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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old male patient visits the psychiatric clinic for a routine check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient visits the psychiatric clinic for a routine check-up. He reports experiencing weight gain, erectile dysfunction, and gynaecomastia. The patient was diagnosed with schizophrenia a year ago and has been struggling to find a suitable medication despite being compliant. He expresses concern that his partner is becoming increasingly frustrated with his lack of sexual interest, which is affecting their relationship. What is the most appropriate management option for this case?

      Your Answer: Switch to clozapine

      Correct Answer: Switch to aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      The best course of action for this patient, who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is experiencing side effects such as gynaecomastia, loss of libido and erectile dysfunction, is to switch to aripiprazole. This medication has the most tolerable side effect profile of the atypical antipsychotics, particularly when it comes to prolactin elevation, which is likely causing the patient’s current symptoms. It is important to find a medication that reduces side effects, and aripiprazole has been shown to do so. Options such as once-monthly intramuscular antipsychotic depo injections are more suitable for patients who struggle with compliance, which is not the case for this patient. Switching to clozapine or haloperidol would not be appropriate due to their respective side effect profiles.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman visits her psychiatrist for a follow-up after receiving treatment for...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her psychiatrist for a follow-up after receiving treatment for a moderate depressive episode. Based on the patient's history, the psychiatrist identifies early morning awakening as the most distressing symptom currently affecting the patient.

      What term best describes this particular symptom?

      Your Answer: Somatic symptom

      Explanation:

      Screening and Assessment for Depression

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.

      Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks and scores each item from 0-3. The severity of depression is then graded based on the score.

      The DSM-IV criteria are also used to grade depression, with nine different symptoms that must be present for a diagnosis. Subthreshold depressive symptoms may have fewer than five symptoms, while mild depression has few symptoms in excess of the five required for diagnosis. Moderate depression has symptoms or functional impairment between mild and severe, while severe depression has most symptoms and significantly interferes with functioning.

      In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial in identifying and managing depression. Healthcare professionals can use various tools to assess the severity of depression and determine the appropriate treatment plan. Early identification and intervention can help individuals with depression receive the necessary support and treatment to improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old man is brought to the hospital by his sister after he...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man is brought to the hospital by his sister after he spent all of his savings on buying expensive gifts for strangers on the street, claiming that he is here to spread love and happiness. He insists that he is the chosen one to bring joy to the world and will do anything to achieve it. He is very restless, and the doctor cannot communicate with him to gather a medical history. His sister confirms that he has a known diagnosis of bipolar disorder and is currently on medication. For the past few days, the patient has not slept much and has been up all night planning his mission to spread love. There is no evidence of any overdose, but his sister says that he may have missed his medication while on a trip last week. The doctor decides to keep the patient in the hospital under a Section until tomorrow morning when an approved mental health professional can evaluate him.
      For how long can the patient be detained under the Section used?

      Your Answer: Six months

      Correct Answer: 72 hours

      Explanation:

      Time Limits for Mental Health Detention in the UK

      In the UK, there are several time limits for mental health detention that healthcare professionals must adhere to. These time limits vary depending on the type of detention and the circumstances of the patient. Here are the time limits for mental health detention in the UK:

      Section 5(2): 72 hours
      A doctor can use Section 5(2) to keep a patient in hospital for a maximum of 72 hours. This cannot be extended, so an approved mental health professional should assess the patient as soon as possible to decide if the patient needs to be detained under Section 2 or 3.

      Section 5(4): 6 hours
      Mental health or learning disability nurses can use Section 5(4) to keep a patient in hospital for a maximum of six hours. This cannot be extended, so arrangements should be made for Section 2 or 3 if the patient is to be kept longer in hospital.

      Section 3: 6 months initially, renewable for one year at a time
      Section 3 can be used to keep a patient in hospital for treatment for six months. It can be extended for another six months, and then after that for one year for each renewal. During the first six months, patients can only be treated against their will in the first three months. For the next three months, the patient can only be treated after an ‘approved second-opinion doctor’ gives their approval for the treatment.

      Section 2: 28 days
      Approved mental health professionals can use Section 2 to keep a patient in hospital for assessment for a maximum of 28 days. It cannot be extended, so if a longer stay is required for treatment, Section 3 needs to be applied for.

      Section 3 Renewal: one year
      Section 3 can be renewed for a second time, after it has been renewed for a first time for six months after an initial six months upon application of the Section. The renewal is for one year at a time.

      Understanding Time Limits for Mental Health Detention in the UK

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - As a fourth-year medical student on placement in an acute psychiatric ward, I...

    Incorrect

    • As a fourth-year medical student on placement in an acute psychiatric ward, I approached Peter, a patient with a history of schizophrenia, and asked him how many days he had been admitted to the ward.

      Your Answer: Tangentiality

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Circumstantiality is the inability to provide a concise answer to a question, often due to excessive and unnecessary detail.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down for the past 4 months. She reports having trouble sleeping and losing interest in activities she used to enjoy. Additionally, she has been experiencing excessive worry about the future. The patient has a history of dysmenorrhoea, which is managed with mefenamic acid. The GP recommends cognitive behavioural therapy and prescribes sertraline. What other medication should be considered given the patient's medical history?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      To reduce the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding when taking both an SSRI and an NSAID like mefenamic acid, it is recommended to prescribe a PPI such as omeprazole. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not appropriate in this case as the patient is already taking mefenamic acid for dysmenorrhoea. Duloxetine, an SNRI, should not be prescribed as the patient has not yet tried an SSRI. Naproxen, another NSAID, is also not recommended as the patient is already taking mefenamic acid.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

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  • Question 6 - Sophie is a 25-year-old woman who was diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder 8...

    Correct

    • Sophie is a 25-year-old woman who was diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder 8 months ago. She has been taking sertraline for 5 months but feels that her symptoms have not improved much. Sophie wants to switch to a different medication. What is the most suitable drug to start?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      If sertraline, a first-line SSRI, is ineffective or not well-tolerated for treating GAD, alternative options include trying a different SSRI like paroxetine or escitalopram, or an SNRI like duloxetine or venlafaxine. In Maxine’s case, since sertraline did not work, venlafaxine, an SNRI, would be a suitable option. Bupropion is primarily used for smoking cessation but may be considered off-label for depression treatment if other options fail. Mirtazapine is a NaSSA used for depression, not GAD. Pregabalin can be used if SSRIs or SNRIs are not suitable, and propranolol can help with acute anxiety symptoms but is not a specific treatment for GAD.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

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  • Question 7 - A 78-year-old man comes to see you, struggling to cope after his wife...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man comes to see you, struggling to cope after his wife passed away suddenly 5 months ago. He appears sad and spends most of the appointment looking down, but answers your questions. He expresses concern that he may be losing his mind because he has started seeing his wife sitting in her old chair and sometimes talks to her when he is alone. He confirms that he can hear her voice responding to him. He says he mostly talks to her while cooking in the kitchen or when he is alone at night. Despite these experiences, he knows that what he sees and hears is not real. He reports occasional memory loss and some abdominal pain due to his irritable bowel syndrome, but is otherwise healthy. He has no history of psychiatric conditions in himself or his family. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal grief reaction

      Explanation:

      Pseudohallucinations may be a normal part of the grieving process, and differ from true hallucinations in that the individual is aware that what they are experiencing is not real. While pseudohallucinations can be distressing, they are not considered pathological unless accompanied by urinary symptoms, which would require further investigation. The patient in question displays low mood and avoids eye contact, but responds well to questioning and is able to prepare food independently. While depression with psychotic features can involve true hallucinations, there are no other symptoms to suggest this diagnosis. Lewy-body dementia, which can cause visual hallucinations, Parkinsonian features, and cognitive impairment, is not a likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms. Abnormal grief reactions are typically defined as persisting for at least six months after the loss.

      Understanding Pseudohallucinations

      Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.

      One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.

      Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old woman has been seen by her general practitioner (GP) with symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman has been seen by her general practitioner (GP) with symptoms of moderate anxiety, including frequent panic attacks, feeling very tired all the time, poor appetite and a short temper. She is taking time off work, arguing with her family and friends and becoming increasingly isolated as a result of the symptoms. She has tried cognitive behavioural therapy but found no benefit. She would like to try medication, and the GP has agreed to start citalopram.
      What advice should she be given before starting the medication?

      Your Answer: There is a risk he will develop discontinuation symptoms if he abruptly stops taking the medication

      Explanation:

      Understanding Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)

      When taking an SSRI, it is important to be aware of potential discontinuation symptoms if the medication is stopped abruptly. These symptoms can include rebound anxiety or depressive symptoms, flu-like symptoms, dizziness, nausea, or sleep disturbances. Patients should seek advice from a doctor before reducing or withdrawing the medication, and it is recommended that the discontinuation is done over four weeks.

      While patients may feel some benefit after one week of taking an SSRI, the full benefit can take up to 12 weeks. It is important to be patient and continue taking the medication as prescribed.

      During the first three months of starting medication, patients should be seen every two to four weeks to monitor for adverse effects such as increased anxiety symptoms, sleep disturbance, or gastrointestinal upset. After this initial period, patients should be seen every three months, with the frequency of reviews potentially increasing if symptoms worsen.

      Possible side-effects of taking an SSRI include dyspepsia, worsening of anxiety symptoms, agitation, and sleep problems. Patients should be aware of these potential side-effects.

      While there is an increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm for patients under the age of 30 starting an SSRI, this risk is not present for everyone. Patients under 30 should be monitored more closely for signs of suicidal thoughts or self-harm and seen weekly for the first month after medication is started.

      In summary, understanding the potential risks and benefits of taking an SSRI is important for patients to make informed decisions about their mental health treatment.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man presents to a psychiatrist after his wife demands he sees...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to a psychiatrist after his wife demands he sees someone to manage his ‘endless nagging’. He has no interest in being here. He reports that his wife is always frustrating him because she simply will not do things the right way. He cites frequent eruptions over how to load the dishwasher properly and how his wife continues to load it improperly. When asked what happens if she loads it her way, the patient describes feeling frustrated that it is not loaded the right way and expressing his frustration to his wife. When asked what he hopes to get out of this visit, the patient wants to learn if there are better ways of effectively communicating the right way to do things.

      Which of the following is most likely?

      Your Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s behavior of being fixated on the right way to load a dishwasher could be indicative of either obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) or obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). The key difference between the two is whether or not the individual experiences distress over their obsession. In this case, the patient does not seem to experience any distress and instead wants to control how his wife loads the dishwasher. This suggests OCPD rather than OCD. Histrionic personality disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and narcissistic personality disorder are not as applicable to this situation.

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  • Question 10 - A 7-year-old boy and his mother die in a car crash. Following these...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy and his mother die in a car crash. Following these deaths, the boy’s 16-year-old brother starts playing with the dead boy’s toys.
      This would most likely be an example of which of the following defence mechanisms?

      Your Answer: Identification

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms: Coping Strategies for Unconscious Thoughts and Emotions

      Defense mechanisms are unconscious coping strategies that individuals use to protect themselves from anxiety, guilt, and other negative emotions. These mechanisms can be helpful in reducing the impact of stressful situations, but they can also lead to maladaptive behaviors if used excessively. Here are some common defense mechanisms:

      Identification: This mechanism involves adopting the characteristics or activities of another person to reduce the pain of separation or loss. For example, a child may imitate a favorite teacher to cope with the absence of a parent.

      Rationalization: This mechanism involves offering a false but acceptable explanation for behavior to avoid feelings of guilt or shame. For example, a student who fails an exam may blame the teacher for not providing enough study materials.

      Denial: This mechanism involves behaving as if one does not know something that they should reasonably be expected to know. For example, a person with a drinking problem may deny that they have a problem despite evidence to the contrary.

      Reaction Formation: This mechanism involves adopting behavior that is opposite to one’s true feelings. For example, a person who is attracted to someone they consider inappropriate may express disgust or hostility towards that person.

      Sublimation: This mechanism involves directing unacceptable impulses into acceptable outlets. For example, a person with aggressive tendencies may channel their energy into sports or other physical activities.

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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman has come to her doctor for a medication review. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has come to her doctor for a medication review. She was diagnosed with bipolar disorder 10 months ago and has been taking olanzapine 10 mg once daily and lithium carbonate 600mg twice daily. While her psychological symptoms have improved, she has been feeling more fatigued in the past few weeks. Additionally, she has noticed a decrease in appetite and has experienced bouts of constipation. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism due to olanzapine toxicity

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism due to lithium toxicity

      Explanation:

      Chronic lithium toxicity is the leading cause of hypothyroidism, which is the most common endocrine disorder. The onset of this condition typically occurs within 6 to 18 months of starting lithium treatment, although the exact mechanism by which lithium inhibits thyroid hormone release is not well understood. While olanzapine does not cause hypothyroidism or hypercalcemia, lithium is not associated with hypoadrenalism. Although undertreatment of bipolar disorder can lead to a depressive episode, the patient in this case has experienced an improvement in mood and the emergence of new somatic symptoms, making hypothyroidism due to lithium toxicity a more probable diagnosis.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

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  • Question 12 - A mental state examination is conducted on a 30-year-old individual. When asked about...

    Correct

    • A mental state examination is conducted on a 30-year-old individual. When asked about their activities during the week, they begin discussing their job, then transition to their passion for writing, followed by reminiscing about their favorite literature teacher from school, and finally discussing the death of their childhood dog and how it relates to their current writing project. Although their speech is at a normal pace, they never fully answer the question about their recent activities. What can be said about this individual's behavior?

      Your Answer: Tangentiality

      Explanation:

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old man is admitted to the hospital by his wife who reports...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is admitted to the hospital by his wife who reports that he has been experiencing distressing visual hallucinations of animals in their home. You suspect that he may be suffering from Charles-Bonnet syndrome. What are some potential risk factors that could make him more susceptible to this condition?

      Your Answer: Peripheral visual impairment

      Explanation:

      Peripheral visual impairment is a risk factor for Charles-Bonnet syndrome, which is a condition characterized by visual hallucinations in individuals with eye disease. The most frequent hallucinations include faces, children, and wild animals. This syndrome is more common in older individuals, without significant difference in occurrence between males and females, and no known increased risk associated with family history.

      Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome

      Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced by individuals with visual impairment, although this is not a mandatory requirement for diagnosis. People with CBS maintain their insight and do not exhibit any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbance. The risk factors for CBS include advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The syndrome is equally distributed between sexes and does not show any familial predisposition. The most common ophthalmological conditions associated with CBS are age-related macular degeneration, glaucoma, and cataract.

      Well-formed complex visual hallucinations are experienced by 10-30% of individuals with severe visual impairment. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired people is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. However, around a third of people with CBS find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing. A large study published in the British Journal of Ophthalmology found that 88% of people had CBS for two years or more, and only 25% experienced resolution at nine years. Therefore, CBS is not generally a transient experience.

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  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they noticed her eating habits had become irregular. The parents report that the patient eats large volumes of foods and is sometimes found vomiting shortly after eating dinner. This behaviour has been occurring for the past 6 months. On examination, the patient’s vital signs are normal and she has a body mass index (BMI) of 23. She has excoriations on the knuckles of her right hand. She also has erosions on her teeth and swelling bilaterally on the lateral aspects of the face along the mandibular rami.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Common Mental Health Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Bulimia Nervosa
      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, usually in the form of vomiting. Patients with bulimia nervosa often have normal BMI, despite purging behavior. Symptoms associated with vomiting include teeth erosion, swelling along the mandibular rami (parotitis), and excoriations of the knuckles (Russell’s sign).

      Avoidant Personality Disorder
      Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a person who desires social connections but is too shy to form relationships due to fear of rejection. This is different from the schizoid personality, which prefers to be alone.

      Anorexia Nervosa
      Anorexia nervosa is associated with decreased dietary intake, with or without purging behavior. Patients with anorexia nervosa tend to have extremely low BMI due to low calorie intake. They also suffer from early osteoporosis and electrolyte abnormalities due to malnutrition.

      Binge Eating Disorder
      Binge eating disorder is characterized by purely binge eating, without purging behavior. Patients with binge eating disorder often experience distress and weight gain.

      Gender Dysphoria
      Gender dysphoria is characterized by a strong identification with a gender other than that assigned at birth. This can be managed through social transition (living as their preferred gender) or medical transition (hormone or surgical treatments that are gender-affirming).

      Understanding Common Mental Health Disorders

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  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old individual presents with obsessive thoughts about causing harm to others since...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old individual presents with obsessive thoughts about causing harm to others since moving away from home to attend college. They are particularly anxious about using the shared kitchen in their dormitory and tend to prepare and eat meals during the night to avoid contact with their roommates. After completing a Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale (Y-BOCS), they are diagnosed with mild OCD. What treatment option would be most suitable for this individual?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      For patients with mild symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and mild impairment, the recommended first-line treatment is cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) with exposure and response prevention (ERP). While clomipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, may be used in some cases, it is not typically the first choice. Dialectical behaviour therapy is not commonly used in the treatment of OCD, as CBT and ERP are more effective. Fluoxetine, an SSRI antidepressant, may also be used in the treatment of OCD, but is not typically the first-line treatment for mild cases.

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by the presence of obsessions and/or compulsions that can cause significant functional impairment and distress. Risk factors include family history, age, pregnancy/postnatal period, and history of abuse, bullying, or neglect. Treatment options include low-intensity psychological treatments, SSRIs, and more intensive CBT (including ERP). Severe cases should be referred to the secondary care mental health team for assessment and may require combined treatment with an SSRI and CBT or clomipramine as an alternative. ERP involves exposing the patient to an anxiety-provoking situation and stopping them from engaging in their usual safety behavior. Treatment with SSRIs should continue for at least 12 months to prevent relapse and allow time for improvement.

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  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old woman was admitted to the psychiatric ward with paranoid delusions, auditory...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman was admitted to the psychiatric ward with paranoid delusions, auditory hallucinations and violent behaviour. There was no past medical history. She was diagnosed with schizophrenia and given intramuscular haloperidol regularly. Four days later, she became febrile and confused. The haloperidol was stopped, but 2 days later, she developed marked rigidity, sweating and drowsiness. She had a variable blood pressure and pulse rate. Creatine phosphokinase was markedly raised.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome: A Potentially Life-Threatening Reaction to Neuroleptic Medication

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare but serious reaction to neuroleptic medication. It is characterized by hyperpyrexia (high fever), autonomic dysfunction, rigidity, altered consciousness, and elevated creatine phosphokinase levels. Treatment involves stopping the neuroleptic medication and cooling the patient. Medications such as bromocriptine, dantrolene, and benzodiazepines may also be used.

      It is important to note that other conditions, such as cerebral abscess, meningitis, and phaeochromocytoma, do not typically present with the same symptoms as NMS. Serotonin syndrome, while similar, usually presents with different symptoms such as disseminated intravascular coagulation, renal failure, tachycardia, hypertension, and tachypnea.

      If you or someone you know is taking neuroleptic medication and experiences symptoms of NMS, seek medical attention immediately. Early recognition and treatment can be life-saving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 20-year-old woman is brought to your clinic by her parents due to...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman is brought to your clinic by her parents due to concerns about her weight loss (her BMI has dropped from 21 to 18.5 in the past year). You have seen her before and have ruled out any physical causes for her weight loss. When you inquire about purging behaviors, such as self-induced vomiting, she becomes defensive, but you notice that her tooth enamel is eroded. She admits to feeling overweight and has been experiencing low mood for several months, finding little pleasure in anything except for when she indulges in too much chocolate and bread. However, she feels even more disgusted with herself afterwards. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for her condition?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Understanding Eating Disorders: Bulimia Nervosa and Anorexia Nervosa

      Eating disorders are complex mental health conditions that can have serious physical and emotional consequences. Two common types of eating disorders are bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa.

      Bulimia nervosa is characterized by episodes of binge eating, followed by purging behaviors such as vomiting, laxative abuse, or excessive exercise. People with bulimia often feel a loss of control during binge episodes and experience intense guilt afterwards. They may also engage in periods of dietary restraint and have a preoccupation with body weight and shape. Bulimia is more common in women and can cause dental problems, electrolyte imbalances, and other medical complications.

      Anorexia nervosa involves deliberate weight loss to a low weight, often through restricted eating and excessive exercise. People with anorexia have a fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image, leading to a preoccupation with food and weight. Anorexia can cause severe malnutrition and medical complications such as osteoporosis, heart problems, and hormonal imbalances.

      It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling to address the physical and psychological aspects of the condition. With proper care, recovery from an eating disorder is possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and lightheadedness. Upon conducting an ECG, torsades de pointes is observed. Which medication is the most probable cause of the cardiac anomaly?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Citalopram, an SSRI used to treat major depressive disorder, has been identified as the most likely to cause QT prolongation and torsades de pointes. In 2011, the MHRA issued a warning against its use in patients with long-QT syndrome. While fluoxetine and sertraline can also cause prolonged QT, citalopram is more frequently associated with this side effect. Gentamicin, a bactericidal antibiotic, does not appear to cause QT prolongation or torsades de pointes. Although sertraline is another SSRI that can cause prolonged QT, citalopram remains the most concerning in this regard.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - Following the 2011 NICE guidelines for managing panic disorder, what is the most...

    Correct

    • Following the 2011 NICE guidelines for managing panic disorder, what is the most suitable initial drug therapy for treating the condition in younger patients?

      Your Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man has been admitted to a psychiatric ward for a fourth...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man has been admitted to a psychiatric ward for a fourth time. He is withdrawn, irritable, restless and afraid. He says that he has been depressed for about 8 weeks. He has insomnia, loss of appetite and weight loss. He also has suicidal ideation with a plan to overdose on medicine, which he has done in the past under the influence of commanding auditory hallucinations. He hears voices often even when he is not depressed, but they only talk of suicide when he is depressed. He was divorced 5 years ago and has trouble holding jobs due to his paranoia and odd behaviour.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizoaffective disorder, depressed

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Depression and Psychotic Disorders

      Depression and psychotic disorders can be complex and difficult to diagnose. One condition that can be particularly challenging to identify is schizoaffective disorder, which involves both mood and psychotic symptoms. In some cases, people with schizophrenia may also experience depressive symptoms, but sub-threshold levels of depression are considered a part of the primary disorder.

      A major depressive episode is characterized by mood symptoms that last for at least two weeks, along with changes in sleep, appetite, energy, and other neurovegetative functions. Depression can also involve feelings of guilt, worthlessness, and thoughts of suicide.

      Dysthymic disorder is a less severe form of depression that does not involve hallucinations. However, if a person experiences hallucinations only during depressive episodes, they may be diagnosed with a major depressive episode with mood-congruent psychotic features.

      If a person experiences hallucinations that are not related to their mood, they may be diagnosed with a major depressive episode with mood-incongruent psychotic features. While the presence of psychotic symptoms does not necessarily mean a person has two separate disorders, it can negatively impact their overall outcome. Understanding the different types of depression and psychotic disorders can help clinicians provide more accurate diagnoses and effective treatments.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old man is brought to the psychiatric unit due to his abnormal...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to the psychiatric unit due to his abnormal behaviour in a police cell. He claimed that there was a conspiracy against him and started acting irrationally. After 36 hours of admission, the patient complains of visual hallucinations and experiences a grand-mal seizure. What is the probable reason behind the seizure?

      Your Answer: Withdrawal from alcohol

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Fits in a Patient with a History of Substance Abuse

      There are several possible causes of fits in a patient with a history of substance abuse. LSD withdrawal and amphetamine withdrawal are not known to cause seizures, but amphetamine withdrawal may lead to depression, intense hunger, and lethargy. Hypercalcaemia is not likely to be the cause of fits in this patient, but hyponatraemia due to water intoxication following ecstasy abuse is a possibility. Alcohol withdrawal is a well-known cause of fits in habitual abusers, along with altered behavior. Although idiopathic epilepsy is a differential diagnosis, it is unlikely given the patient’s history of substance abuse. Overall, there are several potential causes of fits in this patient, and further investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old male has arrived at the emergency department after experiencing a witnessed...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male has arrived at the emergency department after experiencing a witnessed seizure. According to the witness, the seizure lasted around 10 minutes and the patient was drowsy for 15 minutes afterward. The patient is now alert and conversing with the medical staff. They have a history of schizophrenia and have reported several seizures since beginning a new medication five weeks ago. Which medication is the most probable cause of this incident?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is the only atypical antipsychotic drug that reduces seizure threshold, increasing the likelihood of seizures. While effective, it has serious side effects such as agranulocytosis, neutropenia, reduced seizure threshold, and myocarditis. Aripiprazole has a favorable side effect profile and is less likely to cause hyperprolactinemia or other side effects. Olanzapine is known for causing dyslipidemia, weight gain, diabetes, and sedation, but may be prescribed to underweight patients who have trouble sleeping. Quetiapine is associated with weight gain, dyslipidemia, and postural hypotension.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old female has been discharged from hospital after being diagnosed with schizophrenia....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female has been discharged from hospital after being diagnosed with schizophrenia. She is now being seen in the GP clinic and is concerned about her prognosis. Prior to her illness, she was a high-functioning accountant. Her symptoms began gradually and mainly involved auditory hallucinations and persecutory delusions, which are currently under control. What factor in her case suggests a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer: Gradual onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      The gradual onset of schizophrenia is associated with a worse long-term outcome, making it a poor prognostic indicator for this patient. However, her gender (being female) and good pre-illness functioning are both positive prognostic indicators. Additionally, her predominant positive symptoms (auditory hallucinations and delusions) suggest a better prognosis compared to predominant negative symptoms. Lastly, being diagnosed at a younger age (such as in her teens) would have resulted in a poorer prognosis.

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognosis depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old Asian woman presents with sudden onset paranoid thoughts and suicidal ideation....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old Asian woman presents with sudden onset paranoid thoughts and suicidal ideation. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia. Given her age and first episode of psychosis, what crucial investigation is necessary to rule out other potential underlying causes?

      Your Answer: CT head

      Explanation:

      When elderly patients present with sudden onset psychosis, it is important to consider and rule out organic causes before attributing it to a primary psychotic disorder. In such cases, a CT head scan or even an MRI should be considered to detect any underlying organic causes such as a brain tumour, stroke or CNS infection. While HbA1c is typically used to assess diabetes control, PET scans are more commonly used to provide detailed information about metabolic processes in tissues, such as identifying active cancer cells. Chest X-rays may also be useful in certain cases.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old woman with a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder has been undergoing cognitive...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder has been undergoing cognitive behavioural therapy and taking fluoxetine, but her symptoms persist. Her doctor decides to prescribe clomipramine, but warns her of potential side effects. What is the most likely side effect she may experience as a result of taking clomipramine?

      Your Answer: Dry mouth and weight gain

      Explanation:

      Clomipramine, a TCA, can cause dry mouth due to its anticholinergic effects and weight gain due to its antihistaminic effects. While rare, extrapyramidal side effects and neuroleptic malignant syndrome are also possible but more commonly associated with antipsychotic drugs. Increased urinary frequency and thirst are side effects of lithium, not TCAs. Additionally, mydriasis, not miosis, is a side effect of TCAs.

      Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.

      Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of depression comes in 2 months postpartum...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of depression comes in 2 months postpartum with symptoms of low mood, lack of energy, and loss of pleasure for the past 3 weeks. She is currently breastfeeding. She has previously taken fluoxetine and found it effective but stopped during pregnancy. After a conversation, she has decided to resume her medication.
      Which antidepressant would be the best choice to initiate treatment?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.
      The man experiences periods of elevated mood, where he spends a lot of money and sleeps very little. He denies having any delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.
      The man also has episodes of severe depression, where he feels suicidal, loses interest in his hobbies, and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      The woman’s alternating episodes of hypomania and severe depression suggest that she has type 2 bipolar disorder. There are no indications of an anxiety disorder, and the severity of her symptoms is not consistent with cyclothymia. Major depressive disorder is also not a likely diagnosis, as she experiences ‘highs’ consistent with hypomania. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also unlikely, as her ‘high’ periods are more in line with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A 29-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department in a state of distress....

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department in a state of distress. She admits to having lost a significant amount of money through gambling and then taking 4 packets of paracetamol. This is not the first time she has engaged in such behavior. She discloses that her partner of 3 years has been offered a job overseas and is considering accepting it. Despite her initial heartbreak, they had a major argument and she now claims to be indifferent about whether he stays or goes.

      What is the most appropriate course of action based on the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy

      Explanation:

      Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by recurrent self-harm and intense interpersonal relationships that alternate between idealization and devaluation as a way to cope with strong emotions during strained relationships. The defense mechanism of devaluation is evident in the patient’s quick emotional switches, without middle ground. Dialectical behavior therapy is an effective treatment for BPD, while cognitive behavior therapy is more suitable for depression or anxiety disorders. The clinical picture is more consistent with BPD than depression, and antidepressants may not be effective for BPD. Lithium, the mood stabilizer of choice for bipolar disorder, is not appropriate for this acute event, which occurred over the past few hours rather than days.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - A 60-year-old retiree comes in for his annual diabetes review. He has type...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old retiree comes in for his annual diabetes review. He has type II diabetes; the condition seems to be well controlled with metformin, with HbA1c levels in the target range and no signs of end-organ damage.
      During the consultation, the nurse asks some routine questions and is alarmed to find that the patient drinks almost 50 units of alcohol a week. The patient insists that he only drinks at the end of the day to relax, and on a Sunday when he goes to the pub with friends. He is adamant that he does not have a drinking problem and that he could stop at any time if he wanted to.
      The nurse refers the patient to the doctor to assess for potential signs of alcohol dependency.
      Which of the following are indications of alcohol dependency?

      Your Answer: Physiological withdrawal state, a strong desire or sense of compulsion to drink alcohol, increased tolerance to alcohol

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria for Substance Dependence

      Substance dependence, including alcohol dependence, is diagnosed based on a set of criteria. These criteria include a strong desire or compulsion to use the substance, difficulty controlling substance use, physiological withdrawal symptoms when substance use is reduced or stopped, evidence of tolerance, neglect of other interests or activities, and continued substance use despite harmful consequences. It is important to note that the presence of a physiological withdrawal state is a key factor in the diagnosis of substance dependence. However, drinking late at night or avoiding sweet drinks are not indicative of dependence. Understanding these criteria can help in identifying and treating substance dependence.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of inability to use her...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of inability to use her right arm. She has been staying with her mother for the past 5 days after experiencing domestic abuse from her husband. The patient reports feeling very stressed. She denies any history of trauma. On examination, there is normal tone and reflexes but 0/5 power in all muscle groups of the right upper limb. The affected arm falls to the patient's side when held above her face and released. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      The probable diagnosis for this patient is conversion disorder, which is a psychiatric condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function and is often caused by stress. There is no evidence of neurological disease in the patient’s history or clinical findings. The condition is likely triggered by recent domestic abuse and stress. The patient also exhibits a positive drop-arm test, which is a controlled drop of the arm to prevent it from hitting the face, and is an unconscious manifestation of psychological stress.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs after life-threatening experiences, such as abuse, and is characterized by symptoms of hyperarousal, re-experiencing of the traumatic event, avoidance of stimuli, and distress. However, it does not involve physical weakness. It typically lasts between 3 days and 1 month.

      Post-traumatic stress disorder is another condition that occurs after life-threatening experiences, such as abuse, and has similar symptoms to acute stress disorder. However, it lasts longer than 1 month.

      Patients with somatisation disorder have multiple bodily complaints that last for months to years and persistent anxiety about their symptoms. However, based on this patient’s history and physical findings, conversion disorder is the most likely diagnosis.

      Given the patient’s normal tone and reflexes and the absence of trauma to the neck or spine, it is highly unlikely that a spinal cord lesion is causing total arm paralysis.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

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  • Question 31 - A 52-year-old man presents to his GP with a 6-month history of erectile...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man presents to his GP with a 6-month history of erectile dysfunction. He reports a weaker morning erection and difficulty maintaining an erection during sexual activity. He feels depressed about his symptoms. Upon further questioning, he mentions that his morning erection is still present but weaker than usual. He also admits to consuming approximately 50 units of alcohol per week and gaining weight recently. Despite his symptoms, he remains hopeful for improvement. What signs would indicate a psychological origin for his condition?

      Your Answer: Stress leading to performance anxiety

      Explanation:

      Stress can lead to performance anxiety, which can cause erectile dysfunction. If the cause of erectile dysfunction is organic, there would be a loss of morning erections and difficulty during sexual activity. However, if the cause is psychological, men still get erections in the mornings but not during sexual activity. Previous transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) for prostate cancer can also cause erectile dysfunction. Excessive alcohol consumption, such as drinking 50-60 units per week, can also lead to erectile dysfunction. Symptoms such as feeling tired all the time, low mood, gaining weight, and hopelessness may suggest hypothyroidism, which can also cause erectile dysfunction. Tenderness and enlargement of breast tissue may indicate hyperprolactinaemia, which can be caused by a pituitary adenoma or iatrogenic factors. Checking prolactin levels is necessary to diagnose hyperprolactinaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 32 - A 28-year-old man has been admitted to the psychiatric ward under section 2...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man has been admitted to the psychiatric ward under section 2 of the mental health act for suspected first-episode psychosis. During his mental state examination, burns are observed on his arms and he claims that insects are burrowing into his skin. He suggests that the burns are caused by bleach. The evaluating psychiatrist could not detect any insects, and when questioned, the patient became agitated and insisted that his skin was infested. What is the most probable disorder being described?

      Your Answer: Delusional parasitosis

      Explanation:

      The patient in the scenario is experiencing delusional parasitosis, a psychiatric disorder characterized by a fixed, false belief that one is infested by parasites or ‘bugs’. This delusion can lead to extreme measures to try to eradicate the perceived infestation. Delusional parasitosis is also known as Ekbom syndrome. Capgras delusion, Cotard’s delusion, and formication are not applicable in this case.

      Understanding Delusional Parasitosis

      Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly known but can be debilitating for those who suffer from it. It is characterized by a persistent and false belief that one is infested with bugs, parasites, mites, bacteria, or fungus. This delusion can occur on its own or in conjunction with other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, patients may still be able to function normally in other aspects of their lives.

      In simpler terms, delusional parasitosis is a rare condition where a person believes they have bugs or other organisms living on or inside their body, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. This can cause significant distress and anxiety for the individual, and they may go to great lengths to try and rid themselves of the perceived infestation. It is important for those who suspect they may be suffering from delusional parasitosis to seek professional help, as treatment can greatly improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 33 - A 28-year-old patient presents to her doctor with symptoms of low mood and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old patient presents to her doctor with symptoms of low mood and anhedonia. She has previously undergone cognitive behavioural therapy and art therapy, but with limited success. The doctor prescribes citalopram and refers her for additional talk therapy.
      What medication should be avoided while taking citalopram?

      Your Answer: Rasagiline

      Explanation:

      Combining SSRIs and MAOIs is not recommended due to the potential danger of developing serotonin syndrome.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 34 - A 22-year-old university student has been advised to see her General Practitioner by...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old university student has been advised to see her General Practitioner by teaching staff who are very concerned that she has lost a lot of weight throughout the term. She has lost 10 kg over the last six weeks but does not see any problem with this.
      Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for anorexia nervosa (according to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth edition (DSM-V))?

      Your Answer: An intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, leading to low weight

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anorexia Nervosa: Diagnostic Criteria and Symptoms

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, leading to low weight. To diagnose anorexia nervosa, the DSM-V criteria include restriction of intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight, intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, and a disturbance in the way one’s body weight or shape is experienced. A specific BMI requirement is no longer a diagnostic criterion, as patients can exhibit thought patterns consistent with anorexia nervosa without meeting a specific BMI. Amenorrhoea, or the absence of menstruation, is also no longer a diagnostic criterion. Purging after eating is not a diagnostic criterion, but it may be present in patients with anorexia nervosa. A specific amount of weight loss is not required for diagnosis. Understanding the diagnostic criteria and symptoms of anorexia nervosa is crucial for early detection and treatment.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 35 - A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her daughter because ‘she is acting...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her daughter because ‘she is acting wild again’. She drinks moderately about once a week. She is not sleeping much, talks incessantly about plans to travel the world and has made many impulsive and irrational purchases. She reports hearing voices but refuses to discuss this issue when questioned by the admitting psychiatrist. She begins a task but does not complete it, all the while making lists of things to be done. She has been starting tasks and not finishing them. She had a similar episode 3 years ago. She also has depressive episodes several times over the last few years and recovered in between them.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bipolar, manic, with mood-congruent psychotic features

      Explanation:

      Understanding Psychotic Disorders: Differential Diagnosis

      Psychotic disorders are a group of mental illnesses characterized by the presence of psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. However, differentiating between these disorders can be challenging. Here are some possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with manic and psychotic symptoms:

      Bipolar, manic, with mood-congruent psychotic features: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with both manic symptoms and mood-congruent psychotic features. The patient’s lack of insight is characteristic of either mania or psychosis. The need to get a history from a third party is typical. What distinguishes this from schizophrenia is that the patient appears to have a normal mood state.

      Substance-induced psychosis: The use of substances in this scenario is far too little to account for the patient’s symptoms, ruling out psychosis secondary to substance abuse.

      Schizophreniform disorder: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with symptoms of schizophrenia of <6 months' duration. Schizophrenia, paranoid type: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with symptoms for >6 months and multiple psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, bizarre delusions, and social impairment.

      Schizoaffective disorder: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with both mood disorder and schizophrenic symptoms. However, the patient in this scenario is not expressing enough schizophrenic symptoms to establish a diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder.

      In conclusion, accurate diagnosis of psychotic disorders requires careful evaluation of the patient’s symptoms, history, and social functioning. A thorough understanding of the differential diagnosis is essential for effective treatment and management of these complex conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 36 - A 21-year-old woman is admitted to the psychiatric ward. She has been awake...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman is admitted to the psychiatric ward. She has been awake for 4 days and is convinced that she will become the next big pop star by recording 3 albums simultaneously. When asked about her emotions, she immediately talks about her music projects, providing intricate details about each album, her plans for distribution, and her future as a famous musician. She then mentions that her mood has been fantastic because of these topics. When the conversation shifts, she continues to respond in a similar fashion. What term best describes this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Knight's move

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Circumstantiality is the appropriate term to describe this patient’s response. They provide excessive and unnecessary detail before eventually answering the question about their mood. Flight of ideas, Knight’s move, and perseveration are not applicable in this case as the patient eventually returns to the original topic and follows along with subsequent topic changes.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 37 - A 67-year-old man presents to the hospital in a confused state. He is...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the hospital in a confused state. He is unable to explain his condition but insists that he was admitted for 10 days last month despite records showing his last admission to be 7 months ago. He cannot recall which secondary school he attended and, after being on the ward for a week, he does not recognize his primary doctor's face. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, ischemic stroke, and alcoholic liver disease.

      Upon examination, the patient has normal tone, upgoing plantar reflexes on the right, and a broad-based gait. There are bilateral cranial nerve 6 (CN 6) palsies associated with nystagmus.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a complication that can arise from Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and it is characterized by anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. In this case, the patient displays confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia, as well as anterograde and retrograde amnesia with confabulation, which suggests that they have progressed to Korsakoff’s syndrome. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is caused by a deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1), which is often due to chronic alcohol abuse or malnutrition. It presents with confusion, ataxia, and oculomotor dysfunction, which can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome if left untreated. Brain tumors typically present with symptoms of increased intracranial pressure and focal neurological deficits, which are not present in this case. Lewy body dementia can be diagnosed if a patient with decreased cognition displays two or more of the following symptoms: parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, waxing-and-waning levels of consciousness, and rapid-eye-movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder. Transient global amnesia is a temporary condition that involves retrograde and anterograde amnesia following a stressful event, lasting between 2-8 hours but less than 24 hours. Based on the patient’s symptoms and history of alcohol abuse, Korsakoff’s syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. The condition is caused by a deficiency of thiamine, which leads to damage and bleeding in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often develops after untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      The symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to form new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 38 - A 72-year-old female visits her GP due to concerns about memory loss. She...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old female visits her GP due to concerns about memory loss. She has been experiencing forgetfulness and absent-mindedness for the past three weeks. She cannot recall conversations that occurred earlier in the day and has forgotten to lock her front door. Additionally, she has been feeling fatigued and has lost interest in her usual activities, such as going out for walks. Living alone, she is worried about the potential risks associated with her memory loss. Although initially appearing cheerful, she becomes emotional and starts crying while discussing her symptoms. The following blood test result is obtained: TSH 2 mU/L. What is the most probable cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Depression and dementia can be distinguished based on their respective characteristics. Depression typically has a short history and a sudden onset, which can cause memory loss due to lack of concentration. Other symptoms include fatigue and loss of interest in usual activities. Hypothyroidism can be ruled out if TSH levels are normal. On the other hand, dementia progresses slowly and patients may not notice the symptoms themselves. It is usually others who notice the symptoms, and memory loss is not a concern for patients with dementia. Finally, there is no indication of bipolar disorder as there is no history of manic episodes.

      Differentiating between Depression and Dementia

      Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.

      One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.

      Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.

      The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.

      In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 39 - What is a true statement about obsessive compulsive disorder (obsessional neurosis)? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about obsessive compulsive disorder (obsessional neurosis)?

      Your Answer: Patients have good insight

      Explanation:

      Obsessional Neurosis and Obsessional Compulsive Disorder

      Obsessional neurosis is a mental disorder characterized by repetitive rituals, irrational fears, and disturbing thoughts that are often not acted upon. Patients with this condition maintain their insight and are aware of their illness, which can lead to depression. On the other hand, obsessional compulsive disorder is a similar condition that typically starts in early adulthood and affects both sexes equally. Patients with this disorder often have above-average intelligence.

      It is important to note that Sigmund Freud’s theory that obsessive compulsive symptoms were caused by rigid toilet-training practices is no longer widely accepted. Despite this, the causes of these disorders are still not fully understood. However, treatment options such as cognitive-behavioral therapy and medication can help manage symptoms and improve the quality of life for those affected. these disorders and seeking appropriate treatment can make a significant difference in the lives of those who suffer from them.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 40 - A 36-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Mental Health Ward. He is...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Mental Health Ward. He is speaking rapidly, claiming to be the ‘new Messiah’ and insisting that he has the ability to cure acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) with the assistance of his friends who are providing him with undisclosed 'classified' knowledge.
      What medication would be appropriate to administer to this individual?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Medication for Psychosis: A Comparison of Olanzapine, Diazepam, Citalopram, Clozapine, and Zopiclone

      When a patient presents with psychosis, it is crucial to assess them urgently and rule out any organic medical causes. The primary treatment for psychosis is antipsychotics, such as olanzapine. While benzodiazepines like diazepam can be used to treat agitation associated with acute psychosis, they are not the first-line treatment. Citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression, would not be appropriate for treating psychosis. Clozapine, another antipsychotic, is only used on specialist advice due to the risk of agranulocytosis. Zopiclone, a hypnotic used for sleep, is not appropriate for treating psychosis. It is important to choose the right medication for psychosis to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 41 - A 40-year-old Afro-Caribbean male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia for 3 years. To...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old Afro-Caribbean male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia for 3 years. To address his history of non-compliance, he has been prescribed a monthly 250 mg depo injection of zuclopenthixol. What is a typical side effect of this type of antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: Parkinsonian symptoms

      Explanation:

      Anti-psychotics often lead to Parkinsonian symptoms, while neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but severe side effect that can be fatal.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 42 - A 26-year-old individual visits their GP with symptoms of flashbacks, nightmares, and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old individual visits their GP with symptoms of flashbacks, nightmares, and difficulty relaxing after being involved in a pub brawl 3 weeks ago. The patient has no significant medical history and has attempted breathing exercises to alleviate their symptoms without success. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer for debriefing

      Correct Answer: Refer for cognitive-behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      For individuals experiencing acute stress disorder within the first 4 weeks of a traumatic event, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) should be the primary treatment option. The use of benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, should only be considered for acute symptoms like sleep disturbance and with caution. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and other drug treatments should not be the first-line treatment for adults. Debriefings, which are single-session interventions after a traumatic event, are not recommended. Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing may be used for more severe cases of post-traumatic stress disorder that occur after 4 weeks of exposure to a traumatic experience.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.

      To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 43 - A 27-year-old woman has been experiencing a pattern of tumultuous endings in all...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman has been experiencing a pattern of tumultuous endings in all of her relationships. She confides in you that she seems to have a knack for choosing friends and romantic partners who ultimately reveal themselves to be awful people.
      What defense mechanism is most likely at play in this patient?

      Your Answer: Reaction formation

      Correct Answer: Splitting

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms: Understanding How We Cope

      Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that we use to protect ourselves from anxiety and emotional pain. These mechanisms are often unconscious and can be both adaptive and maladaptive. Here are some common defense mechanisms and their explanations:

      Splitting: This is a common defense mechanism in borderline personality disorder. It involves seeing people as either all good or all bad, and the inability to reconcile both good and bad traits in a person.

      Dissociation: This is an immature defense mechanism where one’s personal identity is temporarily modified to avoid distress. An extreme form is dissociative identity disorder.

      Identification: This is when someone models the behavior of a more powerful example. An example would be a victim of child abuse becoming a child abuser in adulthood.

      Sublimation: This is a mature defense mechanism where the person takes an unacceptable personality trait and uses it to drive a respectable work that does not conflict with their value system.

      Reaction formation: This is an immature defense mechanism where unacceptable emotions are repressed and replaced by their exact opposite. A classic example is a man with homoerotic desires championing anti-homosexual public policy.

      Understanding these defense mechanisms can help us recognize when we are using them and how they may be impacting our relationships and mental health.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 44 - A 35-year-old woman is seeking help at the Psychiatry Clinic upon referral from...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is seeking help at the Psychiatry Clinic upon referral from her General Practitioner. The patient is experiencing persistent low mood for the past two months and finds it difficult to get out of bed to go to work at times. She used to enjoy playing tennis, but now she does not find pleasure in any sports. Additionally, she has lost interest in food and lacks the motivation to go out and meet her friends. The patient also reports waking up early in the morning and having difficulty falling back asleep. She lives alone and has been divorced for two years. She smokes and drinks moderate amounts of alcohol.
      What is the most affected aspect of pleasure in this patient?

      Your Answer: Serotonin

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters and Depression: Understanding the Role of Dopamine

      Depression is a complex mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While the exact causes of depression are not fully understood, research has shown that neurotransmitters play a crucial role in its pathophysiology. One of the main neurotransmitters involved in depression is dopamine.

      Dopamine is primarily involved in the reward system of the brain, which is responsible for feelings of pleasure and motivation. Anhedonia, the lack of pleasure in doing pleasurable activities, is a major symptom of depression. Studies have shown that the reward system, which works primarily via the action of dopamine, is affected in depression.

      While most antidepressants work by increasing the concentration of serotonin or norepinephrine in the neuronal synaptic cleft, anhedonia has been a symptom that is hard to treat. This is because dopamine is the main neurotransmitter involved in the reward system, and increasing its concentration is crucial in relieving anhedonia.

      Other neurotransmitters, such as acetylcholine, serotonin, noradrenaline, and GABA, also play a role in depression, but they are not primarily involved in the reward system and anhedonia symptoms. Understanding the role of dopamine in depression can help in the development of more effective treatments for this debilitating condition.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 45 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends. He...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends. He holds a senior trading job in an investment bank and has a history of recurrent admissions following cocaine intoxication. They are worried because he recently sent a memo to everyone on the trading floor suggesting that he is now the lead, he has the mental capacity to beat anyone to a higher profit and he should be chairman of the group. In fact, he has been performing poorly and has missed recent performance targets.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cocaine-induced delusional disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Psychological Effects of Cocaine Use

      Cocaine use can lead to a range of psychological and psychiatric problems, including delusional disorder. This disorder is characterized by grandiose ideas concerning one’s social standing or intellectual ability, which are far in excess of reality. Cocaine-induced hallucinations are also common, particularly of the auditory or tactile variety.

      While some may mistake these symptoms for schizophrenia or a manic episode of bipolar disorder, it is important to consider the individual’s history of cocaine use. Cocaine intoxication can cause anxiety, agitation, euphoria, enlarged pupils, and palpitations, while severe intoxication can lead to delirium, hyperactivity, hyperthermia, and psychosis. Cocaine withdrawal, on the other hand, can cause fatigue, agitation, vivid and unpleasant dreams, increased appetite, and psychomotor retardation.

      Overall, it is crucial to understand the potential psychological effects of cocaine use and seek appropriate treatment if necessary.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 46 - A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department following taking approximately 18...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department following taking approximately 18 paracetamol tablets three hours earlier. She had a row with her husband and took the tablets as she was angry and upset. She called her husband after she took the tablets, who rang for an ambulance.
      This is the first time she has ever done anything like this, and she regrets the fact that she did it. She is currently studying at university, and only drinks recreationally. She is normally fit and well and has no history of mental health conditions.
      Which of the following factors are associated with increased risk of a further suicide attempt in someone who has already made a suicide attempt?

      Your Answer: Alcohol or drug abuse, history of violence and single, divorced or separated

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Repeated Suicide Attempts

      Individuals who have previously attempted suicide are at an increased risk of making another attempt. Factors that contribute to this risk include a history of previous attempts, personality disorders, alcohol or drug abuse, previous psychiatric treatment, unemployment, lower social class, criminal record, history of violence, and being between the ages of 25 and 54, as well as being single, divorced, or separated. Rates of further suicide attempts in the year following an attempt are high, ranging from 15 to 25 percent. However, being married or having short stature does not appear to be a significant risk factor for repeated suicide attempts.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 47 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a decreased level of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a decreased level of consciousness. Upon evaluation, her blood sugar is found to be 1.2 and is treated accordingly. The paramedics report finding her next to an insulin syringe, despite her not having diabetes. This is the third occurrence of such an event, and the patient denies any suicidal ideation. What is the diagnosis for this woman's condition?

      Your Answer: Munchausen's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Deliberately inducing symptoms, such as a diabetic intentionally overdosing on insulin to experience hypoglycemia, is an instance of Munchausen’s syndrome.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 48 - You receive a call from the husband of a 50-year-old patient who is...

    Correct

    • You receive a call from the husband of a 50-year-old patient who is registered at your practice. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with metformin. According to her husband, for the past three days, she has been talking nonsensically and experiencing hallucinations. An Approved Mental Health Professional is contacted and heads to the patient's residence. Upon arrival, you encounter a disheveled and emaciated woman sitting on the pavement outside her home, threatening to physically harm you. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Call the police

      Explanation:

      If the patient is exhibiting violent behavior in a public place, it is advisable to contact the police and have her taken to a secure location for a proper evaluation. It is important to note that Metformin does not lead to hypoglycemia.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 49 - Which of the following interventions is most likely to be beneficial for a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following interventions is most likely to be beneficial for a patient with early-onset schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Adherence therapy

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Schizophrenia: NICE Guidelines

      Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that requires careful management. In 2009, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines on the management of schizophrenia. According to these guidelines, oral atypical antipsychotics should be the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients to help them manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

      It is also important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification in patients with schizophrenia. This is because schizophrenic patients have high rates of cardiovascular disease, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare providers should work with patients to modify their lifestyle habits and reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to managing schizophrenia. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help patients with schizophrenia achieve better outcomes and improve their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 50 - A 22-year-old female with paranoid schizophrenia is currently admitted as an inpatient and...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female with paranoid schizophrenia is currently admitted as an inpatient and receiving treatment with antipsychotic medication under section 3 of the Mental Health Act. She has recently reported experiencing breast tenderness and enlargement. As the current antipsychotic regimen is not being well-tolerated, what would be the most suitable alternative antipsychotic medication to minimize these side effects?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Compared to other atypical antipsychotics, aripiprazole is known for having a more tolerable side effect profile, particularly when it comes to causing hyperprolactinemia. This condition, which can result in breast tenderness, enlargement, and lactation, is a common side effect of most typical and some atypical antipsychotics such as risperidone and amisulpride.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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