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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man is admitted for an elective total knee replacement (TKR).

    His...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is admitted for an elective total knee replacement (TKR).

      His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), which is well controlled with metformin 500mg BD and gliclazide 80 mg OD.

      The surgery is scheduled for the morning, but he is not placed on a variable rate insulin infusion (VRII).

      What adjustments should be made to his antidiabetic medication regimen on the day of surgery?

      Your Answer: Both doses of metformin should be omitted

      Correct Answer: Only the morning dose of gliclazide should be omitted

      Explanation:

      On the day of surgery, it is recommended to omit the morning dose of gliclazide for patients taking sulfonylureas. However, if the patient takes BD, they can have the afternoon dose. Metformin should be taken as usual on the day before and on the day of elective surgery, except for lunchtime dose if taken three times a day.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency department with altered consciousness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency department with altered consciousness and abdominal pain after being intoxicated a few hours prior. He has a history of alcohol and overdose admissions.

      On examination:
      A - Airway is clear.
      B - Respiratory rate is 34 breaths per minute with deep labored inspiration. Oxygen saturation is 100%.
      C - Heart rate is 124 beats per minute, blood pressure is 95/62 mmHg, and capillary refill is 4 seconds. Mucous membranes are dry.
      D - Glasgow Coma Scale score is 10.

      Lab results show a pH of 7.18 (normal range: 7.35-7.45), pCO2 of 4.3kPa (normal range: 4.5-6.0kPa), bicarbonate of 14 mmol/L (normal range: 22-28 mmol/L), glucose of 22.3mmol/L, and ketones of 4.5mmol/L.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol overdose

      Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

      Explanation:

      Abdominal pain can be an initial symptom of DKA, which stands for diabetic ketoacidosis. In this particular case, a young man is showing signs of DKA, such as dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and a significantly elevated capillary glucose level. DKA patients lose around 5-8 liters of fluids, which require immediate correction. The diagnostic criteria for DKA include a pH level of less than 7.3 and/or bicarbonate level of less than 15mmol/L, blood glucose level of over 11mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and ketonaemia level of over 3mmol/L or significant ketonuria ++ on urine dipstick. Alcoholic ketoacidosis is not the correct diagnosis as it usually presents with low or normal glucose levels and occurs due to starvation. Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state is also incorrect as it typically presents with marked hyperglycemia without ketoacidosis. Opioid overdose is not the correct diagnosis either as it usually presents with respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, and a lowered GCS, while this patient has a raised respiratory rate and abnormal respirations consistent with Kussmaul respirations.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of proximal muscle weakness. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with a 4-week history of proximal muscle weakness. She has a significant history of alcohol and smoking. Her blood tests reveal macrocytosis, abnormal liver function tests, elevated TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) and normal free thyroxine (fT4) levels.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms & blood results?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Correct Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with alcohol excess, elevated liver function tests, macrocytosis, and compensated hypothyroidism

      Chronic excess alcohol consumption can lead to a variety of health problems, including liver disease, neurological damage, and endocrine dysfunction. In this case, the patient presents with elevated liver function tests and macrocytosis, which are consistent with alcohol excess. The thyroid function tests show compensated hypothyroidism, which can also be caused by alcohol-related liver damage. However, the proximal myopathy is not typical of hypothyroidism, which usually causes muscle weakness in a more diffuse pattern. Cushing’s syndrome, pernicious anaemia, and thyrotoxicosis are less likely diagnoses based on the absence of specific clinical features and laboratory findings. Therefore, the most likely explanation for this patient’s presentation is alcohol excess, which may require further evaluation and management to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman has Addison’s disease.
    Which of the following medications is she likely...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has Addison’s disease.
      Which of the following medications is she likely to be taking long term?

      Your Answer: Hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Common Medications for Adrenal Disorders

      Adrenal disorders such as Addison’s disease and Cushing’s syndrome require specific medications for treatment. Here are some commonly used drugs and their indications:

      Hydrocortisone and Fludrocortisone: These are the mainstays of treatment for Addison’s disease, as they replace the deficient glucocorticosteroids and mineralocorticoids.

      Phenoxybenzamine: This medication is used to treat phaeochromocytoma before surgery.

      Metyrapone: It can be used to diagnose or treat Cushing’s syndrome by reducing the amount of aldosterone and cortisol in the body.

      Prednisolone and Levothyroxine: Prednisolone can be used instead of hydrocortisone in Addison’s disease to avoid peaks and troughs. However, levothyroxine is not used to treat Addison’s disease, but it’s important to check for concurrent thyroid disease.

      Spironolactone: It’s used to treat Conn’s disease, which causes hyperaldosteronism. It’s not appropriate for Addison’s disease treatment, as both can cause hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old man with known type 2 diabetes presents with a 1-week history...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with known type 2 diabetes presents with a 1-week history of polydipsia, feeling generally unwell and drowsy. On examination, he looks very dehydrated and is difficult to rouse. He appears confused when he does talk to you.

      Admission bloods show:
      Na+ 149 mmol/l
      K+ 5.2 mmol/l
      Urea 22.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 254 µmol/l
      His blood glucose is 36 mmol/L.

      What is the most important initial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Rehydrate with 0.9% Saline

      Explanation:

      Complications of the hyperosmolar state, such as rhabdomyolysis, venous thromboembolism, lactic acidosis, hypertriglyceridemia, renal failure, stroke, and cerebral edema, contribute to the mortality of HONK. Identifying precipitants, such as a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, infection, high-dose steroids, myocardial infarction, vomiting, stroke, thromboembolism, and poor treatment compliance, is crucial.

      Supportive care and slow metabolic resolution are the mainstays of HONK management. Patients with HONK often have a fluid deficit of over 8 liters, and caution should be exercised to avoid rapid fluid replacement, which can cause cerebral edema due to rapid osmolar shifts. In this scenario, fluid resuscitation should be the top priority, followed closely by initiating a sliding scale. Some experts recommend waiting for an hour before starting insulin to prevent rapid changes and pontine myelinolysis. However, the fluid alone can lower blood sugar levels, and some argue that administering insulin immediately can cause a precipitous drop in osmolality.

      Understanding Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State

      Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a medical emergency that can be life-threatening and difficult to manage. It is characterized by severe dehydration, electrolyte deficiencies, and osmotic diuresis resulting from hyperglycaemia. HHS typically affects elderly individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM).

      The pathophysiology of HHS involves hyperglycaemia leading to increased serum osmolality, osmotic diuresis, and severe volume depletion. Precipitating factors include intercurrent illness, sedative drugs, and dementia. Clinical features of HHS include polyuria, polydipsia, signs of dehydration, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, altered level of consciousness, and focal neurological deficits.

      Diagnosis of HHS is based on the presence of hypovolaemia, marked hyperglycaemia, significantly raised serum osmolarity, no significant hyperketonaemia, and no significant acidosis. Management of HHS involves fluid replacement with IV 0.9% sodium chloride solution, potassium monitoring, and insulin administration only if blood glucose stops falling while giving IV fluids. Patients with HHS are at risk of thrombosis due to hyperviscosity, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is recommended.

      Complications of HHS include vascular complications such as myocardial infarction and stroke. It is important to recognize the clinical features of HHS and manage it promptly to prevent mortality.

      Overall, HHS is a serious medical condition that requires urgent attention and management. Understanding its pathophysiology, clinical features, and management is crucial in providing appropriate care to patients with HHS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man visits his doctor because he has been experiencing sweaty palms...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man visits his doctor because he has been experiencing sweaty palms and his colleagues have noticed a change in his facial appearance. He also reports difficulty driving due to difficulty seeing the sides of his visual fields.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Acromegaly

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Disorders and Their Clinical Presentations

      Acromegaly, Cushing’s syndrome, hyperprolactinaemia, hyperthyroidism, and multiple sclerosis are all endocrine disorders that can present with various clinical features. Acromegaly is caused by excess growth hormone secretion and can lead to enlarged hands, coarse facial features, and bitemporal hemianopia. Cushing’s syndrome may present with central obesity, muscle atrophy, and osteoporosis, but visual dysfunction is not typical. Hyperprolactinaemia can cause amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea, infertility, and galactorrhoea, but this presentation more closely fits with acromegaly. Hyperthyroidism may present with weight loss, tremor, and heat intolerance, but bitemporal hemianopia is not typical. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic inflammatory demyelination of the central nervous system and can present with various symptoms, but this patient’s presentation does not fit with features of multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing private health screening....

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing private health screening. The patient has been advised to seek medical attention regarding her thyroid function tests (TFTs).
      TSH levels are at 9.2 mU/L and free thyroxine levels are at 14 pmol/L. Despite her age, the patient is currently in good health and shows no symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Repeat TFTs in a few months time

      Explanation:

      According to the guidelines recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, this patient with subclinical hypothyroidism should be monitored at present based on both TSH and age criteria.

      Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men, with a 2-5% chance per year. This risk is further increased if thyroid autoantibodies are present.

      Not all patients with subclinical hypothyroidism require treatment, and guidelines have been produced by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS) to help determine when treatment is necessary. If the TSH level is above 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, levothyroxine may be offered. If the TSH level is between 5.5 – 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be considered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms of hypothyroidism. For older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients may simply have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.

      In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and consideration of treatment options based on individual patient factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 8 - A 47-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg on multiple readings. He undergoes investigation for secondary hypertension. Computed tomography (CT) imaging shows a 4.3 cm right-sided adrenal lesion. Below are his blood results. He is listed for elective adrenalectomy.
      Investigation Result Normal reference range
      Plasma free metanephrines 3000 pmol/l 80-510 pmol/l
      Which of the following treatments should be started to commence preparation of this patient for surgery for removal of adrenal phaeochromocytoma?

      Your Answer: Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers

      Explanation:

      Management of Phaeochromocytoma: Medications and Interventions

      Phaeochromocytoma is a neuroendocrine tumor that secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, leading to sympathetic stimulation and clinical symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety, diaphoresis, and weight loss. Diagnosis is made through the measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines in plasma or urine. Surgery is required, but patients are at high risk due to potential life-threatening tachycardia and hypertension. The following medications and interventions are used in the management of phaeochromocytoma:

      Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers: Phenoxybenzamine or doxazosin are used to dampen sympathetic stimulation by blocking alpha-adrenoceptors.

      Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers: Beta-blockers are used after alpha-blockers to avoid unopposed alpha-receptor stimulation, which can cause a hypertensive crisis.

      Calcium channel blockers: These are not commonly used in phaeochromocytoma management but may be used as an antihypertensive in certain populations or as an anti-anginal drug.

      Intravenous fluids: IV fluids should be readily available for all surgeries to address potential blood loss and hypotension following surgery.

      Low-salt diet and low fluid intake: These interventions are not typically used in phaeochromocytoma management but may be used for chronic hypertension or fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of central abdominal pain, extreme thirst and polyuria. She has no past medical history but her mother and sister both have diabetes. She is noted to be breathing heavily with breath that smells of acetone. An urgent set of investigations is taken.
      Which of the following test results are most likely in this patient?
      Select the SINGLE most likely results from the list below.

      Your Answer: pH 7.21, partial pressure of pCO2 2.1 kPa, partial pressure of pO211.2 kPa, Na+ 131 mmol/l, K+ 3.1 mmol/l, HCO3 12 mmol/l, glucose 31 mmol/l, ketones 4.2 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Test Results: Distinguishing Diabetic Ketoacidosis from Other Conditions

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a life-threatening condition that requires urgent treatment. It can occur as a complication of existing type I diabetes mellitus (DM) or be the first presentation of type I DM. To diagnose DKA, the Joint British Diabetes Societies have established specific criteria, including a blood glucose of more than 11 mmol/l or known DM, a venous pH of less than 7.3 and/or a serum bicarbonate of less than 15 mmol/l, and ketonaemia of more than 3 mmol/l or ketonuria 2+ on dipstick.

      When interpreting blood test results, it is important to distinguish DKA from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. For example, a metabolic acidosis may indicate DKA, but it would also be present in other conditions. In DKA, you would expect a combination of high blood glucose, low pH and serum bicarbonate, and high ketone levels.

      Normal blood test results would rule out DKA, but hyperkalaemia may be present despite low total body potassium levels. Potassium levels may need to be monitored and adjusted during treatment. Respiratory alkalosis, indicated by low pCO2 and high pH, would suggest hyperventilation rather than DKA.

      In summary, interpreting blood test results is crucial in diagnosing and distinguishing DKA from other conditions. Understanding the specific criteria for DKA diagnosis and recognizing the patterns of abnormal results can help healthcare professionals provide timely and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 10 - A 52-year-old man has been diagnosed with type two diabetes and prescribed medication...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has been diagnosed with type two diabetes and prescribed medication by his GP. The medication functions by binding to its receptor and closing the potassium ion channels, which reduces potassium efflux from the cell and causes depolarization. This, in turn, leads to calcium ion influx and insulin release. What medication has the patient been prescribed?

      Your Answer: Acarbose

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Sulfonylureas attach to a KATP channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells that is dependent on ATP.

      Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.

      One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 11 - A 45 year-old-woman of African origin is diagnosed with type II diabetes by...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year-old-woman of African origin is diagnosed with type II diabetes by her General Practitioner. Her haemoglobin A1c was found to be 58 mmol/mol (normal range < 48 mmol/mol) on routine bloods for her annual hypertension review. Her body mass index (BMI) is 30 kg/m2.
      Along with Metformin (an oral hypoglycaemic agent), which of the following is the most appropriate dietary recommendation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Weight loss of 10–20% (initially after diagnosis)

      Correct Answer: Low-fat dairy and oily fish

      Explanation:

      Dietary Recommendations for Type II Diabetes Management

      Managing type II diabetes requires a comprehensive approach that includes lifestyle modifications and medication. One crucial aspect of diabetes management is a healthy, balanced diet. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines on dietary recommendations for people with type II diabetes.

      Low-fat dairy and oily fish are recommended to control the intake of saturated and trans fatty acids. Oily fish contains Omega-3 fatty acids, which are cardio-protective. High-fibre foods with carbohydrates with a low glycaemic index, such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and pulses, are also recommended.

      Sucrose-containing foods should be limited, and care should be taken to avoid excess energy intake. NICE discourages the use of foods marketed specifically for people with type II diabetes, as they are often higher in calories.

      Weight loss is an essential aspect of diabetes management, particularly for overweight individuals. NICE recommends a weight loss target of 5-10% for overweight adults with type II diabetes. Those who achieve a weight loss of 10% or more in the first five years after diagnosis have the greatest chance of seeing their disease go into remission.

      In summary, a healthy, balanced diet that includes low-fat dairy, oily fish, high-fibre foods with low glycaemic index carbohydrates, and limited sucrose-containing foods is crucial for managing type II diabetes. Weight loss is also an essential aspect of diabetes management, particularly for overweight individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old woman comes in for a check-up with her doctor. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes in for a check-up with her doctor. She has a history of hypothyroidism and is currently taking 100mcg of levothyroxine. She reports feeling well and has no notable symptoms. Her last TFTs were normal 6 months ago.
      Free T4 18.5 pmol/l
      TSH 0.1 mu/l
      What should be done next?

      Your Answer: Increase dose to levothyroxine 150mcg od

      Correct Answer: Decrease dose to levothyroxine 75mcg od

      Explanation:

      The latest TFTs reveal that the patient is experiencing over replacement, as evidenced by a suppressed TSH. Despite being asymptomatic, it is advisable to decrease the dosage to minimize the risk of osteoporosis and atrial fibrillation. According to the BNF, a 25mcg dose adjustment is recommended for individuals in this age bracket.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.

      Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 13 - You review a 56-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes. He...

    Correct

    • You review a 56-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes. He was diagnosed one year ago and is currently managed with diet and exercise. His additional medication includes ramipril 10 mg once daily, atorvastatin 10 mg and aspirin 75 mg/day.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is measured at 129/75 mmHg. His low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is 2.1 mmol/l (normal range: < 2.6 mmol/l), while his haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) is 62 mmol/mol (normal range: < 48 mmol/mol). and creatinine (Cr) is 110 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 μmol/l).
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next treatment step in this case?

      Your Answer: Commence metformin

      Explanation:

      Medication Recommendations for a Patient with Diabetes and High Blood Pressure

      Based on the patient’s HbA1c level, it is recommended to start first-line treatment with metformin. If the patient experiences poor tolerance or side-effects from metformin, gliclazide may be considered as a second-line option. Pioglitazone may also be used in conjunction with metformin if HbA1c is poorly controlled on monotherapy. However, the patient’s blood pressure is adequately controlled, so an additional antihypertensive is not necessary. Lastly, the patient’s LDL cholesterol level suggests adequate control, and therefore, there is no need to increase the dosage of atorvastatin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with generalised fatigue and polyuria....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with generalised fatigue and polyuria. These symptoms started three months ago but became much more pronounced in the preceding hour.
      At the clinic, she also starts complaining of extreme thirst and mild lower back pain. She is noted to be breathing heavily, with her breath smelling of acetone.
      Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyperparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of general fatigue and polyuria suggest the possibility of type I diabetes, which can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA can occur as a complication of existing type I diabetes or as the first presentation of the disease. In rare cases, extreme stress can also cause DKA in patients with type II diabetes. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in excess free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. Common triggers include infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction.

      Anxiety attacks can cause heavy breathing and abdominal pain, but they do not explain the polyuria, polydipsia, and pear-drops-smelling breath. Symptoms of anxiety attacks include chest pain, palpitations, nausea and vomiting, sweating, insomnia, flushing, tremor, and urinary frequency.

      Acute pancreatitis should be ruled out in cases of central abdominal pain. Symptoms of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, vomiting, epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Cullen’s sign and Grey-Turner’s sign are rare.

      Addison’s disease, the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, can present similarly to this case with general fatigue and abdominal pain. Other symptoms of Addison’s disease include anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, salt-craving, hyperpigmentation, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycaemia, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia.

      Hyperparathyroidism can also cause polyuria, polydipsia, and abdominal pain, but the Kussmaul respiration and pear-drops-smelling breath suggest a likely diagnosis of DKA. Symptoms of hyperparathyroidism include bone pain, osteopenia and osteoporosis, increased risk of kidney stones, constipation, nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain, and fatigue, depression, and memory impairment, all of which are symptoms of underlying hypercalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-month history of lethargy and generalised weakness. On examination, she is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg. The rest of the examination is unremarkable.
      Routine blood tests show a hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, along with a hypernatraemia of 152 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l). Primary aldosteronism is suspected and investigations reveal bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia.
      Which of the following is the best treatment option?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.

      Your Answer: Perindopril

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The patient’s hypertension, hypokalaemia, and hypernatremia suggest a diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism, where high levels of aldosterone cause increased water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and potassium loss. The recommended treatment for primary hyperaldosteronism due to bilateral adrenal disease is a mineralocorticoid antagonist, with spironolactone as the primary agent and eplerenone as an alternative. Losartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, is an alternative to angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors for managing primary hypertension in patients under 55 years of age who are not Afro-Caribbean or diabetic. Nifedipine, a calcium-channel blocker, is a first-line drug for essential hypertension in patients aged 55 years or older or Afro-Caribbean patients. Perindopril, an ACEi, is a first-line drug for managing primary hypertension in patients under 55 years of age who are not Afro-Caribbean or diabetic. However, it is not appropriate for treating hyperaldosteronism, where spironolactone is the preferred option. Unilateral laparoscopic adrenalectomy is recommended for cases of hyperaldosteronism due to unilateral adrenal diseases, but not for bilateral adrenal disease like in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old woman presents with new-onset diabetes. She has no past drug or...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with new-onset diabetes. She has no past drug or treatment history. Her fasting blood glucose is 7.3 mmol/l. Other significant medical history included occasional diarrhoea in the last four months, for which she took repeated courses of tinidazole. She also had an episode of severe leg pain three months ago, for which she takes warfarin. She is presently very depressed, as her sister has had renal calculus surgery, which has not gone well; she is in the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with sepsis.
      What is the most appropriate next test?

      Your Answer: C-peptide assay

      Correct Answer: Genetic study

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Various Medical Conditions

      Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 1 Syndrome: A genetic study to detect MEN 1 gene mutation on chromosome 11 is the best diagnostic test for patients with new-onset diabetes, diarrhea, and a past episode of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who have a family history of renal calculi at a young age. This autosomal dominant disease is characterized by endocrine hyperfunction in various glands, with the parathyroid gland being the most common gland affected. Enteropancreatic tumors are the second most common, with gastrinoma and insulinoma being the two most common tumors. Glucagonoma can also occur, but rarely. Plasma glucagon and ghrelin levels are elevated in these cases.

      Giardiasis: A blood test for Giardia antigen is recommended for patients with watery, sometimes foul-smelling, diarrhea that may alternate with soft, greasy stools, fatigue or malaise, abdominal cramps and bloating, gas or flatulence, nausea, and weight loss. Tinidazole should have eliminated Giardia, but if symptoms persist, a blood test for Giardia antigen can confirm the diagnosis.

      Diabetes: A C-peptide assay can help distinguish type I diabetes from type II diabetes or maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) by measuring how much of their own natural insulin a person is producing. This is useful if a patient receives insulin injections. The C-peptide assay will help clarify the cause of diabetes, but it will not help in detecting the underlying disease.

      Colonoscopy: Colonoscopy is not needed for the occasional diarrhea at present.

      Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT): Protein C measurement will not help in the diagnosis of DVT. DVT occurs as a rare complication of glucagonoma, and treatment for glucagonoma includes octreotide, surgery, and streptozotocin (rarely).

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      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man presents to his physician with a range of distressing symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his physician with a range of distressing symptoms he has been experiencing for the past two months. These include recurrent flushing, diarrhea, bronchospasm-like tightness in his throat, and significant weight loss. The physician also observes that the patient is hypotensive. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to confirm the suspected condition?

      Your Answer: CA125

      Correct Answer: Urinary 5-HIAA

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid tumors can lead to an increase in urinary 5-HIAA due to the release of serotonin. Symptoms of carcinoid syndrome include flushing, diarrhea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and weight loss. The appropriate diagnostic test for this condition is a urinary 5-HIAA test. CA125 is not relevant in this case as it is used to detect ovarian cancer. MRCP is used to investigate gallbladder or pancreatic conditions, while urinary metanephrines are used to diagnose phaeochromocytoma.

      Carcinoid Tumours and Syndrome

      Carcinoid tumours are a type of neuroendocrine tumour that can secrete various hormones and bioactive substances, including serotonin. When these tumours metastasize to the liver, they can release serotonin into the systemic circulation, leading to a condition known as carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome can also occur with lung carcinoids, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver.

      The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, followed by diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis. In bronchial carcinoids, the left heart can also be affected. In some cases, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, resulting in conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a condition caused by a deficiency of niacin, can also develop as dietary tryptophan is diverted to serotonin by the tumour.

      To diagnose carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or measure plasma chromogranin A levels. Treatment typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide to manage symptoms, while cyproheptadine may help with diarrhoea. Proper management of carcinoid tumours and syndrome is crucial to prevent complications and improve quality of life for patients.

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      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 18 - A geriatric patient presents to the Emergency Department with a fast, irregular pulse,...

    Correct

    • A geriatric patient presents to the Emergency Department with a fast, irregular pulse, chest pain, weakness and palpitations. Upon arrival, investigations were carried out, including the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      PaO2 11.9 kPa
      pH 7.35 7.40 ± 0.05
      PaCO2 27 mmHg
      Sodium (Na+) 125 mmol
      Potassium (K+) 6.7 mmol
      HCO3− 15 mmol
      Chloride (Cl−) 107 mmol
      Normal anion gap 10–18 mmol/l
      With which of the following are the results consistent?

      Your Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Metabolic Acidosis with Normal Anion Gap

      Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be caused by various medical conditions. One such condition is an Addisonian crisis, which occurs due to severe adrenal insufficiency. This results in reduced activity of aldosterone, causing sodium loss and potassium retention, leading to hyperkalaemia and metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap.

      Burns can also cause hyperkalaemia due to rhabdomyolysis, resulting in a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis is another condition that presents with hyperkalaemia and metabolic acidosis, but with an increased anion gap due to ketone bodies.

      Diarrhoea can cause hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, loss of bicarbonate, and metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. However, excessive thiazide treatment would result in hypokalaemia and not hyperkalaemia.

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      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being seen in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being seen in the clinic. He is on a medication regimen that includes metformin, aspirin, simvastatin, and pioglitazone. What is the most probable issue that can be caused by pioglitazone?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Correct Answer: Peripheral oedema

      Explanation:

      Fluid retention may be caused by pioglitazone.

      Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications

      Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which reduces insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.

      The PPAR-gamma receptor is a nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is naturally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the differentiation and function of adipocytes (fat cells).

      While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have adverse effects. Patients may experience weight gain, liver impairment (which requires monitoring of liver function tests), and fluid retention. Thiazolidinediones are contraindicated in patients with heart failure due to the increased risk of fluid retention, especially if the patient is also taking insulin. Recent studies have also shown an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in patients taking pioglitazone, another medication in this class.

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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman with suspected diabetes mellitus undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with suspected diabetes mellitus undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test using the standard WHO protocol. The results are as follows:
      Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
      0 5.9
      2 8.4

      What is the interpretation of these findings?

      Your Answer: Impaired fasting glucose

      Correct Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

      In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.

      There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).

      Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.

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  • Question 21 - You are performing the yearly evaluation of a 42-year-old woman with type 1...

    Incorrect

    • You are performing the yearly evaluation of a 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Your objective is to screen for diabetic neuropathy that may affect her feet. What is the most suitable screening test to utilize?

      Your Answer: A standardised questionnaire

      Correct Answer: Test sensation using a 10 g monofilament

      Explanation:

      To evaluate diabetic neuropathy in the feet, it is recommended to utilize a monofilament weighing 10 grams.

      Diabetic foot disease is a significant complication of diabetes mellitus that requires regular screening. In 2015, NICE published guidelines on diabetic foot disease. The disease is caused by two main factors: neuropathy, which results in a loss of protective sensation, and peripheral arterial disease, which increases the risk of macro and microvascular ischaemia. Symptoms of diabetic foot disease include loss of sensation, absent foot pulses, reduced ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI), intermittent claudication, calluses, ulceration, Charcot’s arthropathy, cellulitis, osteomyelitis, and gangrene. All patients with diabetes should be screened for diabetic foot disease at least once a year. Screening for ischaemia involves palpating for both the dorsalis pedis pulse and posterial tibial artery pulse, while screening for neuropathy involves using a 10 g monofilament on various parts of the sole of the foot. NICE recommends that patients be risk-stratified into low, moderate, and high-risk categories based on factors such as deformity, previous ulceration or amputation, renal replacement therapy, neuropathy, and non-critical limb ischaemia. Patients who are moderate or high-risk should be regularly followed up by their local diabetic foot centre.

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      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 22 - A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to groin abdominal pain. A CT-KUB reveals a right-sided renal calculus. When you take her medical history, she confesses that she has been feeling unwell for the past few weeks with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, constipation and altered mood.
      Her blood tests show an estimated glomerular filtration rate of >60 ml/min, adjusted calcium of 3.1 mmol/l (2.1-2.6 mmol/l), phosphate of 0.6 mmol/l (0.8-1.4 mol/l), and parathyroid hormone of 5.1 pmol/l (1.2-5.8 pmol/l).
      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is caused by parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia. The typical biochemical markers are low phosphate and high serum calcium levels. However, the parathyroid hormone level may be high or inappropriately normal. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is caused by chronic hypocalcemia, such as in chronic kidney disease, where serum calcium levels are low or normal, but parathyroid hormone levels are high. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is a result of autonomous parathyroid production and usually occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease. Sarcoidosis and type 1 renal tubular acidosis are rare causes of hypercalcemia.

      Understanding Primary Hyperparathyroidism

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition commonly seen in elderly females, characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, with hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, and carcinoma being less common causes. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, those who do experience symptoms may have polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN I and II).

      To diagnose primary hyperparathyroidism, doctors may look for raised calcium levels and low phosphate levels, as well as perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan. A characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism is the pepperpot skull. Treatment options include total parathyroidectomy, conservative management, and the use of calcimimetics like cinacalcet. Calcimimetics mimic the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.

      In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can be asymptomatic or present with a range of symptoms. It is most commonly caused by a solitary adenoma and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia. Diagnosis involves blood tests and imaging, while treatment options include surgery and medication.

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      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman has been referred by her General Practitioner (GP), as she...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has been referred by her General Practitioner (GP), as she is passing a substantial volume of urine. She complains that she is continuously thirsty.
      Random plasma reveals the following:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Sodium (Na+) 155 mmol
      Osmolality 300 mOsmol/kg
      Glucose 4.5 mmol
      Urine analysis reveals the following:
      Investigation Result
      Osmolality 90 mOsmol/kg
      Glucose 0.1 mmol/l
      In healthy patients, the urine : plasma osmolality ratio is > 2.
      A water deprivation test reveals the following:
      After 6.5 hours of fluid deprivation, the patient’s weight had dropped by > 3%, and the serum osmolality was 310 mOsmol/kg. Urine osmolality at this stage was 210 mOsmol/kg. The patient was then given desmopressin intramuscularly (IM) and allowed to drink. The urine osmolality increased to 700 mOsmol/kg, and her plasma osmolality was 292 mOsmol/kg.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: A pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Cranial Diabetes Insipidus: A Pituitary Tumour as the Likely Cause

      Cranial diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb free water, resulting in excessive water loss. The most likely cause of this condition is reduced antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion, which can be caused by a pituitary tumour. In this case, the patient’s low urine osmolality and reduced response to the water deprivation test confirm the presence of cranial DI.

      Chronic renal disease and lithium therapy can also cause nephrogenic DI, but the patient’s response to desmopressin im excludes these as potential causes. Diabetes mellitus may cause polydipsia and polyuria, but it also presents with glycosuria and hyperglycaemia. Primary polydipsia, characterized by a compulsive desire to drink, can cause low urine osmolality, but the patient’s ability to concentrate urine to some extent excludes this as a likely cause.

      In conclusion, a pituitary tumour is the most likely cause of the patient’s cranial DI, as confirmed by the water deprivation test and response to desmopressin im.

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      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following medications for treating diabetes is most likely to result...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications for treating diabetes is most likely to result in cholestasis?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Cholestasis can be caused by sulphonylureas.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Liver Disease

      Drug-induced liver disease is a condition that occurs when certain medications or drugs cause damage to the liver. This condition is generally divided into three categories: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there is often overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of changes to the liver.

      Hepatocellular drug-induced liver disease is characterized by damage to the liver cells. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include paracetamol, sodium valproate, phenytoin, MAOIs, halothane, anti-tuberculosis medications, statins, alcohol, amiodarone, methyldopa, and nitrofurantoin.

      Cholestatic drug-induced liver disease, on the other hand, is characterized by a reduction in bile flow from the liver. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include the combined oral contraceptive pill, antibiotics such as flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, and erythromycin, anabolic steroids, testosterones, phenothiazines such as chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine, sulphonylureas, fibrates, and rare reported causes such as nifedipine. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone can cause both hepatocellular and cholestatic damage.

      It is important to note that drug-induced liver disease can be a serious condition and can lead to liver cirrhosis if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of liver damage occur.

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      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and lethargy....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and lethargy. He has areas of skin hyperpigmentation and hypopigmentation consistent with vitiligo. His blood pressure is 96/58 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal the following results, and treatment is initiated.
      Hemoglobin: 138 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      Platelets: 210 * 109/L (150-400)
      White blood cells: 11.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      Sodium: 133 mmol/L (135-145)
      Potassium: 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      Urea: 6.5 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
      Creatinine: 95 µmol/L (55-120)
      C-reactive protein: 4 mg/L (<5)
      Fasting blood sugar: 4.4 mmol/L (4-7)

      What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Overnight dexamethasone suppression test

      Correct Answer: Short synacthen test

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is Addison’s disease based on their clinical presentation of hypotension, hyperpigmentation, vitiligo, and electrolyte abnormalities. Immediate treatment with intravenous fluids and glucocorticoids is necessary. The best test to confirm the diagnosis is the short synacthen test, which measures cortisol levels after administering a stimulating hormone. The aldosterone renin ratio and overnight dexamethasone suppression test are not useful in this scenario. While the serum ACTH level can aid in the diagnosis, dynamic testing with suppression/stimulation is more accurate in endocrine conditions.

      Investigating Addison’s Disease: ACTH Stimulation Test and Serum Cortisol Levels

      When a patient is suspected of having Addison’s disease, the definitive investigation is an ACTH stimulation test, also known as a short Synacthen test. This involves measuring plasma cortisol levels before and 30 minutes after administering Synacthen 250ug IM. Adrenal autoantibodies, such as anti-21-hydroxylase, may also be demonstrated.

      However, if an ACTH stimulation test is not readily available, a 9 am serum cortisol level can be useful. A level of over 500 nmol/l makes Addison’s disease very unlikely, while a level of less than 100 nmol/l is definitely abnormal. A level between 100-500 nmol/l should prompt an ACTH stimulation test to be performed.

      It is important to note that around one-third of undiagnosed patients with Addison’s disease may also have associated electrolyte abnormalities, such as hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate these patients thoroughly to ensure a proper diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 26 - A floppy four-week-old neonate presents with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood...

    Incorrect

    • A floppy four-week-old neonate presents with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood tests demonstrate hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Further tests confirm metabolic acidosis and hypoglycaemia. The paediatrician notices that the penis was enlarged and the scrotum pigmented. The child was treated with both a glucocorticoid and a mineralocorticoid.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Disorders: Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, Conn Syndrome, Addisonian Crisis, Cushing Syndrome, and Thyrotoxic Crisis

      Endocrine disorders are conditions that affect the production and regulation of hormones in the body. Here are five different endocrine disorders and their characteristics:

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) is a group of autosomal recessive conditions caused by mutations in the enzymes involved in the production of steroids and hormones from the adrenal glands. It can affect both men and women equally, and symptoms include ambiguous genitalia at birth for women and hyperpigmentation and penile enlargement for men. Treatment involves hormone replacement therapy.

      Conn Syndrome is a condition associated with primary hyperaldosteronism, which presents with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia. It is more commonly seen in adult patients, but there are cases reported in childhood.

      Addisonian Crisis occurs due to glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiency, usually occurring in adulthood. It is a potentially fatal episode that presents with hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia, and hypercalcaemia. Urgent intravenous administration of glucocorticoids is necessary for management.

      Cushing Syndrome is due to cortisol excess, either exogenous or endogenous, and is usually diagnosed in adulthood. Symptoms include weight gain, hypertension, oedema, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia, and pigmentation of the skin in the axillae and neck.

      Thyrotoxic Crisis, also known as a thyroid storm, is a life-threatening condition associated with excessive production of thyroid hormones. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed hyperthyroidism in neonates and children. Symptoms include tachycardia, hypertension, fever, poor feeding, weight loss, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, seizures, and coma. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent acute congestive heart failure, shock, and death.

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  • Question 27 - A 21-year-old is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department. An alert ambulance attendant...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department. An alert ambulance attendant notes that the patient's breath smells like fruit punch. The patient was found holding a glass containing a clear liquid, and the ambulance attendant had noted a syringe on the patient's coffee table and a pool of vomit near the patient.
      With which of the following would this presentation be most consistent?

      Your Answer: Profound hypoglycaemia

      Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between medical conditions based on breath scent

      When a comatose patient presents with a distinct scent on their breath, it can be a helpful clue in determining the underlying medical condition. The smell of acetone is strongly indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is commonly seen in patients with poorly controlled type I diabetes. In contrast, alcohol intoxication produces a scent of alcohol rather than a fruity odor. Diabetic hyperosmolar coma, typically seen in older patients with type II diabetes, does not produce a specific scent as there is no acetone production. Heroin overdose and profound hypoglycemia also do not result in a distinct breath scent. Understanding the different scents associated with various medical conditions can aid in prompt and accurate diagnosis.

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      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old woman has a history of excessive sweating, palpitations and weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has a history of excessive sweating, palpitations and weight loss for the past six months. She now has a headache.
      On examination, her blood pressure is 230/130 mmHg, with a postural drop to 180/110 mmHg. Her pulse is bounding and 115 beats per minute and she has a tremor and looks pale. The rest of the examination is normal.
      Excess production of which of the following hormones is most likely to be the cause of this woman’s signs and symptoms?

      Your Answer: Aldosterone

      Correct Answer: Catecholamines

      Explanation:

      Explanation of Hypertension and Possible Causes

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can have various underlying causes. In the case of this patient, their symptoms suggest a rare tumour called phaeochromocytoma, which secretes catecholamines and can lead to malignant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism and excess cortisol production (Cushing’s syndrome) are other possible causes of hypertension, but they do not explain the patient’s symptoms. Abnormalities in renin, which regulates blood pressure, can also contribute to hypertension. Hyperthyroidism could explain most of the patient’s symptoms, but it is less likely to cause severe hypertension or headaches. Therefore, further investigation is needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. He was noted...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. He was noted to have marked buccal pigmentation.
      On examination, he is dehydrated. His pulse is 95 beats per minute, while his blood pressure (BP) is 100/70 mmHg.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Glucose 3.5 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 130 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 7.8 mmol/l 2.5–7.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 95 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison’s disease

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Disorders: Addison’s Disease, Cushing Syndrome, and Conn Syndrome

      Addison’s Disease:
      Addison’s disease, or primary hypoadrenalism, is a condition characterized by chronic adrenal insufficiency. It is most commonly caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenals in the UK, while tuberculosis is the most common cause worldwide. Other causes include long-term exogenous steroid use, cancer, or hemorrhage damage. Symptoms develop gradually, but patients can present in Addisonian crisis if there is a sudden deterioration in adrenal function or a physiological stress that the residual adrenal function cannot cope with. Treatment is with long-term replacement of corticosteroids and aldosterone.

      Cushing Syndrome:
      Cushing syndrome is a result of excess corticosteroid. It can be caused by exogenous steroids, primary hyperadrenalism, or secondary hyperadrenalism. Signs and symptoms include weight gain with moon facies and buffalo hump, hypertension, hyperglycemia, mood changes, hirsutism, baldness, and sleep disturbance.

      Conn Syndrome:
      Conn syndrome, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, is caused most commonly by adrenal hyperplasia or adenomas. It results in excess aldosterone release, causing difficult-to-treat hypertension, hypernatremia, and hypokalemia.

      Other Disorders:
      Hypoglycemia occurs in insulinoma, but the other features are absent. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by perioral freckling and small bowel polyps, which may present with vomiting secondary to intussusception from the small polyps but does not explain the hypoglycemia.

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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman who is currently 33 weeks pregnant has been monitoring her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who is currently 33 weeks pregnant has been monitoring her capillary blood glucose (CBG) at home since being diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) 3 weeks ago. She has received appropriate dietary and exercise advice, as well as review by a dietitian. Additionally, she has been taking metformin and has been on the maximum dose for the past week. Fetal growth scans have been normal, with no signs of macrosomia or polyhydramnios. Today, she presents her CBG diary, which indicates a mean pre-meal CBG of 6.0 mmol/L and a mean 1-hour postprandial CBG of 8.4 mmol/L. What is the most suitable management plan?

      Your Answer: Stop metformin

      Correct Answer: Commence insulin

      Explanation:

      If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be added. Pregnant women with GDM should aim to keep their CBGs below specific levels, including fasting at 5.3mmol/L and 1 hour postprandial at 7.8 mmol/L or 2 hours postprandial at 6.4 mmol/L. If these targets are not met, insulin should be offered as an additional therapy. Gliclazide is not recommended, and the use of any sulphonylurea in GDM is an off-license indication. Gliptins are not recommended due to insufficient evidence of their safety in pregnancy. It is not appropriate to continue the same management or de-escalate treatment by stopping metformin if CBG readings are above target levels. Failure to achieve glycaemic control can result in serious risks to both mother and fetus, including pre-eclampsia, pre-term labour, stillbirth, and neonatal hypoglycaemia, even if fetal growth appears normal.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (8/30) 27%
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