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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman presents to dermatology after being referred by her physician for...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to dermatology after being referred by her physician for lesions on both shins. Upon examination, symmetrical erythematous lesions with an orange peel texture are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pretibial myxoedema

      Explanation:

      Pretibial myxoedema is a condition characterized by orange peel-like lesions on the skin of the shins, often associated with Grave’s disease.

      Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features

      Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

      Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.

      Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

      Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

      Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a skin condition that...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a skin condition that has been slowly progressing over the years. She has had dry patches of skin that eventually turned into plaques, which have been treated as psoriasis. However, the lesions have continued to worsen and now have nodules. Some of these nodules have become painful and have discharged fluid. A biopsy is taken to further assess the lesions, and the pathology report shows lymphocytic and atypical T-cell infiltrates in the dermis and epidermis, with some Pautrier microabscesses. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pityriasis lichenoides

      Correct Answer: Mycosis fungoides

      Explanation:

      Mycosis fungoides, a severe form of T-cell lymphoma that mimics eczema or psoriasis, is a rare but concerning skin condition. The patient’s atypical medical history, previous diagnostic uncertainty, and laboratory results suggest that they may have cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. Biopsy results showing Pautrier microabscesses are a common feature of mycosis fungoides. Harlequin ichthyosis is a genetic disorder that manifests from birth, making it an unlikely diagnosis. Although syphilis can cause various skin symptoms, the biopsy findings do not support this diagnosis. Discoid eczema, also known as nummular dermatitis, has a different clinical course than the patient’s condition, and the biopsy results do not indicate it.

      Understanding Mycosis Fungoides

      Mycosis fungoides is a rare type of T-cell lymphoma that primarily affects the skin. It is characterized by the presence of itchy, red patches that may appear in different colors, unlike eczema or psoriasis where the lesions are more uniform in color. These patches may progress to form plaques, which can be seen in the later stages of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A 72-year-old male presents to his primary care clinic with a 3-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents to his primary care clinic with a 3-day history of burning pain and rash on the right side of his chest. He also complains of feeling generally unwell. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.

      During the physical examination, an erythematous rash with multiple clear vesicles is observed on the right side of the torso. The remainder of the clinical examination, including an ophthalmic examination, is unremarkable.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prescribe intravenous aciclovir

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral famciclovir

      Explanation:

      Patients suspected of having shingles should receive antiviral treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset, according to NICE guidelines. Shingles is diagnosed based on the presence of dermatomal pain and a papular rash, with pain often persisting after the rash has resolved. The recommended first-line oral antivirals are famciclovir or valacyclovir, to be taken for 7 days. Aciclovir is a second-line option, as studies have shown that famciclovir and valacyclovir are more effective in reducing the risk of postherpetic pain. Prescribing calamine lotion and analgesia, as well as monitoring the patient, is not sufficient and does not replace antiviral treatment. Intravenous antivirals are only necessary if the patient cannot tolerate oral medication, and famciclovir cannot be administered intravenously.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father, who...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father, who is concerned about a red rash on her arms and chest. She has been feeling sick, with cold-like symptoms preceding the rash. The rash is erythematous, macular and symmetrical to both arms and chest and is non-blanching. She is currently without fever and appears to be in good health.
      What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Different Skin Conditions: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura, eczema, intertrigo, meningococcal disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all skin conditions that can present with various rashes and symptoms. It is important for healthcare professionals to be able to distinguish between these conditions in order to provide appropriate treatment.

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura is an autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that presents with a non-blanching rash, joint and abdominal pain, and nephritis. Eczema is characterized by areas of erythema that are blanching, dry skin with fine scales, and excoriations. Intertrigo primarily affects the flexures with erythematous patches that may progress to intense inflammation. Meningococcal disease presents with a non-blanching rash that rapidly progresses to purpura and requires immediate treatment. Systemic lupus erythematosus is rare in children and presents with a malar or butterfly rash on the face, joint pain, fever, or weight loss.

      By understanding the unique features of each condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 76-year-old man, who lives alone, presents to his General Practitioner with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man, who lives alone, presents to his General Practitioner with an extensive itchy, red rash over the trunk, arms and legs, which has been worsening over the preceding three days. He has a past medical history of psoriasis, hypertension and high cholesterol.
      On examination, he has an extensive erythematous rash covering much of his body, with evidence of scaling. He has a normal temperature, a blood pressure (BP) of 110/88 mmHg and a pulse of 101 beats per minute.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Topical steroid with vitamin D analogue

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Management of Erythroderma in an Elderly Patient Living Alone

      Erythroderma is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent treatment. In elderly patients who are frail and live alone, hospital admission is necessary. This is the case for an 86-year-old man with a history of psoriasis who presents with erythroderma. Topical emollients and steroids are key in management, but this patient requires intravenous fluids and close monitoring for infection and dehydration. Oral antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of infection. A topical steroid with a vitamin D analogue may be appropriate for psoriasis, but urgent assessment by Dermatology in an inpatient setting is necessary. An outpatient appointment is not appropriate for this patient due to his age and living situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man comes in to discuss the results of laboratory tests for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes in to discuss the results of laboratory tests for nail clippings taken 8 weeks ago. He had previously presented with thickening and discoloration of all the nails on his right foot. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. He is currently in good health and taking metformin, simvastatin, and ramipril. The lab report confirms the presence of onychomycosis. What treatment options should be offered to him?

      Your Answer: Oral fluconazole

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      Oral terbinafine is recommended for treating dermatophyte nail infections.

      Understanding Fungal Nail Infections

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte moulds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of fungal nail infections is unsightly nails, which can be thickened, rough, and opaque. Other conditions, such as psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome, can mimic fungal nail infections. To confirm a diagnosis, nail clippings and scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. However, if a dermatophyte or Candida infection is confirmed, treatment is necessary. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive dermatophyte infections. Candida infections are best treated with oral itraconazole using a pulsed weekly therapy approach. It is important to note that cultures have a false-negative rate of around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old female comes in for a follow-up. Three days ago she visited...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female comes in for a follow-up. Three days ago she visited her physician with complaints of a severe sore throat, fatigue, and headache. The doctor prescribed amoxicillin to treat an upper respiratory tract infection. However, two days ago she developed a pruritic maculopapular rash that has spread throughout her body. Additionally, her initial symptoms have not improved. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Beta-lactamase producing streptococcal sore throat

      Correct Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Patients with infectious mononucleosis should not be prescribed amoxicillin. Instead, supportive treatment is recommended for their care.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old patient with a history of psoriasis complains of redness in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient with a history of psoriasis complains of redness in the groin and genital region, as well as in the axilla. The patient has previously mentioned a distaste for creams that are messy or difficult to use. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Topical clotrimazole

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid

      Explanation:

      Topical steroids are effective in treating flexural psoriasis in this patient.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant complains of worsening acne that...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant complains of worsening acne that is causing her distress. Despite using topical benzyl peroxide, she has noticed limited improvement. During examination, non-inflammatory lesions and pustules are observed on her face. What would be the most suitable next course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral erythromycin

      Explanation:

      If treatment for acne is required during pregnancy, oral erythromycin is a suitable option, as the other medications are not recommended.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.

      The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

      Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 58-year-old woman develops a red and hot right shin. She is afebrile...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman develops a red and hot right shin. She is afebrile and otherwise well. She has no known allergies. Her Wells' score is -2.
      Which of the following would be the best option?
      Select the SINGLE best option from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Request a Doppler ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cellulitis and the Use of Doppler Ultrasound for DVT Diagnosis

      Cellulitis is a common bacterial skin infection that can be treated with oral flucloxacillin, according to UK antimicrobial guidelines. Hospital admission for cellulitis treatment is only necessary for febrile and ill patients or those with comorbidities. Oral co-amoxiclav is recommended for facial cellulitis, but not for cellulitis in other locations. Oral vancomycin is used for Clostridium difficile infection, not cellulitis.

      A Doppler ultrasound scan can be useful in diagnosing deep venous thrombosis (DVT), but it is unlikely to be necessary for a patient with cellulitis who is otherwise well and has a low Wells’ score. The Wells’ score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of DVT based on clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      80.1
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Dermatology (3/10) 30%
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