when she is at work and using her computer mouse for extended periods of time. She reports the pain is not present at rest.

      During examination, you are able to reproduce the pain when she abducts her thumb against resistance. The patient also reports pain when you palpate over her radial styloid process. There is no other sensory or motor deficits in the remainder of your examination. There does not appear to be any erythema or swelling that you note.

      What is the likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Superficial radial neuritis

      Correct Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis

      Explanation:

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the tendons surrounding the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus, resulting in pain on the radial side of the wrist and tenderness over the radial styloid process. This condition is often referred to as texter’s thumb due to its association with repetitive texting motions. Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel, resulting in tingling, weakness, and clumsiness in the thumb, forefinger, and middle finger. Carpal tunnel syndrome is typically worse at night and can be diagnosed through a positive Tinel’s sign. Carpal metacarpal osteoarthritis may cause pain at the base of the thumb that progresses over time and may be accompanied by Heberden’s nodes. Intercarpal instability, which involves a loss of alignment between the carpal bones or radioulnar joint, is an unlikely diagnosis in the absence of trauma and requires radiological evidence for diagnosis.

      De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.

      Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 22-year-old woman is discovered by her roommates in a confused, drowsy, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman is discovered by her roommates in a confused, drowsy, and sweaty state in her bedroom. She is unable to provide a clear medical history. Upon examination, she has a fever of 38.3°C, a heart rate of 110 bpm, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and appears to be short of breath with a respiratory rate of 30. There is no stiffness in her neck, and her chest sounds clear upon auscultation. An arterial blood gas test taken with 15 l/min oxygen shows a pH of 7.29 (7.35-7.45), Pa O2 of 37 kPa (11-14), PaCO2 of 2.1 kPa (4.5-6), and lactate of 2.4 mmol/L (0.1-2.5). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Severe asthma

      Correct Answer: Aspirin overdose

      Explanation:

      Signs of Aspirin Toxicity

      Aspirin toxicity can be identified through several symptoms such as fever, sweating, tachypnoea, and acidosis. These signs indicate that the body is experiencing an overdose of aspirin. The presence of confusion is a clear indication of severe overdose. On the other hand, hypoxia is expected in severe asthma and Legionella pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old woman has been referred to the hypertension clinic due to her...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has been referred to the hypertension clinic due to her two-year history of hypertension and current use of chlorthalidone. Her physician suspects that there may be an underlying secondary cause for her hypertension and wants to investigate further. During her clinic visit, she mentions recent illness with gastroenteritis. Blood tests taken today show a renin level of 120 pmol/l (normal range: 10-60) and an aldosterone level of 1215 pmol/l (normal range: 100-800). What is the most likely explanation for these results?

      Your Answer: Treatment with an ACE inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Hypovolaemia

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Renin and Aldosterone Levels

      Renin and aldosterone levels are important in diagnosing primary hyperaldosteronism, but they can be influenced by various factors. Hypervolaemia can cause a decrease in both renin and aldosterone levels, while hypovolaemia can lead to an increase in both. In primary hyperaldosteronism, renin levels decrease while aldosterone levels increase. The use of ACE inhibitors and ARBs can also affect renin and aldosterone levels, causing an increase in renin and a decrease in aldosterone.

      In cases where renin and aldosterone levels are abnormal, it is important to consider other factors that may be contributing to the results. For example, hypovolaemia can be caused by diuretic therapy or an intercurrent illness such as gastroenteritis. When hypovolaemia occurs, it stimulates the production of renin and activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), leading to an increase in aldosterone production. Aldosterone then acts to increase sodium and water retention by the kidneys, ultimately increasing intravascular volume.

      In summary, the various factors that can affect renin and aldosterone levels is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating conditions such as primary hyperaldosteronism. Repeat testing may be necessary in cases where other factors, such as hypovolaemia, may be influencing the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which tumour marker is most effective in detecting hepatocellular carcinoma? ...

    Correct

    • Which tumour marker is most effective in detecting hepatocellular carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Serum AFP

      Explanation:

      Liver Tumours: Types, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Liver tumours can be classified as primary or metastatic. Primary liver tumours are relatively rare, with cholangiocarcinoma and hepatocellular carcinoma being the most common types. Hepatocellular carcinoma accounts for 75% of primary liver tumours and is often associated with chronic inflammatory activity, such as cirrhosis or chronic hepatitis B infection. Diagnosis is typically made through imaging modalities like CT or MRI, with elevated levels of a-fetoprotein being a common marker. Biopsy should be avoided as it can spread tumour cells. Treatment options include surgical resection, liver resection, transplantation, and tumour ablation. However, the poor overall survival rate of 15% at 5 years highlights the need for better treatment options.

      Cholangiocarcinoma is the second most common type of primary liver malignancy, with up to 80% of tumours arising in the extrahepatic biliary tree. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a major risk factor, and patients typically present with jaundice. Diagnosis is made through liver function tests, imaging methods like CT or MRI, and elevated levels of tumour markers like CA 19-9, CEA, and CA 125. Surgical resection offers the best chance of cure, but local invasion of peri hilar tumours and lobar atrophy can often make it impossible. Palliation of jaundice is important, but metallic stents should be avoided in those considered for resection. The poor survival rate of approximately 5-10% 5 year survival highlights the need for better treatment options.

      In summary, liver tumours can be classified as primary or metastatic, with primary liver tumours being relatively rare. Hepatocellular carcinoma and cholangiocarcinoma are the most common types of primary liver tumours, with diagnosis typically made through imaging modalities and elevated tumour markers. Treatment options include surgical resection, liver resection, transplantation, and tumour ablation, but the poor overall survival rate highlights the need for better treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      5.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
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