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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with chronic left iliac fossa pain and alternating bowel habit is diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. She has been treated with a combination of antispasmodics, laxatives and anti-motility agents for 6 months but there has been no significant improvement in her symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step according to recent NICE guidelines?
Your Answer: Low-dose tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:NICE suggests that psychological interventions should be taken into account after a period of 12 months. Tricyclic antidepressants are recommended over selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 90-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of sleep difficulties. She reports difficulty falling asleep and waking up early in the morning, leading to fatigue. Her daughter mentions that she was seen in a COTE clinic 6 weeks ago for memory problems and started on a medication, but cannot recall the name. The patient has a medical history of COPD, restless legs syndrome (treated with pramipexole), and ischaemic heart disease. She was also treated for an infective COPD exacerbation with amoxicillin 3 weeks ago. Which medication is most likely causing her symptoms?
Your Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:Insomnia is a possible side effect of donepezil.
Management of Alzheimer’s Disease
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. There are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological management options available for patients with Alzheimer’s disease.
Non-pharmacological management involves offering activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy, group reminiscence therapy, and cognitive rehabilitation are some of the options that can be considered.
Pharmacological management options include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is a second-line treatment option that can be used for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.
When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.
It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. Proper management of Alzheimer’s disease can improve the quality of life for patients and their caregivers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You have a child who has developed occupational asthma due to exposure to mold in their school. To whom should occupational asthma be reported?
Your Answer: It should be reported to the Chief Medical Officer
Correct Answer: It should be reported under the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences regulations to the Health & Safety Executive
Explanation:Reporting and Compensation for Occupational Asthma
Patients who develop occupational asthma may be eligible for benefits through the Industrial Injuries Disablement Benefit. Additionally, if their employer failed to take necessary precautions to prevent harm, the patient may be entitled to make a civil claim for compensation for personal injury. It is important to report cases of occupational asthma to the appropriate authorities. RIDDOR regulations require that cases of occupational asthma be reported to the Health and Safety Executive (HSE), which can be done by the patient’s occupational health department if they were involved in the initial diagnosis. In cases of certain infectious diseases, the local authority should be notified. However, the Chief Medical Officer is not directly involved in the reporting of occupational asthma, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) is responsible for regulating medication and medical devices, not reporting cases of occupational asthma. By reporting cases of occupational asthma, appropriate action can be taken to prevent further harm and ensure that patients receive the necessary support and compensation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 4
Correct
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What are the primary indications for administering alpha blockers?
Your Answer: Hypertension + benign prostatic hyperplasia
Explanation:Understanding Alpha Blockers
Alpha blockers are medications that are commonly prescribed for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension. These drugs work by blocking the alpha-adrenergic receptors in the body, which can help to relax the smooth muscles in the prostate gland and blood vessels, leading to improved urine flow and lower blood pressure. Some examples of alpha blockers include doxazosin and tamsulosin.
While alpha blockers can be effective in managing these conditions, they can also cause side effects. Some of the most common side effects of alpha blockers include postural hypotension, drowsiness, dyspnea, and cough. Patients who are taking alpha blockers should be aware of these potential side effects and should speak with their healthcare provider if they experience any symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 14-month old infant presents with episodes of severe colic, associated with pallor and drawing of the legs upwards. This has been going on for several weeks.
The mother has brought the child to see you because she noticed that there seemed to be blood and mucous in the stool yesterday.
On examination there is a sausage-shaped mass palpable on the right side of the abdomen.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Constipation
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease
Explanation:Intussusception: A Common Cause of Intestinal Obstruction in Infants
Intussusception is a condition where a section of the bowel folds into itself, causing an obstruction. It is most commonly seen in infants over one month old, with the typical age of presentation being between two months to two years. The most common site of intussusception is the ileum passing into the caecum/colon through the ileocaecal valve.
Symptoms of intussusception include severe colic, pallor, and drawing of legs upwards during episodes of pain. A sausage-shaped mass may be palpable in the abdomen, and parents may notice the passage of a redcurrant jelly stool (blood-stained mucous). In severe cases, children may present with abdominal distention and shock.
The cause of intussusception is not always clear, but viral infections causing enlargement of Peyer’s patches have been implicated in forming a lead point for the development of intussusception. In children over the age of two, a specific lead point (such as a Meckel’s diverticulum or polyp) is more likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old man returns from a holiday in Spain. He is worried about the multiple white patches on his upper chest where he failed to get a proper suntan. Upon examination, these patches have well-defined scaly white skin and a significant lack of pigmentation compared to the tanned areas. What is the most suitable treatment option from the following list?
Your Answer: Clotrimazole cream
Explanation:Understanding and Treating Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur. It presents as patches of scaling skin that become depigmented compared to surrounding normal skin areas, particularly noticeable during the summer months. The lesions primarily involve the trunk but may spread to other areas. The condition is not contagious as the organism is commensal.
Treatment usually involves topical antifungals such as clotrimazole, terbinafine, or miconazole. Selenium sulphide, an anti-dandruff shampoo, can also be used. However, the condition may recur, and repeat treatments may be necessary. Oral agents such as itraconazole or fluconazole are only used if topical treatments fail.
Skin camouflage can be used to disguise lesions of vitiligo, which may be distressing for patients. The charity organization ‘Changing Faces’ provides this service. Hydrocortisone and fusidic acid are ineffective in treating pityriasis versicolor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old mother is worried about experiencing bilateral nipple pain for the past two weeks. She exclusively breastfeeds her 3-month-old daughter and has never had any issues before. The pain is most intense after feeds and can persist for up to 30 minutes. She reports severe pain and itching. During her visit to the clinic, she also requests that you examine her daughter's diaper rash. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Miconazole 2% cream for the mother and miconazole oral gel for her infant
Explanation:Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a painful rash on his lower back that has been bothering him for the past 7 days. He had visited the doctor 4 days ago and was prescribed aciclovir for shingles, but the pain persists despite taking paracetamol, ibuprofen, codeine, and amitriptyline. The pain is described as a severe burning sensation with a mild itch, which is affecting his daily functioning and sleep.
During the examination, the man's temperature is recorded at 37ºC. The rash is located on the left lower back and is characterized by closely grouped red papules and vesicles with surrounding erythema.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this man's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:If simple analgesia and neuropathic analgesia are not effective in treating refractory pain in shingles, corticosteroids such as prednisolone can be used, but only for acute shingles. This is according to the NICE CKS guideline, which recommends considering oral corticosteroids in the first 2 weeks following rash onset in immunocompetent adults with localized shingles if the pain is severe, but only in combination with antiviral treatment. In the case of a patient who has been on antiviral treatment for seven days and has tried several analgesics without relief, a course of prednisolone would be an appropriate treatment option. Chlorphenamine, an antihistamine medication, may help alleviate itching symptoms but is not the most appropriate treatment option for severe pain. Flucloxacillin, an antibiotic, is not necessary unless there is evidence of co-existing cellulitis. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, has no role in shingles management. Morphine, an opioid medication, may be considered if the pain doesn’t respond to corticosteroids.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A new mother brings her 14-day-old boy to see you and you carry out a clinical examination. She wants to know if there are any indications that her child may have an underlying condition.
What feature in this boy would be most suggestive of a high risk of a serious underlying problem?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unilateral Moro reflex
Explanation:Common Infant Characteristics and Abnormalities
The following are common characteristics and abnormalities that may be observed in infants:
Unilateral Moro Reflex: A response to something that startles the infant, such as a loud noise or a sudden loss of support. Absence may indicate a profound disorder of the motor system, while persistence beyond four or five months of age occurs in infants with severe neurological defects.
Scattered Red Marks with Papules and Pustules on the Face and Trunk: This is toxic erythema of the newborn, a common finding in neonates. It doesn’t cause the child discomfort and usually lasts several days.
Fall in Weight from Birth Weight: Most babies lose about 10% of their birth weight after birth, but they usually regain this weight after about two weeks.
Pink Moist Granuloma in the Umbilicus: An overgrowth of granulation tissue that occurs after the cord has fallen off. The discharge from an umbilical granuloma may irritate the surrounding skin.
Single Palmar Crease: About 5% of newborns have a single palmar crease on at least one hand, frequently inherited as a familial trait. It is sometimes associated with Down and other syndromes, although other signs would point to these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.
Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.
What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size
Explanation:Risk Factors for Melanoma
When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.
It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.
In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has a pigmented lesion on her leg.
Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of malignancy.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recent growth
Explanation:Identifying Suspicious Pigmented Lesions: Signs of Malignancy
When it comes to pigmented lesions, it’s important to approach new or growing ones with caution. While benign melanocytic naevi tend to remain stable over time, malignant lesions may exhibit signs of growth and other concerning features. These may include a size greater than 7mm, irregular pigmentation, asymmetry, and an irregular border or contour. While itching and bleeding may also be indicative of malignancy, they can also be caused by other factors such as trauma or seborrhoeic keratosis. To identify potential melanomas, healthcare professionals may use the Glasgow 7-point checklist or the ABCDE’s of melanoma. By remaining vigilant and aware of these warning signs, we can help ensure early detection and treatment of potentially dangerous pigmented lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after a recent bout of pneumonia. His asthma has been poorly managed in the weeks leading up to his illness and he expresses concern about his ability to return to full-time work in the near future. He mentions that his finances are tight and that friends have suggested he apply for Employment Support Allowance (ESA). He also mentions that he is hesitant to attend any Department of Work and Pensions (DWP) assessments and asks if you could provide a letter of support. What advice would you give him regarding ESA?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If contacted by a healthcare professional from the Centre for Health and Disability Assessments (CHDA), you will need to seek consent from the patient before discussing further
Explanation:Benefits System – A Guide for GPs
ESA, or Employment and Support Allowance, is a financial support system for individuals who are unable to work due to illness or disability. It also provides personalized assistance for those who are able to work. Eligibility for ESA is determined through an assessment process, which can range from 3 months to 3 years. Claimants with severe conditions may not be called for reassessment. During the assessment phase, claimants are paid the same amount as Jobseeker’s Allowance. Medical evidence and completion of the ESA50 self-assessment form are required. If necessary, a Work Capability Assessment will be conducted by a healthcare professional. Fit notes are required until a decision is made. The ESA65B letter is used to inform claimants of the decision. GPs may be contacted for additional information, and may occasionally be asked to contribute to the ESA50 form. For individuals claiming solely due to cancer, only a portion of the ESA50 form needs to be completed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with lethargy, abdominal bloating and loose stools. He has lost 5 kg in weight over the last six months. Examination confirms a thin teenager with obvious pallor.
What is the most appropriate test to investigate possible malabsorption?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs)
Explanation:Understanding Coeliac Disease Testing: Differentiating Between IgA tTGAs, IgA Gliadin Antibodies, IgA EMAs, HLA Genetic Testing, and IgG tTGAs
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. While small-bowel biopsy is the most reliable way to diagnose coeliac disease, IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs) are the preferred initial investigation. This test is highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease, but should not be performed on children younger than two years as it may give a false negative result.
It is important to note that around 0.4% of the population has selective IgA deficiency, which can lead to a false-negative result. In such cases, the laboratory should measure IgA levels. Some laboratories may do this routinely when measuring tTGAs.
IgA gliadin antibodies are not commonly used to diagnose coeliac disease. Instead, IgA EMAs are autoantibodies against tissue transglutaminase type 2 (tTGA2) and are highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease. However, IgA EMAs should be measured if IgA tTG is only weakly positive.
HLA genetic testing is not recommended for diagnosing coeliac disease in primary care. Coeliac disease is strongly associated with the genes HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8, but testing for these genes is not necessary for diagnosis.
Finally, IgG tTGAs should only be considered in people who are IgA deficient to avoid the risk of a false-negative IgA tTGA result.
In summary, understanding the differences between these tests is crucial in accurately diagnosing coeliac disease and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You diagnose a left-sided sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) in a normally fit and well 36-year-old woman who has come to see you in your GP clinic. She developed her symptoms over a few hours yesterday and now can not hear at all through her left ear. Her examination shows no obvious external or middle ear causes.
What is your next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer her for assessment within 24 hours by an ENT specialist
Explanation:Immediate referral to an ENT specialist or emergency department is necessary for individuals experiencing acute sensorineural hearing loss. This is considered an emergency and requires urgent audiology assessment and a brain MRI. According to NICE CKS guidelines, individuals with sudden onset hearing loss (unilateral or bilateral) within the past 30 days, without any external or middle ear causes, should be referred within 24 hours. Additionally, those with unilateral hearing loss accompanied by focal neurology, head or neck injury, or severe infections such as necrotising otitis externa or Ramsay Hunt syndrome should also be referred urgently. Referral to a specialist other than ENT or non-urgent referral options are incorrect.
When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old mother of three sons brings her 18-month-old youngest son to the clinic concerned about his development.
Which of the following should he be able to perform by this age?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can walk unaided
Explanation:Childhood Development Milestones
At around 16 months, a child should be able to walk without assistance, with the average age for achieving this milestone being 12 months. Additionally, they should be able to assist with dressing themselves at this age. However, building a tower of four cubes and scribbling with a pencil are not expected until around two years old. By this age, the child should also understand the meaning of no and be able to appropriately state mama and dada. These are important developmental milestones to keep in mind as a child grows and develops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with hypertension and has a history of chronic heart failure due to alcoholic cardiomyopathy (NYHA class I). Which medication should be avoided due to contraindication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure
Patients with heart failure need to be cautious when taking certain medications as they may exacerbate their condition. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil should also be avoided due to its negative inotropic effect. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids should be used with caution as they can also cause fluid retention. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, should also be avoided as they have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and their potential effects on patients with heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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As the school day is ending, you receive a call from the principal's office. One of the students who was leaving the building has suddenly become sick and vomited in the hallway. What is a crucial step in cleaning the affected area?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wash the affected surface clean with detergent before disinfecting
Explanation:Dealing with a Chlorine Spill in a Medical Facility
When a chlorine spill occurs in a medical facility, it is crucial to take immediate action to prevent harm to staff and patients. The first step is to erect a barrier and put up signage to alert others to the problem. Even if the surgery is closed, other staff members may be in the building, and they need to be aware of the danger.
Chlorine-releasing disinfectant is suitable for use in cleaning up the spill. Any residue should be scraped into closable containers before being washed clean with detergent and then disinfected. It is important to use closable containers and bags labeled ‘clinical waste’ to bag up any contaminated material that needs laundry or disposal.
Reusable work equipment can be disinfected or sterilized to prevent further contamination. By following these steps, medical facilities can effectively deal with a chlorine spill and ensure the safety of everyone in the building.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of leg pain while walking. Upon examination, his feet appear cool and dusky, with the right foot being more affected than the left. An ankle brachial pressure index is measured at 0.8 on the right and 0.9 on the left. Both femoral pulses are present, but posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses are absent in both legs. His blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg.
Which of the following medications is LEAST likely to provide relief for his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:Treatment options for Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)
Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD) is a condition that causes intermittent claudication. Antiplatelet therapy is recommended for those with symptomatic disease to reduce major cardiovascular events. Clopidogrel is suggested as the drug of first choice by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors have been shown to reduce cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in patients with PAD. However, they should be carefully monitored as more than 25% of patients have co-existent renal artery stenosis. Statins are also recommended as they reduce the risk of mortality, cardiovascular events and stroke in patients with PAD. Naftidrofuryl oxalate is an option for the treatment of intermittent claudication in people with PAD for whom vasodilator therapy is considered appropriate. Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is least commonly linked to ecstasy overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypernatraemia
Explanation:Water intoxication can lead to the development of hyponatraemia.
Understanding Ecstasy Poisoning
Ecstasy, also known as MDMA or 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine, gained popularity in the 1990s with the rise of dance music culture. However, its use can lead to poisoning with various clinical features. Neurological symptoms such as agitation, anxiety, confusion, and ataxia are common, as well as cardiovascular symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension. Hyponatremia, hyperthermia, and rhabdomyolysis are also possible.
When it comes to managing ecstasy poisoning, supportive measures are typically used. However, if simple measures fail, dantrolene may be administered to address hyperthermia. It’s important to understand the risks associated with ecstasy use and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of poisoning arise. By being aware of the potential dangers, individuals can make informed decisions about their drug use and take steps to protect their health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 20
Incorrect
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John is a 50-year-old man who has Crohn's disease and you have arranged for a routine DEXA scan. The DEXA results are as follows:
Spine (L2-4) T: -2.6 Z: -1.7
Left femur T: -1.5 Z: -0.9
Right femur T: -2.3 Z: -1.5
What is your interpretation of these results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The results of the DEXA scan show that the spine has osteoporosis with a T-score below -2.5, while the left and right femur have osteopenia with T-scores between -1 and -2.5. It is important to note that osteoporosis is diagnosed when the T-score is below -2.5, while osteopenia is diagnosed when the T-score is between -1 and -2.5. The z score takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, but the T score is used to determine the presence of osteoporosis and osteopenia.
Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis
When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female patient is being treated by the paediatric team for obesity and has also been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. The team has decided to include orlistat in her management plan for weight loss, which the patient has agreed to. The dietician has suggested some dietary supplements. What specific nutrients should be monitored to prevent deficiencies in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamins A, D, E and K
Explanation:In rare cases, Orlistat may be prescribed to children who have co-existing medical conditions such as type 2 diabetes, but only under the supervision of a specialist pediatric team and not in primary care. Orlistat works by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipase, which reduces fat absorption from the gut. To avoid unpleasant side effects, patients must adhere to a low-fat diet. Deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K is a significant concern, and all nutrients, including calcium for bone health, should be considered.
Understanding Obesity in Children
Childhood obesity is a complex issue that requires careful assessment. Unlike adults, defining obesity in children is challenging as body mass index (BMI) varies with age. To make an accurate assessment, BMI percentile charts are needed. According to recent NICE guidelines, the ‘UK 1990 BMI charts’ should be used to provide age- and gender-specific information.
NICE recommends tailored clinical intervention if BMI is at the 91st centile or above. If BMI is at the 98th centile or above, assessing for comorbidities is necessary. Lifestyle factors are the most common cause of obesity in childhood. However, other associations of obesity in children include being Asian, female, and taller than average.
There are several medical conditions that can cause obesity in children, such as growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, Down’s syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Obesity in children can lead to various consequences, including orthopaedic problems, psychological consequences, sleep apnoea, benign intracranial hypertension, and long-term consequences such as an increased incidence of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and ischaemic heart disease.
In conclusion, understanding obesity in children requires careful assessment and consideration of various factors. Early intervention and management can prevent long-term consequences and improve the overall health and well-being of children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with progressively worsening shortness of breath and a daily morning cough productive of off-white phlegm. He feels intermittently wheezy. He has smoked 20 cigarettes a day and has done so since the age of 20.
A chest x ray shows hyperinflated lung fields and spirometry demonstrates an obstructive picture with a forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) of 50% of predicted. He takes no regular medication and has no other known medical problems.
His mother also had chest problems and died after she developed liver failure. Looking at some recent blood tests you can see he has abnormalities of his liver function.
Which of the following blood investigations is most likely to yield useful diagnostic information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor
Explanation:Consideration of Alpha 1-Antitrypsin Deficiency in a Young Smoker with COPD
This patient’s young age, symptoms, chest x-ray findings, and spirometry results suggest the possibility of alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic condition that can cause pulmonary disease and liver disease. As a smoker, this patient is at increased risk for COPD, but the early onset of the disease raises suspicion for an underlying genetic cause. Additionally, the family history supports the consideration of alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
To confirm the diagnosis, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin levels would be the most appropriate blood investigation. Other blood tests, such as ACE levels for sarcoidosis, copper and ceruloplasmin levels for Wilson’s disease, ferritin levels for hemochromatosis, and rheumatoid factor for rheumatoid arthritis, are not likely to be helpful in this case.
It is important to consider alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency in young patients with COPD, especially those with a family history of the condition. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further lung and liver damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is concerned about the possibility of having contracted a sexually transmitted infection after having sex with a new partner while on vacation with friends. He is not experiencing any symptoms but is anxious about the potential risk. You suggest that he visit the local sexual health clinic for specialized screening, but he is hesitant due to concerns about being recognized by someone he knows. As an alternative, you discuss the various tests that can be conducted in your general practice. You inform him that while you can collect some initial samples now, he will need to return for additional testing at a later time as it is still too early to detect any new infections.
What is the appropriate timing for submitting a sample for Chlamydia screening for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:When to Get Tested for Chlamydia
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that often doesn’t show any symptoms. Therefore, it is important to get tested regularly if you are sexually active. The recommended time to get tested for chlamydia is at presentation and then again two weeks after a possible exposure. This is because it can take up to two weeks for the infection to show up on a test. If symptoms do develop, testing should be done immediately. It is also recommended to get tested again at six weeks and three months after a possible exposure to ensure that the infection has been fully treated. Remember, early detection and treatment of chlamydia is crucial for preventing long-term health complications.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Mrs Rogers is an 83-year-old lady with a history of mild cognitive impairment, hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. She requires carers twice daily to assist with activities of daily living.
Recently, her daughter noticed that Mrs Rogers had become jaundiced and took her to see her GP for investigation. Unfortunately, radiological imaging revealed a probable cholangiocarcinoma with multiple liver metastases. The upper gastrointestinal MDT determined that Mrs Rogers should receive best supportive care and she was referred to her local community palliative care team.
According to the Gold Standards Framework Proactive Identification Guidance, the 'Surprise Question' can be used to identify patients who may be approaching the end of life. Therefore, the question would be: Would you be surprised if Mrs Rogers were to pass away in the next few months?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You would not be surprised if the patient was in the last year of life
Explanation:The Surprise Question in End-of-Life Care
The Surprise Question is a crucial element in the Gold Standards Framework, a guidance that aims to identify patients who are nearing the end of their lives. The question is simple: Would you be surprised if the patient were to die in the next year, months, weeks, days? The answer is based on intuition, and if the response is no, it indicates that the patient may require end-of-life care.
Once the Surprise Question is answered, healthcare professionals can begin assessing the patient’s needs and wishes through advance care planning discussions. This process allows for care to be tailored to the patient’s choices, ensuring that they receive the best possible care during their final days. The Surprise Question is an essential tool in end-of-life care, helping healthcare professionals to identify patients who require specialized care and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant visits her doctor and asks if there are any medical conditions in her history that would prevent her from breastfeeding.
What maternal condition would make breastfeeding not recommended?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection
Explanation:Breastfeeding and Maternal Health: Considerations and Recommendations
Breastfeeding is a crucial aspect of maternal and infant health, providing numerous benefits for both parties. However, certain health conditions may impact the safety and efficacy of breastfeeding. Here are some considerations and recommendations for breastfeeding mothers:
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection: HIV can be transmitted through breast milk, so it is recommended that HIV-positive mothers exclusively formula-feed their infants from birth.
Hepatitis B: The benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of infection for infants born to mothers with hepatitis B. Infants should receive hepatitis B-specific immunoglobulin and be vaccinated from birth.
Hepatitis C: Breastfeeding is safe for infants born to mothers with hepatitis C, as there is no evidence of mother-to-infant transmission. However, if the mother’s nipples are cracked and bleeding, it is recommended to abstain from breastfeeding until they are healed.
Mastitis: Mastitis is a common condition that causes breast pain, swelling, and redness. It is usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus entering through a cracked nipple. Antibiotics may be necessary, but it is recommended to continue breastfeeding or pumping to improve milk flow.
Vitamin D deficiency: Vitamin D deficiency is prevalent in the UK, and breastfeeding mothers and infants are at risk of developing rickets. It is recommended that both take a daily supplement of vitamin D to prevent this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man known to have diffuse ulcerative colitis for which he takes mesalazine 1.5g daily has an exacerbation. He is passing up to 10 loose stools per day with blood. He is feeling unwell, appears mildly dehydrated and anaemic.
Select from the list the single most appropriate initial management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:Treatment Options for Inflammatory Bowel Disease Exacerbations
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) can cause severe exacerbations that require hospitalization for fluid and electrolyte replacement, transfusion, and possibly intravenous corticosteroids. However, for less severe exacerbations of diffuse disease, there are other treatment options available.
One option is to increase the dose of mesalazine, which is an anti-inflammatory medication commonly used to treat IBD. Another option is to take oral prednisolone, which is a steroid medication that can help reduce inflammation in the gut.
For those with proctitis or distal disease, prednisolone enemas may be used as a treatment option. These enemas are administered directly into the rectum and can help reduce inflammation in the lower part of the colon.
Overall, the treatment options for IBD exacerbations depend on the severity and location of the disease. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The practice pediatrician has seen several adolescents with orthopaedic abnormalities and is uncertain about their management. You have been tasked with creating a tutorial on the subject. Which of these adolescent orthopaedic abnormalities is MOST LIKELY to require active intervention? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scoliosis in an 8-year-old girl
Explanation:Common Pediatric Orthopedic Conditions and Their Management
Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine that can occur in children at different ages. Infantile scoliosis is more common in boys and may resolve spontaneously or progress to severe deformity. Juvenile and adolescent scoliosis are more common in girls and often require surgical intervention.
In toeing is a condition where the feet point inward when a child walks. It is most commonly due to internal tibial torsion in children under 2 years old, which usually resolves on its own. Over 2 years old, internal femoral torsion is the most common cause and can be treated by correcting abnormal sitting positions.
Bow legs, or genu varum, occur when the legs curve outward at the knee. This is usually caused by a tight posterior hip capsule and typically resolves by age 2. In severe cases, night splints or an osteotomy may be necessary. Rickets should be ruled out as a possible cause.
Flexible flat feet, or hypermobile pes planus, are common in young children and usually resolve by age 6. If the child experiences pain, difficulty walking, or trouble with shoes, ankle-stretch exercises and foot orthoses may be necessary.
Knock knees, or genu valgum, occur when the legs curve inward so that the knees touch but the feet are apart. This condition is usually benign and resolves by age 5-8. Surgery may be necessary if it persists beyond age 10.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her 5-year-old son and shows you a picture of some concerning lesions on his body. She is worried about whether he should stay home from school. Upon examination, you diagnose him with molluscum contagiosum. What advice would you give her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No school exclusion is required
Explanation:Molluscum contagiosum doesn’t require school exclusion or antiviral treatment as it is a self-limiting condition. Unlike Chickenpox, the lesions do not crust over. Antibiotics are not effective against this viral infection. It may take several months for the lesions to disappear, making unnecessary and impractical to consider other options.
Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly found in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, the lesions are commonly found on the trunk and flexures, while in adults, they can appear on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.
While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be necessary to alleviate itching or if the lesions are considered unsightly. Treatment options include simple trauma or cryotherapy, depending on the age of the child and the parents’ wishes. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.
Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent the spread of the infection and alleviate symptoms if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are called to a nursing home to see a 85-year-old lady who has become acutely confused.
She has a past medical history of hypertension and hypothyroidism. These are well controlled on bendroflumethazide 2.5 mg OD and thyroxine 100 mcg OD.
On arrival she is disoriented to time and place; and the nursing staff report that earlier she seemed to be hallucinating. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.1°C, pulse rate of 92 regular and a blood pressure of 108/88 mmHg. Blood sugar is 4.6.
What is the next most appropriate acute action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Think sepsis and check symptoms and signs using a local or national tool
Explanation:Management of Acute Confusional State in Elderly Patients
This patient is presenting with an acute confusional state and pyrexia, which is most likely caused by an underlying infection. An anxiolytic is not the appropriate treatment as it doesn’t address the underlying cause. Additionally, oral glucose is not necessary as the patient’s blood sugar is within the normal range. While a cerebrovascular accident should be considered in any elderly patient who is confused, this patient doesn’t exhibit any focal neurological signs and the clinical picture is more consistent with an infective cause. Therefore, administering aspirin is not recommended.
For elderly patients over 65 years old, a urine dipstick test should not be performed. Instead, healthcare providers should use the PINCH ME method to exclude other causes of delirium. In cases of an acutely confused, pyrexial, elderly patient, sepsis should be considered and managed accordingly.
When it comes to urinary tract infections, antibiotics should only be prescribed when appropriate. Factors such as the severity of symptoms, the presence of complicating factors, and the likelihood of bacterial infection should be taken into account before prescribing antibiotics. Overuse of antibiotics can lead to antibiotic resistance, so it is important to use them judiciously.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A woman who is 28-weeks pregnant presents with a productive cough. Crackles are heard in the right base during examination and an antibiotic is deemed necessary. Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:The BNF recommends against the use of quinolones during pregnancy due to the risk of arthropathy observed in animal studies. While there have been reports of a potential increase in the risk of necrotizing enterocolitis with the use of co-amoxiclav during pregnancy, the evidence is not conclusive. The BNF states that co-amoxiclav is currently considered safe for use during pregnancy, and provides links to both the BNF and the UK teratology information service for further information.
Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients
When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.
In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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