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Question 1
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A 35-year-old man with a history of asthma and bipolar disorder visits his local GP clinic complaining of 'tonsillitis' and requesting an antibiotic. Upon examination, he has inflamed tonsils on both sides, a temperature of 37.8ºC, and a pulse rate of 90/min. He is currently taking salbutamol inhaler as needed, Clenil inhaler 2 puffs twice daily, co-codamol 30/500 2 tablets four times a day, and quetiapine 100mg twice daily. The decision is made to prescribe penicillin. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Arrange a full blood count
Explanation:Monitoring FBC is crucial in patients taking clozapine as agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a potentially fatal side effect, can occur. It is imperative to rule out neutropenia in case of infections.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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You are conducting an interview with a 24-year-old man who has arrived at the emergency department after self-harming. As you converse with him, you observe that his facial expression is devoid of emotion, his tone of voice is flat, and his body language lacks any animation. This is evident even when he talks about his traumatic experiences of childhood abuse. How would you record this in your documentation?
Your Answer: Flattened affect
Explanation:Affect and mood can be easily confused during a mental state exam. Affect refers to the current emotional state that can be observed, while mood is the predominant emotional state over a longer period. It is helpful to think of affect as the weather on a particular day and mood as the overall climate.
Mood is determined by the patient’s history and can be described as their emotional state over the past month. Symptoms of depression or mania can be used to determine the patient’s mood. On the other hand, affect is the emotional state that is currently being displayed by the patient during the assessment. It is expressed through facial expressions, voice tone, and body movements. Affect can be normal, restricted, blunted, or flat. Labile affect is characterized by abrupt shifts in emotions.
In the given scenario, the patient is displaying a flattened affect, which means there is no expression of emotion. Apathy may be a symptom present in the patient’s history, but the scenario is specifically referring to the current observed emotional state. Depressed mood may also be present, but it is discussed in the patient’s history and is not the same as affect. Symptoms of depressed mood include anhedonia, low mood, lack of energy, poor concentration, and poor sleep.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man is sent to your office for evaluation by his family. The patient recently graduated from university and has had trouble adapting and fitting in. His parents note that he has always been a loner, preferring to stay in his room. They hoped graduation would bring him out of his shell. He has not made any new friends, but only his parents are bothered by this. Instead of socialising, he seems to have continued to stay alone in his room.
On interview, he is withdrawn and quiet. His range of affect is restricted, and he displays no clear happiness or joy when discussing activities that he reports enjoying. He denies any auditory or visual hallucinations and has no suicidal or homicidal intent. He reports that he has no change in his sleep, appetite, energy or concentration.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation:Understanding Schizoid Personality Disorder: Differentiating from Other Psychiatric Conditions
Personality disorders are characterized by enduring patterns of perception, processing, and engagement that become ingrained, inflexible, and maladaptive. Schizoid personality disorder is a type of personality disorder that falls under the weird cluster of disorders. Patients with this disorder are withdrawn loners with flat affects, but they do not have weird/magical thinking (schizotypal) or psychotic symptoms (schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder). They classically have a very flat affect and no interest in interpersonal relationships, preferring to work and play alone. It is important to differentiate schizoid personality disorder from other psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia, avoidant personality disorder, schizoaffective disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder, as they have distinct features and treatment approaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor in an inpatient psychiatric unit, you have assessed a 25-year-old patient who has recently been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Your consultant has initiated treatment with olanzapine and baseline blood tests have been conducted. According to NICE guidelines, what further investigation is recommended for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ECG
Explanation:Patients starting antipsychotic medications should have a baseline ECG, along with weight, waist circumference, pulse and BP measurements, blood tests (including fasting glucose, HbA1c, lipids and prolactin), assessment of movement disorders and nutritional status. An ECG may also be necessary if the medication’s summary of product characteristics recommends it, if the patient has a high risk of cardiovascular disease, has a personal history of cardiovascular disease, or is being admitted as an inpatient. As olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic that can cause QT prolongation, an ECG is particularly important for this patient because she is currently hospitalized.
Monitoring patients who are taking antipsychotic medication is a crucial aspect of their treatment. In addition to regular clinical follow-ups, extensive monitoring is required to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends a range of tests and assessments to be carried out at various intervals. At the start of therapy, a full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) should be conducted. Clozapine, in particular, requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially on a weekly basis. Lipids and weight should be measured at the start of therapy, after three months, and annually thereafter. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin levels should be checked at the start of therapy, after six months, and annually thereafter. Blood pressure should be measured at baseline and frequently during dose titration. An electrocardiogram should be conducted at baseline, and cardiovascular risk assessment should be carried out annually. For more detailed information, please refer to the BNF, which also provides specific recommendations for individual drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old man with a history of anxiety and depression is being managed by the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service. They have suggested prescribing an SSRI. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Fluoxetine is the preferred SSRI for children and adolescents.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who delivered a baby 3 days ago comes for evaluation due to her mood concerns. She is experiencing trouble sleeping and feels generally anxious and weepy. Additionally, she has noticed that she is becoming irritable with her spouse. This is her initial pregnancy, she is not nursing, and there is no previous history of mental health disorders. What is the best course of action for her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Explanation and reassurance
Explanation:This woman is experiencing the common postpartum mood disorder known as baby-blues, which affects approximately two-thirds of women. Although lack of sleep can be a symptom of depression, it is a normal occurrence for new mothers.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male is admitted to hospital after an overdose of paracetamol. He waited until his children had gone to school and his wife had left for work before taking 100 tablets. He did not drink any alcohol and rarely has any. He had taken annual leave from the steady job in a factory and had left a note. His wife had forgotten something so returned from work earlier than usual and found him semi-conscious.
After treatment for his physical health he tells you that he does not regret the attempt but feels bad that he has put his children through enough seeing him in hospital. He is not religious. His wife is not very supportive of him and thinks he is 'attention-seeking'. He has no other family or friends locally. He has struggled with symptoms of depression for a number of months and has never sought help, but otherwise is physically well.
During your assessment, you want to ascertain any protective factors.
Which of the following is a protective factor in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She has children at home
Explanation:Completed suicide can be prevented by certain protective factors such as having social support, religious beliefs, having children at home, and regretting a previous attempt. It is important to note that the duration of mental illness is not a determining factor, but having a mental illness, especially depression, increases the risk. Alcohol misuse is also a risk factor, but in this scenario, the fact that the person does not drink much alcohol is not particularly protective. The individual in the scenario lacks social support and is not religious, making those options incorrect. However, having children present at home is a protective factor.
Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors
Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A young librarian seeks therapy as he is lonely and unhappy. He describes a solitary life cataloguing books all day and then remaining alone all night and on weekends. He declines invitations for dinners, as he feels anxious when other people are around.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Social phobia
Explanation:Differentiating Anxiety Disorders: A Vignette Analysis
The following vignette describes a patient with symptoms of anxiety in a social situation. To properly diagnose the patient, it is important to differentiate between various anxiety disorders.
Social Phobia: This disorder is characterized by anxiety in public, particularly when feeling scrutinized. It typically starts in adolescence and is equally prevalent in men and women. Some patients have a specific social phobia, while others have a more diffuse type. Treatment is mainly with psychological interventions.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD): GAD is characterized by non-specific and persistent anxiety. Patients feel anxious most days for periods of at least several weeks, and may experience a variety of worries that are not objectively warranted by their circumstances. Autonomic and motor overactivity are also common.
Panic Disorder: Panic attacks are recurrent episodes of severe anxiety that occur unpredictably and under unrestricted circumstances. A diagnosis of panic disorder can be given only if several panic attacks have occurred in about 1 month in situations that do not pose an objective danger, in unrestricted circumstances and with relative freedom from symptoms of anxiety between attacks.
Separation Anxiety Disorder: This disorder is mainly diagnosed in children, although an adult form has been increasingly recognized. Symptoms include anxiety and fear when separated from emotionally attached individuals, and avoidance of being alone.
Conduct Disorder: This disorder is a precursor to dissocial personality disorder and presents as a persistent and repetitive pattern of dissocial behavior beyond the expected mischief and rebelliousness of childhood and adolescence.
In the vignette, the patient’s anxiety is specific to certain situations and therefore predictable, which excludes the diagnosis of panic disorder. The patient’s symptoms do not fit the criteria for GAD or separation anxiety disorder. The most likely diagnosis is social phobia, which is characterized by anxiety in public situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with schizophrenia who is on chlorpromazine experiences an oculogyric crisis. Which side effect of antipsychotic medication does this exemplify?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute dystonia
Explanation:Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a recognized feature of anorexia nervosa in adolescents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced growth hormone levels
Explanation:Anorexia is characterized by low levels of various substances, including growth hormone, glucose, salivary glands, cortisol, cholesterol, and carotene.
Characteristics of Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is a disorder that is characterized by a number of clinical signs and physiological abnormalities. The most notable feature of this disorder is a reduced body mass index, which is often accompanied by bradycardia and hypotension. In addition, individuals with anorexia nervosa may experience enlarged salivary glands, which can cause discomfort and difficulty swallowing.
Physiological abnormalities associated with anorexia nervosa include hypokalaemia, which is a deficiency of potassium in the blood, as well as low levels of FSH, LH, oestrogens, and testosterone. Individuals with anorexia nervosa may also have raised levels of cortisol and growth hormone, impaired glucose tolerance, hypercholesterolaemia, hypercarotinaemia, and low T3.
Overall, anorexia nervosa is a complex disorder that can have a significant impact on an individual’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important for individuals who are struggling with this disorder to seek professional help in order to receive the support and treatment they need to recover.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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