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  • Question 1 - A 54-year-old male with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is brought to...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old male with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is brought to the Emergency department after being found in the street.

      On examination, he appears dishevelled and drowsy, with a pulse of 116 bpm and a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg.

      His blood tests reveal a pH of 7.29 (7.36-7.44), PaO2 of 12.0 kPa (11.3-12.6), PaCO2 of 3.0 kPa (4.7-6.0), standard bicarbonate of 18 mmol/L (20-28), base excess of −9 mmol/L (+/−2), lactate of 1.6 mmol/L (0.5-2.2), blood glucose of 3.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and urine dipstick Ketones+++.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Starvation ketosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic Acidosis in a Starving Patient

      This patient is experiencing metabolic acidosis due to starvation, which is evident from the positive ketones found in his urine dipstick. His medical history suggests that he may be an alcoholic and homeless. As a result of his starvation, his body has switched to ketone metabolism. However, he is not diabetic, and his lactate levels are normal.

      To treat this condition, the patient needs to receive IV dextrose to reverse the ketosis and correct his acidosis. However, it is important to note that the patient must receive thiamine first to prevent the onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which can be triggered by IV glucose.

      Overall, this patient’s condition highlights the importance of proper nutrition and medical care, particularly for those who may be homeless or struggling with addiction. By addressing his metabolic acidosis and providing him with the necessary treatment, healthcare providers can help improve his overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      110.4
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old female has been suffering from myalgias, pleural effusion, pericarditis, and arthralgias...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female has been suffering from myalgias, pleural effusion, pericarditis, and arthralgias without any joint deformity for a few years now. What would be the most suitable next step in investigating her condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-nuclear antibody

      Explanation:

      The role of anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) in diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is crucial. When a patient presents with symptoms such as polyarthropathy, myalgia, pericarditis, and effusions, SLE is often the suspected diagnosis. To confirm this, doctors may use a test called ANA.

      However, ANA can also be positive in other autoimmune diseases such as scleroderma, Sjogren’s syndrome, Raynaud’s disease, juvenile chronic arthritis, RhA antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, and autoimmune hepatitis. If the ANA test is negative, it is unlikely that the person has SLE.

      It is important to note that ANAs are present in approximately 5% of the normal population, usually in low titres, and these individuals have no disease. Titres of lower than 1:80 are less likely to be significant, and even higher titres are insignificant with aging over age 60 years. Therefore, doctors must interpret ANA results in the context of the patient’s symptoms and medical history to make an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      51.9
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old homeless man who also abuses alcohol but has been abstinent for...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old homeless man who also abuses alcohol but has been abstinent for 3 years is seeking advice from relief medical staff at a homeless shelter regarding his sore gums. He has noticed coiled body hairs with small bruises at their points of insertion. Additionally, he has observed that when he cuts himself or experiences trauma, the wounds take longer to heal than expected. What is the most probable issue?

      Your Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      Scurvy: A Clinical Syndrome Caused by Vitamin C Deficiency

      Scurvy is a clinical syndrome that results from a lack of vitamin C in the body. This condition is primarily caused by impaired collagen synthesis, which leads to disordered connective tissue. The symptoms of scurvy can occur as early as three months after a deficient intake of vitamin C and include ecchymoses, bleeding gums, petechiae, and impaired wound healing.

      Scurvy is most commonly found in severely malnourished individuals, drug and alcohol abusers, or those living in poverty. It is important to note that vitamin C is essential for the body’s overall health and well-being. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain a balanced and nutritious diet to prevent the onset of scurvy and other related health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      40.8
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  • Question 4 - What is the significant transformation that takes place enabling children to synthesize their...

    Incorrect

    • What is the significant transformation that takes place enabling children to synthesize their own vitamin K?

      Your Answer: Reduced breakdown of clotting factors

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal bacterial colonisation

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K in Newborns and Adults

      Most of the vitamin K in adults is produced through the metabolism of precursors by intestinal bacteria. However, newborns are vitamin K deficient for several reasons, including immature hepatic metabolism, low placental transfer, and no oral intake of vitamin K or its precursors. As a result, all newborns receive intramuscular vitamin K, often within the delivery room, to reduce the risk of vitamin K deficiency bleeding, which can lead to intracerebral bleeding and other serious complications.

      The production of vitamin K in adults is influenced by the development of hepatic metabolic enzymes and the colonization of intestinal bacteria during the first year of life. Small bowel length is typically not a limiting factor in normal children, although some infants may experience a short bowel syndrome after surgical resection of major sections of bowel. Despite these differences, there is no significant change in the portal circulation, renal clearance, or breakdown of clotting factors between newborns and adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      34.9
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  • Question 5 - Which statement accurately describes the results of a randomized controlled trial comparing the...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the results of a randomized controlled trial comparing the effectiveness of drug A and drug B in treating diabetes mellitus, where 100 patients were assigned to each group and the HbA1c levels were found to be 53 mmol/mol in group A and 56 mmol/mol in group B with a p-value of 0.8?

      Your Answer: Type I error is 20%

      Correct Answer: The 95% confidence interval of the difference in HbA1c between the two groups contains 0

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of Statistical Results

      When interpreting statistical results, it is important to consider the confidence interval and the appropriate statistical test to use. If the 95% confidence interval of the difference between two groups contains 0, then the difference is not statistically significant. Therefore, the confidence interval should contain 0. It is also important to use the appropriate statistical test for the data being analyzed. For example, the chi square test is used for categorical variables, while the Student’s t test is more appropriate for continuous variables.

      The sample size should also be considered when interpreting statistical results. However, it is not possible to judge if the sample size is too small without knowing the statistical power. The statistical power is the probability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis. In situations where there is no difference between two groups, only a type II error is possible. This means that we may fail to reject a false null hypothesis. However, the type II error cannot be determined without knowing the statistical power of the study. Therefore, it is important to consider all of these factors when interpreting statistical results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      135.9
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  • Question 6 - In a clinical trial comparing two antiplatelet agents, it was found that 30%...

    Correct

    • In a clinical trial comparing two antiplatelet agents, it was found that 30% of patients taking drug B experienced a major cardiovascular event, while 40% of patients taking drug A had the same outcome.

      What is the absolute risk reduction (ARR) of taking drug B compared to drug A?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      Absolute Risk Reduction and Relative Risk Reduction

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) is the difference between the risk of adverse events in two groups. For instance, if the risk of an adverse event in a control group is 30% and the risk in a treatment group is 40%, the ARR is 10%. It is important to note that ARR is not the same as relative risk reduction (RRR).

      RRR is the ARR expressed as a percentage of the risk in the control group. In the example above, the RRR would be 33.3% (10/30). While RRR may seem like a more impressive number, it can be misleading. Drug companies often use RRR in their marketing materials, but ARR is a more meaningful measure of the actual benefit of a treatment.

      In summary, ARR is the difference in risk between two groups, while RRR is the percentage reduction in risk compared to the control group. While RRR may sound more impressive, it is important to consider both measures when evaluating the effectiveness of a treatment. ARR provides a clearer picture of the actual benefit of a treatment, while RRR can be misleading if not considered in conjunction with ARR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 7 - Which statement accurately describes the alternative hypothesis in a randomized controlled trial comparing...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the alternative hypothesis in a randomized controlled trial comparing drug A to placebo for treating nocturnal enuresis?

      Your Answer: If p<0.05, we reject the alternative hypothesis

      Correct Answer: The alternative hypothesis is assumed to be incorrect until proven otherwise

      Explanation:

      Null and Alternative Hypotheses in Statistical Hypothesis Testing

      In statistical hypothesis testing, we use null and alternative hypotheses to determine whether there is a significant difference or association between the variables we are interested in. The null hypothesis assumes that there is no difference or association, while the alternative hypothesis assumes that there is.

      When conducting hypothesis testing, we start by assuming that the null hypothesis is true and calculate the probability (p value) of observing the actual results under this assumption. If the p value is less than 5% (p<0.05), we reject the null hypothesis and accept the alternative hypothesis. It is important to note that neither the null nor alternative hypothesis is more likely to be true than the other. The purpose of hypothesis testing is to determine which hypothesis is more supported by the data. By using statistical methods to test our hypotheses, we can make informed decisions and draw conclusions based on the evidence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      84.1
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  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old male is admitted with an intracranial bleed and is under the...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male is admitted with an intracranial bleed and is under the care of the neurosurgeons. After undergoing magnetic resonance angiography, he undergoes clipping of a cerebral arterial aneurysm and is stable the following morning. The surgical team records the following blood chemistry results on successive postoperative days:

      Day 1:
      - Plasma Sodium: 130 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L
      - Urea: 4.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 95 µmol/L

      Day 2:
      - Plasma Sodium: 127 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
      - Urea: 4.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 90 µmol/L

      Day 3:
      - Plasma Sodium: 124 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
      - Urea: 4.4 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 76 µmol/L

      Day 4:
      - Plasma Sodium: 120 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L
      - Urea: 5.0 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 70 µmol/L

      Normal Ranges:
      - Plasma sodium: 137-144 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L
      - Urea: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 60-110 µmol/L

      On day four, the patient is put on a fluid restriction of 1 litre per day. Investigations at that time show:
      - Plasma osmolality: 262 mOsmol/L (278-305)
      - Urine osmolality: 700 mOsmol/L (350-1000)
      - Urine sodium: 70 mmol/L -

      What is the most likely diagnosis to explain these findings?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)

      Explanation:

      The causes of hyponatremia are varied and can include several underlying conditions. One common cause is the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), which is characterized by elevated urine sodium, low plasma osmolality, and an osmolality towards the upper limit of normal. Diabetes insipidus, on the other hand, leads to excessive fluid loss with hypernatremia.

      Fluid overload is another possibility, but it is unlikely in patients who have commenced fluid restriction. Hypoadrenalism may also cause hyponatremia, but it is not likely in the context of this patient’s presentation. Other causes of SIADH include pneumonia, meningitis, and bronchial carcinoma.

      Sick cell syndrome is also associated with hyponatremia and is due to the loss of cell membrane pump function in particularly ill subjects. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hyponatremia to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      26.7
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  • Question 9 - What is the most prevalent congenital heart defect among individuals with Trisomy 21?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most prevalent congenital heart defect among individuals with Trisomy 21?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Congenital Heart Disease in Trisomy 21

      Congenital heart disease is a common condition among individuals born with Trisomy 21. Approximately 50% of people with this genetic disorder have some form of heart defect. The most frequent defects are atrioventricular septal defect, ventricular septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot, and atrial septal defect.

      According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, atrioventricular septal defect is the most common type of heart defect in individuals with Trisomy 21. This condition occurs when there is a hole in the center of the heart, which affects the valves and chambers. Ventricular septal defect is the second most common defect, which is characterized by a hole in the wall that separates the two lower chambers of the heart. Patent ductus arteriosus is a condition where a blood vessel that should have closed after birth remains open, causing blood to flow abnormally. Tetralogy of Fallot is a rare condition that involves four heart defects, including a hole in the heart, a narrowed pulmonary valve, an enlarged right ventricle, and an aorta that is shifted to the right. Atrial septal defect is a condition where there is a hole in the wall that separates the two upper chambers of the heart.

      It is important for individuals with Trisomy 21 to receive regular heart screenings and medical care to manage any potential heart defects. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      27.1
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  • Question 10 - In a clinical trial evaluating the efficacy of two different antiplatelet agents in...

    Correct

    • In a clinical trial evaluating the efficacy of two different antiplatelet agents in preventing stroke among elderly patients, a total of 10,000 participants were randomly assigned to receive either the standard therapy or the new therapy. The study spanned five years, during which major gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding was observed in 3% of patients in the standard therapy group and 2% of patients in the new therapy group. What is the absolute risk reduction associated with the new therapy in terms of major GI bleeds?

      Your Answer: 1%

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Antiplatelet Therapies for GI Bleed Risk

      In comparing standard antiplatelet therapy to a new therapy, it is unclear if there is a significant difference between the two groups. However, the standard therapy group has a 3% risk of gastrointestinal (GI) bleed, while the new therapy has a 2% risk. This represents a 1% absolute risk reduction and a 33% relative risk reduction. In other words, for every 100 people treated with the new drug, one major bleeding event could be averted. Further research is needed to determine the overall effectiveness and safety of the new therapy compared to standard treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      86.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old female presents with tiredness and vague aches for many years. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents with tiredness and vague aches for many years. The following results were obtained:
      - Serum sodium: 135 mmol/L (133-144)
      - Serum potassium: 3.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Serum urea: 5.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Serum creatinine: 100 μmol/L (50-100)
      - Serum calcium: 2.78 mmol/L (2.20 - 2.60)
      - Serum albumin: 38 g/L (35-50)
      - Corrected calcium: 3.02 mmol/L (2.20-2.60)
      - Serum phosphate: 0.87 mmol/L (0.80 - 1.45)
      - Serum alk phosphatase: 117 IU/L (30-115)
      - Serum asp transaminase: 20 I U/L (5-45)
      - Serum bilirubin: 8 umol/L (1-17)

      The patient appears generally well, with a blood pressure of 160/80 mmHg, a pulse of 80 beats per minute, normal heart, chest and abdominal examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia and Primary Hyperparathyroidism

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. While there are several possible causes of hypercalcaemia, primary hyperparathyroidism is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with a long history of the condition, no weight loss, and no respiratory symptoms. Although other conditions can also cause hypercalcaemia, the absence of these symptoms makes them less likely. In cases of primary hyperparathyroidism, phosphate levels will typically be at the lower end of the normal range.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is relatively common in elderly populations, with up to 1% of individuals affected. Symptoms can include renal calculi, depression, bone pain, and abdominal pain from peptic ulceration. Hypertension is also a common feature. Additionally, the polyuria associated with hypercalcaemia may lead to mild hypokalaemia.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia is a condition that can have several possible causes, but primary hyperparathyroidism is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with a long history of the condition, no weight loss, and no respiratory symptoms. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including renal calculi, depression, bone pain, and abdominal pain, as well as hypertension and mild hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      95.3
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  • Question 12 - In the context of acid-base balance, what compensatory mechanisms would be observed in...

    Correct

    • In the context of acid-base balance, what compensatory mechanisms would be observed in an individual who has a pH of 7.20 (normal range: 7.35-7.45) and is experiencing metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Increased respiratory rate

      Explanation:

      Compensation Mechanisms in Metabolic Acidosis

      In metabolic acidosis, the level of bicarbonate in the blood is low, which is not a compensation. To counteract this, the body increases the respiratory rate to lower the level of CO2 in the blood, resulting in a respiratory alkalosis. This compensatory mechanism is aimed at increasing the blood pH. However, there is a limit to how much the increased respiratory rate can compensate for the metabolic acidosis.

      In summary, the body has several mechanisms to compensate for metabolic acidosis, including respiratory alkalosis. While an increased respiratory rate can help to increase the blood pH, it is not a complete solution and has its limits. these compensation mechanisms is important in diagnosing and treating metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      90.8
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old healthcare worker presents to the occupational health service clinic at the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old healthcare worker presents to the occupational health service clinic at the hospital due to her potential involvement in a cluster of MRSA cases on her unit. Upon evaluation, it is discovered that she is a carrier of MRSA in her nasal passages.

      What is the recommended course of treatment for this individual's MRSA colonisation?

      Your Answer: Mupirocin ointment to the nose and chlorhexidine washes

      Explanation:

      Treating Nasal Carriage of MRSA

      Nasal carriage of MRSA can be reduced with the use of chlorhexidine, mupirocin, and neomycin creams. However, the most effective treatment is a combination of nasal mupirocin and chlorhexidine wash. Regular face washing is not likely to have any impact, and oral flucloxacillin is ineffective against MRSA. While oral vancomycin is useful in treating C. difficile, it is not effective in treating systemic infections as it remains in the gut. Unfortunately, nasal carriage of MRSA is likely to recur in susceptible individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      24.7
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old male patient complains of a bulge in his left groin area....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male patient complains of a bulge in his left groin area. Upon examination, the lump is soft and exhibits a positive cough impulse. However, it can be managed by applying pressure over the midpoint of the inguinal ligament after reduction. What is the probable origin of this lump?

      Your Answer: Deep inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      Inguinal Hernias

      An inguinal hernia occurs when part of the intestine or other viscera protrudes through a normal or abnormal opening in the parietal peritoneum. The inguinal canal, which runs obliquely from the internal to the external inguinal ring, is a common site for hernias. In men, it contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in women, it contains the round ligament and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The walls of the inguinal canal consist of an anterior wall made up of the external oblique aponeurosis, a posterior wall of peritoneum and transversalis fascia, a floor of in-rolled inguinal ligament, and a roof of arching fibers of the internal oblique and transverse abdominal muscles. Predisposing factors to hernias include obesity, muscle weakness, chronic cough, chronic constipation, and pregnancy.

      There are two types of inguinal hernias: direct and indirect. Direct hernias arise from the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, while indirect hernias arise from the abdominal cavity through the deep inguinal ring. Indirect hernias are more common than direct hernias. The course of a direct inguinal hernia is similar to that of the testis in males, while in females, the persistent processus vaginalis forms a small peritoneal pouch called the canal of Nuck.

      In conclusion, the anatomy and predisposing factors of inguinal hernias can help in their prevention and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      45.7
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  • Question 15 - A study was conducted to evaluate the impact of a new statin in...

    Incorrect

    • A study was conducted to evaluate the impact of a new statin in primary prevention for patients with hypertension but no prior cardiovascular event. The study included 200 participants, divided equally into a control group and a treatment group. The average age of the participants was 50 years. The control group had a cardiovascular event rate of 3%, and the number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one cardiovascular event was 100. What was the rate of cardiovascular events in the treatment group?

      Your Answer: 1%

      Correct Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      Number Needed to Treat

      Number needed to treat (NNT) is a statistical measure used in clinical trials to determine the average number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome. It is the inverse of the absolute risk reduction (ARR), which is the difference between the event rate of the treatment group and the control group. In simpler terms, NNT is the number of patients that need to be treated with a new medication or intervention to prevent one additional negative outcome compared to a control group.

      For example, if the NNT is 100, the ARR is 1%, meaning that one additional negative outcome can be prevented for every 100 patients treated. If the control group has an event rate of 3%, the treatment group’s event rate would be 2% (3% – 1%).

      NNT is important for healthcare professionals and patients alike as it helps to determine the effectiveness of a treatment and the potential benefits and risks associated with it. By knowing the NNT, healthcare providers can make informed decisions about which treatments to recommend to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      83.6
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  • Question 16 - What is considered a primary source of evidence? ...

    Correct

    • What is considered a primary source of evidence?

      Your Answer: Randomised controlled trial

      Explanation:

      When conducting research, it is important to understand the different types of evidence that can be used to support your findings. The two main types of evidence are primary source and synthesised evidence.

      Primary source evidence is considered the most reliable and includes randomised controlled trials, which are experiments that involve randomly assigning participants to different groups to test the effectiveness of a treatment or intervention.

      On the other hand, synthesised evidence is a secondary source that is based on a number of primary studies. A systematic review is an example of synthesised evidence, which involves a comprehensive and structured search of existing literature to identify relevant studies.

      Meta-analysis is a statistical method used to combine the results of different primary studies to provide a more comprehensive of the research topic. An evidence-based guideline is another example of synthesised evidence that synthesises the current best evidence based on other synthesised or primary evidence.

      This can include randomised controlled trials and systematic reviews. Economic analysis is an extension of primary studies that incorporates cost and benefit analyses to provide a more comprehensive of the economic impact of a treatment or intervention.

      In summary, the different types of evidence in research is crucial for conducting reliable and valid studies. Primary source evidence is considered the most reliable, while synthesised evidence provides a more comprehensive of the research topic. Both types of evidence can be used to support evidence-based guidelines and economic analyses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following accurately describes one of the anatomical relationships of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following accurately describes one of the anatomical relationships of the oesophagus?

      Your Answer: Azygous vein lies to the right of the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Oesophagus

      The oesophagus is a muscular tube that carries food from the larynx to the stomach. It is approximately 25 cm long and is divided into two parts: the thoracic and abdominal portions. The thoracic portion runs vertically in the posterior part of the superior and posterior mediastinum, entering the superior mediastinum between the trachea and vertebra column. It then passes behind and to the right of the aortic arch and descends into the posterior mediastinum along the right side of the descending aorta. The thoracic aorta lies posterior to the root of the left lung, the pericardium, and the oesophagus. The oesophagus exits the posterior mediastinum through the oesophageal hiatus in the right crus of the diaphragm and enters the stomach at the cardiac orifice of the stomach.

      The short abdominal part of the oesophagus passes from the oesophageal hiatus in the right crus of the diaphragm to the stomach. The azygous vein forms collateral pathways between the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava, draining blood from the posterior walls of the thorax and abdomen. The recurrent laryngeal nerve loops around the subclavian on the right and around the arch of the aorta on the left, ascending anteriorly to the oesophagus in the trachea-oesphageal groove. The intercostal arteries arise posterior to the oesophagus from the thoracic descending aorta. the anatomy of the oesophagus is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 18 - A known opiate-abuser in his mid-twenties is observed injecting a substance and subsequently...

    Incorrect

    • A known opiate-abuser in his mid-twenties is observed injecting a substance and subsequently collapsing on the street. He is immediately transported to the emergency department. What acid-base disturbance would be anticipated in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Normal acid-base balance

      Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Opiate Injection and Respiratory Acidosis

      When a person injects opiates, it can lead to respiratory depression. This means that the person’s breathing will slow down, causing an increase in carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the body. As a result, the person may experience respiratory acidosis, which is a condition where the blood becomes too acidic due to the buildup of CO2. This can lead to symptoms such as confusion, drowsiness, and shortness of breath. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if someone is experiencing these symptoms after injecting opiates. Proper treatment can help prevent further complications and ensure a safe recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 19 - If you were searching for evidence on which age group is most susceptible...

    Correct

    • If you were searching for evidence on which age group is most susceptible to experiencing psychiatric disturbances while taking Tamiflu, which type of study would be the most likely source of information?

      Your Answer: Nested case-control study

      Explanation:

      Investigating Rare Case Reports of Psychiatric Disturbance and Drug Safety

      By definition, rare case reports of psychiatric disturbance cannot be identified through standard clinical development programmes that involve studying up to 5,000 patients. Conducting another randomized controlled trial (RCT) is unlikely to yield significant data. Managed healthcare databases may not provide sufficient information to establish causality, and cohort studies may not have a large enough number of index events to draw conclusions about drug safety. Therefore, a nested case-control study is the most appropriate approach to investigate any potential link between psychiatric disturbance and the drug. This type of study involves comparing a collection of cases with control patients to identify any differences. By using this method, researchers can gather more detailed information and draw more accurate conclusions about the safety of the drug. Proper investigation of rare case reports is crucial to ensure the safety and well-being of patients who use the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      28.5
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with numbness in the radial...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with numbness in the radial three and a half fingers on the palmar aspect of his right hand. He reports being involved in a pub fight 24 hours ago and is worried that a piece of broken glass may have entered his palm. Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Digital cutaneous branches of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Supply to the Hand and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      The hand is supplied by three nerves: the median, ulnar, and radial nerves. The median nerve enters the hand through the carpal tunnel, which is located deep to the flexor retinaculum. It travels along with nine tendons of the flexors digitorum superficialis and profundus and the flexor pollicis longus. However, in carpal tunnel syndrome, the skin distal to the tunnel does not lose sensation because the palmar branch, which supplies the central palm, arises proximal to the carpal tunnel and does not pass through it. Instead, it runs superficial to the flexor retinaculum.

      In some cases, damage to the median nerve can occur outside of the carpal tunnel. For example, if someone were to break glass and cut their hand, they may damage the superficial digital cutaneous branch of the median nerve. This can result in loss of sensation in the affected area. It is important to understand the nerve supply to the hand and the potential causes of nerve damage to properly diagnose and treat conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      45.8
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman experiences a significant tear in the posterior region during childbirth,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman experiences a significant tear in the posterior region during childbirth, raising concerns about potential damage to the muscles that support continence. What structures offer the most muscular support to the pelvic floor?

      Your Answer: Pubococcygeus

      Explanation:

      The Impact of Childbirth on the Pelvic Floor

      During childbirth, the pelvic floor plays a crucial role in supporting the fetal head while the cervix dilates to allow delivery of the baby. However, this process can result in injuries to the perineum, levator ani, and pelvic fascia. The levator ani muscle is composed of three parts, with the pubococcygeus being the most significant and the most easily damaged during childbirth. This muscle encircles and supports the urethra, vagina, and anal canal, making it essential for maintaining their proper position.

      The puborectalis muscle forms a sling that kinks the anal canal and fuses with the external anal sphincter. Although it is also part of the levator ani muscle, it is less developed than the pubococcygeus and is less frequently damaged during childbirth. The weakening of the levator ani and pelvic fascia due to stretching or tearing during childbirth can cause changes in the position of the bladder neck and urethra, leading to urinary stress incontinence. This condition is characterized by the dribbling of urine when intra-abdominal pressure is raised, such as during coughing and lifting. Overall, childbirth can have a significant impact on the pelvic floor, and it is essential to take steps to prevent and manage any resulting injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 22 - A 60-year-old patient presents with abnormal liver function tests, including elevated bilirubin, alanine...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient presents with abnormal liver function tests, including elevated bilirubin, alanine transaminase, aspartate transaminase, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma glutamyl transferase levels. Their albumin and INR are within normal limits. What is the most probable cause of these results?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC)

      Explanation:

      Elevated Liver Enzymes: Differentiating Cholestasis from Other Causes

      Elevated liver enzymes, specifically alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT), can indicate cholestasis, a condition where bile flow from the liver is impaired. ALP and GGT are both found in the lining of bile ducts, so their simultaneous elevation suggests cholestasis rather than hepatitis, where transaminases from hepatocytes are predominantly raised. However, other factors can also cause elevated ALP and GGT. For instance, ALP has three isoenzymes, and non-liver ALP can be elevated in bone disease or pregnancy. GGT can also be induced by certain drugs, such as alcohol and phenytoin.

      To differentiate cholestasis from other causes of elevated liver enzymes, it is important to consider the clinical context and other investigations. In the case of significantly raised ALP and GGT, primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) is the most likely cause, especially if anti-mitochondrial antibodies are present. PBC is an autoimmune condition that damages the bile canaliculi in the liver, leading to scarring and cirrhosis. On the other hand, alcoholic hepatitis would cause a hepatitis pattern in liver enzymes, with transaminases being predominantly elevated.

      In summary, elevated ALP and GGT suggest cholestasis, but other factors such as non-liver ALP and drug-induced GGT elevation should also be considered. the underlying cause of elevated liver enzymes is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 23 - In a study of the treatment of middle-aged patients with atrial fibrillation, the...

    Incorrect

    • In a study of the treatment of middle-aged patients with atrial fibrillation, the results showed that those who received warfarin had a 6% incidence of stroke or stroke-related death over a three-year period. Those treated with aspirin had a 9% incidence, while the untreated group had a 12% incidence. What is the estimated annual incidence of stroke in the treated population in this study?

      Your Answer: 3.30%

      Correct Answer: 2.60%

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Stroke Incidence in a Treated Population

      In order to calculate the incidence of stroke in a treated population, one must first determine the number of strokes that occurred in each treatment group. For example, in a study with 6000 patients treated with warfarin, there were 360 strokes, which represents 6% of the total population. In the aspirin-treated group of 8000 patients, there were 720 strokes, or 9% of the total population.

      When combining the two groups, there were a total of 1080 strokes over a three-year period in a population of 14000 patients. Dividing this number by three to account for the length of the study, the annual incidence of stroke in the treated population is approximately 2.6%. It is important to note that this calculation is based on the assumption that the study population is representative of the larger population and that the incidence of stroke remains constant over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 24 - What changes occur in the flow of blood through the heart within the...

    Incorrect

    • What changes occur in the flow of blood through the heart within the first 24 hours after birth?

      Your Answer: Right sided heart pressures exceed left sided pressures

      Correct Answer: Increase in pulmonary arterial flow

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Resistance and Blood Flow Changes at Birth

      At birth, the entry of air into the lungs causes the lung tissue to expand, resulting in a significant reduction in pulmonary arterial resistance. This reduction in resistance leads to an increase in pulmonary arterial flow, which in turn reduces right-sided heart pressure and facilitates increased arterial flow into the lungs. As a result, blood flow into the left ventricle increases, causing left-side pressures to exceed right-side pressures. This reversal of flow in the foramen ovale, from right-to-left to left-to-right, stimulates permanent closure of the foramen, reducing right-to-left shunting.

      Furthermore, the fall in pulmonary resistance causes a rise in pulmonary arterial flow, which leads to a decrease in heart rate. Although there may be a temporary increase in heart rate during birth, the heart rate falls progressively from the third trimester. Overall, the reduction in pulmonary resistance and subsequent increase in pulmonary arterial flow play a crucial role in the transition from fetal to neonatal circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 25 - How does the combination of gentamicin and benzylpenicillin work together to treat infective...

    Incorrect

    • How does the combination of gentamicin and benzylpenicillin work together to treat infective endocarditis caused by Streptococcus viridans?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis (transcription)

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis (translation)

      Explanation:

      Synergistic Action of Gentamicin and Benzylpenicillin

      Gentamicin and benzylpenicillin work together to effectively combat bacterial infections. Benzylpenicillin is a bactericidal agent that prevents the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, which allows gentamicin to enter the bacterial cell. Gentamicin then acts on the ribosome, inhibiting protein synthesis and ultimately killing the bacteria. This synergistic action of the two drugs is a powerful tool in the fight against bacterial infections. The combination of these drugs is often used in clinical settings to treat a variety of bacterial infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old female patient presents at the outpatient clinic with an androgen-secreting tumor....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient presents at the outpatient clinic with an androgen-secreting tumor. She is curious about the most probable location of the tumor.

      Can you identify the site where androgens are primarily produced?

      Your Answer: Zona reticularis

      Explanation:

      Anatomy and Function of the Kidneys and Adrenal Glands

      The kidneys are located in the retroperitoneum on the posterior abdominal wall, with the right kidney slightly lower than the left due to the size of the right lobe of the liver. The suprarenal glands, also known as adrenal glands, are situated between the kidneys and the diaphragm. Each gland has two parts: the outer cortex and the inner medulla. The cortex is divided into three zones that produce different types of steroids, while the medulla synthesizes and secretes catecholamines.

      The suprarenal cortex is responsible for producing three classes of steroids: glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens. Glucocorticoids are produced in the zona fasciculata, mineralocorticoids in the zona glomerulosa, and androgens in the zona reticularis. The suprarenal medulla, on the other hand, is a mass of nervous tissue that synthesizes and secretes adrenaline. This tissue is derived from neural crest cells associated with the sympathetic nervous system.

      In summary, the kidneys and adrenal glands play important roles in the body’s endocrine system. The kidneys filter waste products from the blood and regulate fluid balance, while the adrenal glands produce hormones that help regulate metabolism, blood pressure, and stress response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 27 - A study comparing contrast CT colonography with colonoscopy as the reference technique for...

    Incorrect

    • A study comparing contrast CT colonography with colonoscopy as the reference technique for detecting large bowel carcinoma was conducted on 500 patients. The data obtained is as follows:
      Investigation CT Positive CT Negative
      Colonoscopy positive 40 15
      Colonoscopy negative 25 420

      What is the most accurate description of the performance of CT versus colonoscopy for diagnosing large bowel cancer?

      Your Answer: There are 340 false negatives

      Correct Answer: There are 20 false positives

      Explanation:

      Evaluating CT Colonography as a Test for Bowel Cancer

      Colonoscopy is currently the reference standard for detecting bowel cancer. However, CT colonography is a new test being evaluated for its effectiveness in identifying the disease. In a study of 400 patients, 40 were found to have bowel cancer through colonoscopy. Of these 40, CT scanning correctly identified 30 (true positives) but missed 10 (false negatives). On the other hand, out of the 360 patients without the disease, CT scanning identified 20 as having cancer (false positives), while the remaining 340 were correctly identified as not having the disease (true negatives).

      This information can be better visualized through a table, where the new test (CT colonography) is compared to the reference standard (colonoscopy). The table shows that out of the 40 patients with bowel cancer, CT scanning correctly identified 30 (true positives) but missed 10 (false negatives). Meanwhile, out of the 360 patients without the disease, CT scanning incorrectly identified 20 as having cancer (false positives), while the remaining 340 were correctly identified as not having the disease (true negatives). This study aims to evaluate the effectiveness of CT colonography as a test for bowel cancer and determine if it can be a viable alternative to colonoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 28 - A man in his late thirties has presented to the clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A man in his late thirties has presented to the clinic with a complaint of numbness in the skin over his scrotum. Can you identify the nerve responsible for supplying sensation to this area?

      Your Answer: Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Supply to Male Genitalia

      The male genitalia are innervated by various nerves responsible for different functions. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve provides sensory nerve supply to the surface of the scrotum. On the other hand, the pudendal nerve, which gives rise to the dorsal nerve of the penis, is responsible for innervations of the bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus muscles, which are essential for erectile and ejaculatory functions.

      However, the long course of the genitofemoral nerve, which includes travel through the superficial inguinal ring along with the spermatic cord, makes it susceptible to injury. Any damage to this nerve can result in sensory loss in the scrotum, leading to discomfort and pain.

      The inferior anal and rectal nerve, which is also a branch of the pudendal nerve, provides sensory and motor innervation to the anal canal and rectum. These nerves play a crucial role in bowel and bladder control, and any damage to them can result in fecal and urinary incontinence.

      In summary, the male genitalia are innervated by various nerves responsible for different functions, and any damage to these nerves can result in discomfort, pain, and loss of function. It is essential to understand the anatomy and function of these nerves to prevent injury and provide appropriate treatment in case of damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 29 - To what does the term axon varicosity refer? ...

    Incorrect

    • To what does the term axon varicosity refer?

      Your Answer: A pathological morphology characterised by abnormal axonal size.

      Correct Answer: A series of swellings along the length of an axon from which certain types of neurones can release neurotransmitters

      Explanation:

      Axon Varicosities: Small Swellings Along the Length of an Axon

      Axon varicosity refers to a series of small swellings found along the length of an axon. These structures are commonly found in neurones of the autonomic nervous system and are responsible for releasing neurotransmitters from the presynaptic neurone directly onto the effector organs, such as smooth muscle. Axon varicosities are important because they allow for efficient and rapid communication between neurones and their target organs. By releasing neurotransmitters directly onto the effector organs, axon varicosities can quickly and effectively modulate the activity of these organs. Overall, axon varicosities play an important role in the functioning of the autonomic nervous system and are a key component of the neural communication system in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      32.8
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  • Question 30 - The mean cholesterol level in healthy men is 180 mg/dL and the standard...

    Incorrect

    • The mean cholesterol level in healthy men is 180 mg/dL and the standard deviation is 20 mg/dL.
      What is the z score for a man with a cholesterol level of 200 mg/dL?

      Your Answer: 9

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      Z Scores

      Z scores are a way of measuring how much a particular data point deviates from the mean of its distribution, expressed in terms of the standard deviation of that distribution. Essentially, a z score tells us how many standard deviations away from the mean a particular observation is. To calculate a z score, we take the difference between the observation and the mean, and divide that by the standard deviation. For example, if we have an observation of 150 from a population with a mean of 135 and a standard deviation of 15, the z score would be 1.0. This tells us that the observation is one standard deviation above the mean. Z scores are a useful tool for comparing data points from different distributions, as they allow us to standardize the data and make meaningful comparisons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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