00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old male is having surgery to remove his appendix due to appendicitis....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male is having surgery to remove his appendix due to appendicitis. Where is the appendix typically located in the body?

      Your Answer: Post ileal

      Correct Answer: Retrocaecal

      Explanation:

      The majority of appendixes are located in the retrocaecal position. In cases where removal of a retrocaecal appendix proves challenging, mobilizing the right colon can greatly enhance accessibility.

      Appendix Anatomy and Location

      The appendix is a small, finger-like projection located at the base of the caecum. It can be up to 10cm long and is mainly composed of lymphoid tissue, which can sometimes lead to confusion with mesenteric adenitis. The caecal taenia coli converge at the base of the appendix, forming a longitudinal muscle cover over it. This convergence can aid in identifying the appendix during surgery, especially if it is retrocaecal and difficult to locate. The arterial supply to the appendix comes from the appendicular artery, which is a branch of the ileocolic artery. It is important to note that the appendix is intra-peritoneal.

      McBurney’s Point and Appendix Positions

      McBurney’s point is a landmark used to locate the appendix during physical examination. It is located one-third of the way along a line drawn from the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to the Umbilicus. The appendix can be found in six different positions, with the retrocaecal position being the most common at 74%. Other positions include pelvic, postileal, subcaecal, paracaecal, and preileal. It is important to be aware of these positions as they can affect the presentation of symptoms and the difficulty of locating the appendix during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Sarah presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe epigastric pain, nausea and...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe epigastric pain, nausea and vomiting following a holiday in Greece in which she consumed large amounts of alcohol. On investigation, she has a raised amylase of 500 IU/L and is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. She is treated and makes a full recovery.

      Eight weeks later she presents again, complaining of persisting moderately severe abdominal pain and early satiety. An ultrasound of her abdomen shows a fluid filled cavity in the pancreas lined with granulation tissue.

      What complication of acute pancreatitis has Sarah developed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic pseudocyst

      Explanation:

      Alcohol intoxication is a common cause of acute pancreatitis, which can present with persistent abdominal pain and a fluid-filled cavity on ultrasound.

      While a pancreatic tumor may also cause acute pancreatitis symptoms and obstructive jaundice, it would not typically show a fluid-filled cavity on ultrasound.

      A pancreatic abscess, on the other hand, may present with signs of infection such as fever, rigors, and a tender mass.

      Although diabetes can be a late complication of pancreatitis, it does not account for the ongoing abdominal pain or the presence of a fluid-filled cavity.

      Complications of Acute Pancreatitis

      Local complications of acute pancreatitis include peripancreatic fluid collections, pseudocysts, pancreatic necrosis, pancreatic abscess, and hemorrhage. Peripancreatic fluid collections occur in about 25% of cases and may resolve or develop into pseudocysts or abscesses. Pseudocysts are walled by fibrous or granulation tissue and typically occur 4 weeks or more after an attack of acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic necrosis may involve both the pancreatic parenchyma and surrounding fat, and complications are directly linked to the extent of necrosis. Pancreatic abscesses typically occur as a result of an infected pseudocyst. Hemorrhage may occur de novo or as a result of surgical necrosectomy and may be identified by Grey Turner’s sign when retroperitoneal hemorrhage occurs.

      Systemic complications of acute pancreatitis include acute respiratory distress syndrome, which is associated with a high mortality rate of around 20%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 10-year-old girl presents to her doctor with a 2-month history of flatulence,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to her doctor with a 2-month history of flatulence, foul-smelling diarrhoea, and a weight loss of 2kg. Her mother reports observing greasy, floating stools during this time.

      During the examination, the patient appears to be in good health. There are no palpable masses or organomegaly during abdominal examination.

      The child's serum anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies are found to be elevated. What is the most probable HLA type for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HLA-DQ2

      Explanation:

      The HLA most commonly associated with coeliac disease is HLA-DQ2. HLA, also known as human leukocyte antigen or major histocompatibility complex, is expressed on self-cells in the body and plays a role in presenting antigens to the immune system. The child’s symptoms of coeliac disease include fatty, floaty stools (steatorrhoea), weight loss, and positive tissue transglutaminase antibodies.

      HLA-A01 is not commonly associated with autoimmune conditions, but has been linked to methotrexate-induced liver cirrhosis.

      HLA-B27 is associated with psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and inflammatory bowel disease.

      HLA-B35 is not commonly associated with autoimmune conditions.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following cell types is most likely to be found in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cell types is most likely to be found in the wall of a fistula in a 60-year-old patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cells

      Explanation:

      A fistula is a connection that is not normal between two surfaces that are lined with epithelial cells. In the case of a fistula in ano, it will be lined with squamous cells.

      Fistulas are abnormal connections between two epithelial surfaces, with various types ranging from those in the neck to those in the abdomen. The majority of fistulas in surgical practice arise from diverticular disease and Crohn’s. In general, all fistulas will heal spontaneously as long as there is no distal obstruction. However, this is particularly true for intestinal fistulas. There are four types of fistulas: enterocutaneous, enteroenteric or enterocolic, enterovaginal, and enterovesicular. Management of fistulas involves protecting the skin, managing high output fistulas with octreotide, and addressing nutritional complications. When managing perianal fistulas, it is important to avoid probing the fistula in cases of acute inflammation and to use setons for drainage in cases of Crohn’s disease. It is also important to delineate the fistula anatomy using imaging studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man is shot in the abdomen and experiences bleeding. What substance...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is shot in the abdomen and experiences bleeding. What substance will cause vasoconstriction in response to this event?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Vasoconstriction is not caused by renin. Angiotensin I is not biologically active. Aldosterone can raise blood pressure, but it does not have direct vasospastic effects.

      Shock is a condition where there is not enough blood flow to the tissues. There are five main types of shock: septic, haemorrhagic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic. Septic shock is caused by an infection that triggers a particular response in the body. Haemorrhagic shock is caused by blood loss, and there are four classes of haemorrhagic shock based on the amount of blood loss and associated symptoms. Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the autonomic nervous system, leading to decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Adrenaline is the most important drug in treating anaphylaxis and should be given as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman presents with an unknown cause of jaundice. She noticed the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with an unknown cause of jaundice. She noticed the yellowing of her skin and eyes in the mirror that morning. Upon examination, a palpable mass is found in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. Her lab results show a total bilirubin level of 124 umol/L and high levels of conjugated bilirubin in her urine. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholangiocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      To correctly diagnose this patient, knowledge of Courvoisier’s sign is necessary. This sign indicates that a palpable gallbladder in the presence of painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstones. Therefore, biliary colic is an incorrect answer as it is a painful condition. Haemolytic anaemia is also an incorrect answer as the blood test results would differ from this patient’s results. The correct answer is cholangiocarcinoma, which is a cancer of the biliary tree that can cause painless obstructive jaundice. Gilbert’s syndrome is not the most appropriate answer as it only presents with a raised bilirubin and does not cause an increase in ALP.

      Understanding Cholangiocarcinoma

      Cholangiocarcinoma, also known as bile duct cancer, is a serious medical condition that can be caused by primary sclerosing cholangitis. This disease is characterized by persistent biliary colic symptoms, which can be accompanied by anorexia, jaundice, and weight loss. In some cases, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant may be present, which is known as the Courvoisier sign. Additionally, periumbilical lymphadenopathy (Sister Mary Joseph nodes) and left supraclavicular adenopathy (Virchow node) may be seen.

      One of the main risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma is primary sclerosing cholangitis. This condition can cause inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts, which can lead to the development of cancer over time. To detect cholangiocarcinoma in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis, doctors often use a blood test to measure CA 19-9 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The antenatal ultrasound (US) performed on a baby small for gestational age, reveals...

    Incorrect

    • The antenatal ultrasound (US) performed on a baby small for gestational age, reveals a midline abdominal wall defect with a membranous sac enclosing the protruding intestinal contents. Is it advantageous to offer amniocentesis for additional genetic investigations, despite the potential risks involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early diagnosis of any genetic conditions associated with this defect

      Explanation:

      BWS can also cause gigantism, which may explain the macrosomia observed in this case. Genetic and chromosomal abnormalities are commonly associated with omphalocoele, and genetic studies are conducted to detect any such abnormalities early on, not just Down’s syndrome.

      The US findings indicate the presence of an omphalocoele, not a gastroschisis, which is an abdominal wall defect without a membranous sac covering, usually located to the right of a normal umbilical cord insertion site. As such, genetic studies are not used to diagnose either defect, and this option is incorrect.

      Omphalocoele can be diagnosed without genetic studies, but if the membranous sac ruptures in utero, there may be some uncertainty in the diagnosis. In such cases, genetic studies can help confirm the diagnosis, given the high incidence of associated genetic abnormalities with omphalocoele.

      While foetuses with omphalocoele are more likely to have associated structural defects, genetic studies are not useful in identifying these. An echocardiogram would be a more effective means of detecting any other structural defects.

      Gastroschisis and Exomphalos: Congenital Visceral Malformations

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis is a condition where there is a defect in the anterior abdominal wall, located just beside the umbilical cord. On the other hand, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, is a condition where the abdominal contents protrude through the anterior abdominal wall, but are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      In terms of management, vaginal delivery may be attempted for gastroschisis, and newborns should be taken to the operating room as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. For exomphalos, a caesarean section is indicated to reduce the risk of sac rupture. A staged repair may be undertaken as primary closure may be difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure. If this occurs, the sac is allowed to granulate and epithelialize over the coming weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, a point will be reached when the sac contents can fit within the abdominal cavity. At this point, the shell will be removed, and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for the newborn.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - On examining the caecum, what structure is most likely to be detected at...

    Incorrect

    • On examining the caecum, what structure is most likely to be detected at the point where all the tenia coli converge?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Appendix base

      Explanation:

      The tenia coli come together at the bottom of the appendix.

      The Caecum: Location, Relations, and Functions

      The caecum is a part of the colon located in the proximal right colon below the ileocaecal valve. It is an intraperitoneal structure that has posterior relations with the psoas, iliacus, femoral nerve, genitofemoral nerve, and gonadal vessels. Its anterior relations include the greater omentum. The caecum is supplied by the ileocolic artery and its lymphatic drainage is through the mesenteric nodes that accompany the venous drainage.

      The caecum is known for its distensibility, making it the most distensible part of the colon. However, in cases of complete large bowel obstruction with a competent ileocaecal valve, the caecum is the most likely site of eventual perforation. Despite this potential complication, the caecum plays an important role in the digestive system. It is responsible for the absorption of fluids and electrolytes, as well as the fermentation of indigestible carbohydrates. Additionally, the caecum is a site for the growth and proliferation of beneficial bacteria that aid in digestion and immune function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old man has been experiencing dysphagia and regurgitation of undigested food for...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has been experiencing dysphagia and regurgitation of undigested food for the past 2 months. He also complains of halitosis and a chronic cough. During examination, a small neck swelling is observed which gurgles on palpation. Barium studies reveal a diverticulum or pouch forming at the junction of the pharynx and the esophagus. Can you identify between which muscles this diverticulum commonly occurs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles

      Explanation:

      A posteromedial diverticulum located between the thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles is the cause of a pharyngeal pouch, also known as Zenker’s diverticulum. This triangular gap, called Killian’s dehiscence, is where the pouch develops. When food or other materials accumulate in this area, it can lead to symptoms such as neck swelling, regurgitation, and bad breath.

      A pharyngeal pouch, also known as Zenker’s diverticulum, is a condition where there is a protrusion in the back of the throat through a weak area in the pharynx wall. This weak area is called Killian’s dehiscence and is located between two muscles. It is more common in older men and can cause symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, regurgitation, aspiration, neck swelling, and bad breath. To diagnose this condition, a barium swallow test combined with dynamic video fluoroscopy is usually performed. Treatment typically involves surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old obese woman presents with a 4-hour history of right upper quadrant...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old obese woman presents with a 4-hour history of right upper quadrant abdominal pain that started after a meal. Upon physical examination, tenderness was noted upon palpation of the right upper quadrant. An abdominal ultrasound revealed the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder. The surgeon opted for a cholecystectomy to remove the gallbladder. During the surgery, the surgeon identified the cystic duct and the inferior surface of the liver to locate the hepatobiliary triangle. What is the third border of the hepatobiliary triangle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common hepatic duct

      Explanation:

      The area known as the hepatobiliary triangle is defined by three borders: the common hepatic duct on the medial side, the cystic duct on the inferior side, and the inferior edge of the liver on the superior side. This space is particularly important during laparoscopic cholecystectomy, as it allows for safe ligation and division of the cystic duct and cystic artery. It’s worth noting that the common bile duct is formed by the joining of the common hepatic duct and the cystic duct, but it is not considered one of the borders of the hepatobiliary triangle. The cystic artery, on the other hand, is located within this anatomical space. Finally, while the gastroduodenal artery does arise from the common hepatic artery, it is not one of the borders of the hepatobiliary triangle.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 42-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense abdominal pain on the right side. Upon further inquiry, she describes the pain as crampy, intermittent, and spreading to her right shoulder. She has no fever. The patient notes that the pain worsens after meals.

      Which hormone is accountable for the fluctuation in pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Explanation:

      The hormone that increases gallbladder contraction is Cholecystokinin (CCK). It is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine, particularly in response to a high-fat meal. Although it has many functions, its role in increasing gallbladder contraction may exacerbate biliary colic caused by gallstones in the patient described.

      Gastrin, insulin, and secretin are also hormones that can be released in response to food intake, but they do not have any known effect on gallbladder contraction. Therefore, CCK is the most appropriate answer.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain in the epigastric region. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption, but this is his first visit to the department. Upon examination, he is sweating profusely and has a fever. His heart rate is 130 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. You diagnose him with acute pancreatitis and are concerned about potential complications.

      What symptom is most likely to be present in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blue discolouration of the flank regions

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing acute pancreatitis, possibly due to excessive alcohol consumption. As this is his first visit to the emergency department, it is unlikely to be a sudden attack on top of chronic pancreatitis. The presence of tachycardia and hypotension suggests that he is also experiencing blood loss. The correct answer should identify an acute condition associated with blood loss.

      a. Bulky, greasy stools are a long-term complication of chronic pancreatitis, indicating that the pancreas has lost its exocrine function and is unable to properly digest food.

      b. Grey Turner’s sign is a sign of blood pooling in the retroperitoneal space, which can occur due to inflammation of the retroperitoneal pancreas.

      c. This is a complication of long-term diabetes or chronic pancreatitis.

      d. Ascites is not typically associated with an acute first-time presentation of pancreatitis, although it can have many causes.

      e. This description is typical of an abdominal obstruction, which may cause nausea and vomiting.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are working on a general surgical receiving ward when a 70-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • You are working on a general surgical receiving ward when a 70-year-old woman is admitted from the emergency department with sudden and severe abdominal pain that radiates to her back. The patient reports that she is normally healthy, but has been struggling with rheumatoid arthritis for the past few years, which is improving with treatment. She does not consume alcohol and has had an open cholecystectomy in the past, although she cannot recall when it occurred.

      Blood tests were conducted in the emergency department:

      - Hb 140 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets 350 * 109/L (150-400)
      - WBC 12.9 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Amylase 1200 U/L (70-300)

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis can be caused by azathioprine.

      It is important to note that the symptoms and blood tests suggest acute pancreatitis. The most common causes of this condition are gallstones and alcohol, but these have been ruled out through patient history. Although there is a possibility of retained stones in the common bile duct after cholecystectomy, it is unlikely given the time since the operation.

      Other less common causes include trauma (which is not present in this case) and sodium valproate (which the patient has not been taking).

      Therefore, the most likely cause of acute pancreatitis in this case is azathioprine, an immunosuppressive medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, which is known to have a side effect of acute pancreatitis.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is not considered a risk factor for the development of oesophageal cancer?...

    Incorrect

    • What is not considered a risk factor for the development of oesophageal cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood group O

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus. The most common presenting symptom is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss, vomiting, and other possible features such as odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, and cough.

      To diagnose oesophageal cancer, upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is used, and endoscopic ultrasound is preferred for locoregional staging. CT scanning of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is used for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT may be used for detecting occult metastases if metastases are not seen on the initial staging CT scans. Laparoscopy is sometimes performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. In addition to surgical resection, many patients will be treated with adjuvant chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of painless left-sided facial weakness, along with difficulty speaking and a drooping mouth. She expresses concern about having a stroke, but her medical history is unremarkable. Upon further examination, you rule out a stroke and suspect that she may be experiencing Bell's palsy, an unexplained paralysis of the facial nerve.

      What signs would you anticipate discovering during the examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Taste impairment of the anterior tongue

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve’s chorda tympani branch is responsible for providing taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Bell’s palsy is a condition characterized by unilateral facial nerve weakness or paralysis, which can result in impaired taste sensation in the anterior tongue.

      Upper motor neuron lesions typically spare the forehead, as alternative nerve routes can still provide innervation. In contrast, lower motor neuron lesions like Bell’s palsy can cause forehead paralysis.

      While ptosis may occur in Bell’s palsy, it typically presents unilaterally rather than bilaterally.

      Although patients with Bell’s palsy may complain of tearing eyes, tear production is actually decreased due to loss of control of the eyelids and facial muscles.

      The facial nerve controls the motor aspect of the corneal reflex, so an abnormal corneal reflex may be observed in Bell’s palsy.

      Nerve Supply of the Tongue

      The tongue is a complex organ that plays a crucial role in speech and taste. It is innervated by three different cranial nerves, each responsible for different functions. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue receive general sensation from the lingual branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) and taste sensation from the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve (CN VII). On the other hand, the posterior one-third of the tongue receives both general sensation and taste sensation from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX).

      In terms of motor function, the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) is responsible for controlling the movements of the tongue. It is important to note that the tongue’s nerve supply is essential for proper functioning, and any damage to these nerves can result in speech and taste disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old man with dyspepsia is scheduled for an upper GI endoscopy. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with dyspepsia is scheduled for an upper GI endoscopy. During the procedure, an irregular erythematous area is observed protruding proximally from the gastro-oesophageal junction. To confirm a diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus, which of the following cell types must be present in addition to specialised intestinal metaplasia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Goblet cell

      Explanation:

      The presence of goblet cells is a requirement for the diagnosis of Barrett’s esophagus.

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.

      The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.

      The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old man is found to have a right-sided colon cancer and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is found to have a right-sided colon cancer and a significant family history of colorectal and ovarian cancer. Upon genetic testing, he is diagnosed with hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) caused by a mutation in the MSH2 gene. What is the role of this gene?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DNA mismatch repair

      Explanation:

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man presents with a sudden exacerbation of arthralgia affecting his hands...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a sudden exacerbation of arthralgia affecting his hands and wrists. He also complains of feeling excessively fatigued lately. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Upon examination, his BMI is found to be 35 kg/m2. Laboratory tests reveal:

      - Na+ 140 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      - Urea 3.8 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 100 µmol/l
      - Plasma glucose 11.8 mmol/l
      - ALT 150 u/l
      - Serum ferritin 2000 ng/ml

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Hereditary haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects how the body processes iron. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. The symptoms in the early stages can be vague and non-specific, such as feeling tired and experiencing joint pain. As the condition progresses, it can lead to chronic liver disease and a condition known as bronze diabetes, which is characterized by iron buildup in the pancreas causing diabetes, and a bronze or grey pigmentation of the skin. Based on the patient’s symptoms of joint pain, elevated ALT levels, and significantly high ferritin levels, it is highly likely that they have haemochromatosis.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms and Complications

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to iron accumulation in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is prevalent in people of European descent, with 1 in 10 carrying a mutation in the genes affecting iron metabolism. Early symptoms of haemochromatosis are often non-specific, such as lethargy and arthralgia, and may go unnoticed. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin pigmentation.

      Other complications of haemochromatosis include diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis. While some symptoms are reversible with treatment, such as cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy, liver cirrhosis is irreversible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 83-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a painful red swelling on...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a painful red swelling on her cheek that she noticed this morning. She has been feeling fatigued for a few days. The patient lives alone and has a history of pressure ulcers due to limited mobility. During the examination, you observe an erythematous swelling above the right angle of the mandible that is warm and tender to the touch. You suspect that the patient has a parotid gland infection. What is the nerve that provides sensation to the parotid gland capsule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Greater auricular nerve

      Explanation:

      The greater auricular nerve (GAN) supplies sensation to the parotid gland, skin overlying the gland, mastoid process, and outer ear. The facial nerve supplies muscles of facial expression, taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, and sensation from parts of the external acoustic meatus, auricle, and retro-auricular area. The mandibular nerve carries sensory and motor fibers, supplying sensation to the lower lip, lower teeth and gingivae, chin, and jaw, and motor innervation to muscles of mastication. The lingual nerve supplies sensation to the tongue and travels with taste fibers from the chorda tympani of the facial nerve. The glossopharyngeal nerve carries taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue, sensation from the pharyngeal wall and tonsils, the middle ear, external auditory canal, and auricle, and parasympathetic fibers that supply the parotid gland. Infective parotitis is uncommon and has increased risk in dehydrated or intubated elderly patients.

      The parotid gland is located in front of and below the ear, overlying the mandibular ramus. Its salivary duct crosses the masseter muscle, pierces the buccinator muscle, and drains adjacent to the second upper molar tooth. The gland is traversed by several structures, including the facial nerve, external carotid artery, retromandibular vein, and auriculotemporal nerve. The gland is related to the masseter muscle, medial pterygoid muscle, superficial temporal and maxillary artery, facial nerve, stylomandibular ligament, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, stylohyoid muscle, internal carotid artery, mastoid process, and styloid process. The gland is supplied by branches of the external carotid artery and drained by the retromandibular vein. Its lymphatic drainage is to the deep cervical nodes. The gland is innervated by the parasympathetic-secretomotor, sympathetic-superior cervical ganglion, and sensory-greater auricular nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation produces a water-rich, serous saliva, while sympathetic stimulation leads to the production of a low volume, enzyme-rich saliva.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A different patient undergoes a femoral hernia repair and during the operation, the...

    Incorrect

    • A different patient undergoes a femoral hernia repair and during the operation, the surgeon decides to enter the abdominal cavity to resect small bowel. A transverse incision is made two thirds of the way between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis. Which of the structures listed below will remain intact?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior lamina of the rectus sheath

      Explanation:

      At this level, the incision is situated beneath the arcuate line and there is a lack of posterior wall in the rectus sheath.

      The rectus sheath is a structure formed by the aponeuroses of the lateral abdominal wall muscles. Its composition varies depending on the anatomical level. Above the costal margin, the anterior sheath is made up of the external oblique aponeurosis, with the costal cartilages located behind it. From the costal margin to the arcuate line, the anterior rectus sheath is composed of the external oblique aponeurosis and the anterior part of the internal oblique aponeurosis. The posterior rectus sheath is formed by the posterior part of the internal oblique aponeurosis and transversus abdominis. Below the arcuate line, all the abdominal muscle aponeuroses are located in the anterior aspect of the rectus sheath, while the transversalis fascia and peritoneum are located posteriorly. The arcuate line is the point where the inferior epigastric vessels enter the rectus sheath.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 72-year-old man is receiving an angiogram to investigate gastrointestinal bleeding. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is receiving an angiogram to investigate gastrointestinal bleeding. During the procedure, the radiologist inserts the catheter into the coeliac axis. What is the usual spinal level where this vessel originates from the aorta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      The coeliac axis is positioned at T12 and branches off the aorta at an almost horizontal angle. It comprises three significant branches.

      Branches of the Abdominal Aorta

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.

      The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.

      The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.

      Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old man presents with an inguinal hernia. What structure needs to be...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with an inguinal hernia. What structure needs to be divided during open surgery to access the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      What forms the front wall of the inguinal canal? The external oblique aponeurosis forms the front wall. To access the canal and perform a hernia repair, the aponeurosis is divided. The posterior wall is made up of the transversalis fascia and conjoint tendons, which are not typically cut to gain entry to the inguinal canal.

      The External Oblique Muscle: Anatomy and Function

      The external oblique muscle is one of the three muscles that make up the anterolateral aspect of the abdominal wall. It is the outermost muscle and plays an important role in supporting the abdominal viscera. The muscle originates from the outer surfaces of the lowest eight ribs and inserts into the anterior two-thirds of the outer lip of the iliac crest. The remaining portion of the muscle becomes the aponeurosis, which fuses with the linea alba in the midline.

      The external oblique muscle is innervated by the ventral rami of the lower six thoracic nerves. Its main function is to contain the abdominal viscera and raise intra-abdominal pressure. Additionally, it can move the trunk to one side. The aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle also forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal, which is an important anatomical landmark in the groin region.

      Overall, the external oblique muscle is a crucial component of the abdominal wall and plays an important role in maintaining the integrity of the abdominal cavity. Its unique anatomy and function make it an important muscle for both movement and protection of the internal organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old retired fisherman presents with a sudden episode of rectal bleeding. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old retired fisherman presents with a sudden episode of rectal bleeding. The bleeding was significant and included clots. He feels dizzy and has collapsed.

      He reports experiencing heartburn regularly and takes lisinopril and bendroflumethiazide for hypertension, as well as aspirin and ibuprofen for hangovers. He drinks six large whisky measures and smokes 10 cigarettes daily.

      During examination, he is apyrexial, his heart rate is 106 bpm, blood pressure is 108/74 mmHg, and his respiratory rate is 18. He appears pale and has epigastric tenderness.

      What is the immediate action that should be taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 1litre 0.9% NaCl over one hour

      Explanation:

      Urgent Resuscitation Needed for Patient in Hypovolaemic Shock

      A patient is experiencing hypovolaemic shock and requires immediate infusion of colloid or crystalloid. Waiting for eight hours is not an option, and dextrose is not recommended as it quickly moves out of the intravascular space. The patient will undergo endoscopy, but only after initial resuscitation. While regular omeprazole may help prevent recurrence, it is not urgent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 58-year-old man with a history of multiple emergency department admissions for alcohol-related...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man with a history of multiple emergency department admissions for alcohol-related injuries and admissions under the general medical team for alcohol withdrawal is admitted after a twelve-day drinking binge. He presents with confusion, icterus, and hepatomegaly, with stigmata of chronic liver disease. Upon admission, his blood work shows thrombocytopenia, transaminitis with hyperbilirubinemia, and a severe coagulopathy. The diagnosis is severe acute alcoholic hepatitis. In liver disease-associated coagulopathy, which clotting factor is typically increased?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      Coagulopathy in Liver Disease: Paradoxical Supra-normal Factor VIII and Increased Thrombosis Risk

      In liver failure, the levels of all clotting factors decrease except for factor VIII, which paradoxically increases. This is because factor VIII is synthesized in endothelial cells throughout the body, unlike other clotting factors that are synthesized only in hepatic endothelial cells. Additionally, good hepatic function is required for the rapid clearance of activated factor VIII from the bloodstream, leading to further increases in circulating factor VIII. Despite conventional coagulation studies suggesting an increased risk of bleeding, patients with chronic liver disease are paradoxically at an increased risk of thrombosis formation. This is due to several factors, including reduced synthesis of natural anticoagulants such as protein C, protein S, and antithrombin, which are all decreased in chronic liver disease.

      Reference:
      Tripodi et al. An imbalance of pro- vs anticoagulation factors in plasma from patients with cirrhosis. Gastroenterology. 2009 Dec;137(6):2105-11.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old male patient is diagnosed with an inguinal hernia and is scheduled...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient is diagnosed with an inguinal hernia and is scheduled for open surgical repair. During the procedure, the surgeons opt to use a mesh to reinforce the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. What structures will be located behind the mesh?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Explanation:

      The posterior wall of the inguinal canal is formed by the transversalis fascia, the conjoint tendon, and the deep inguinal ring located laterally. The superior wall (roof) is made up of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles, while the anterior wall consists of the aponeurosis of the external oblique and internal oblique muscles. The lower wall (floor) is formed by the inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament.

      The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - During a left hemicolectomy the sigmoid colon is mobilised. As the bowel is...

    Incorrect

    • During a left hemicolectomy the sigmoid colon is mobilised. As the bowel is retracted medially a vessel is injured, anterior to the colon. Which one of the following is the most likely vessel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonadal vessels

      Explanation:

      During a right hemicolectomy, the gonadal vessels and ureter are crucial structures located at the posterior aspect that may be vulnerable to injury.

      The Caecum: Location, Relations, and Functions

      The caecum is a part of the colon located in the proximal right colon below the ileocaecal valve. It is an intraperitoneal structure that has posterior relations with the psoas, iliacus, femoral nerve, genitofemoral nerve, and gonadal vessels. Its anterior relations include the greater omentum. The caecum is supplied by the ileocolic artery and its lymphatic drainage is through the mesenteric nodes that accompany the venous drainage.

      The caecum is known for its distensibility, making it the most distensible part of the colon. However, in cases of complete large bowel obstruction with a competent ileocaecal valve, the caecum is the most likely site of eventual perforation. Despite this potential complication, the caecum plays an important role in the digestive system. It is responsible for the absorption of fluids and electrolytes, as well as the fermentation of indigestible carbohydrates. Additionally, the caecum is a site for the growth and proliferation of beneficial bacteria that aid in digestion and immune function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 36-year-old man who is overweight visits his GP with complaints of heartburn...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man who is overweight visits his GP with complaints of heartburn and regurgitation that worsen when lying flat. The GP suspects gastroesophageal reflux caused by a hiatus hernia and recommends lifestyle changes to promote weight loss, as well as antacids.

      Where is the opening through which this problem occurs located in the diaphragm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      The level at which the oesophagus passes through the diaphragm is T10, which is also where the oesophageal hiatus is located. When the stomach protrudes through this opening, it is referred to as a hiatus hernia.

      Understanding Diaphragm Apertures

      The diaphragm is a muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity and plays a crucial role in respiration. Diaphragm apertures are openings within this muscle that allow specific structures to pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity. The three main apertures are the aortic hiatus at T12, the oesophageal hiatus at T10, and the vena cava foramen at T8. To remember the vertebral levels of these apertures, a useful mnemonic involves counting the total number of letters in the spellings of vena cava (8), oesophagus (10), and aortic hiatus (12).

      In addition to these main apertures, smaller openings in the diaphragm exist in the form of lesser diaphragmatic apertures. These allow much smaller structures to pass through the thoracic cavity into the abdomen across the diaphragm. Examples of lesser diaphragmatic apertures include the left phrenic nerve, small veins, superior epigastric artery, intercostal nerves and vessels, subcostal nerves and vessels, splanchnic nerves, and the sympathetic trunk. Understanding the diaphragm and its apertures is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 72-year-old female presents to her local physician complaining of general fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old female presents to her local physician complaining of general fatigue and tiredness. She reports no fever, night sweats, or weight loss. She maintains an active lifestyle and attends fitness classes weekly. Her medical history includes hypertension, type II diabetes mellitus, constipation, and depression.

      The physician orders blood tests, and the results are as follows:

      - Hb: 113 g/l
      - Platelets: 239 * 109/l
      - WBC: 6 * 109/l
      - Neuts: 2 * 109/l
      - Lymphs: 2 * 109/l
      - Eosin: 0.3 * 109/l
      - Na+: 142 mmol/l
      - K+: 3.2 mmol/l
      - Bilirubin: 12 µmol/l
      - ALP: 23 u/l
      - ALT: 10 u/l
      - γGT: 23 u/l
      - Urea: 4 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 50 µmol/l
      - Albumin: 30 g/l

      Which medication is most likely causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Senna

      Explanation:

      Prolonged use of senna increases the risk of hypokalemia, which is evident in the patient’s blood results. The symptoms of mild hypokalemia are non-specific and include fatigue, muscle weakness, constipation, and rhabdomyolysis. Given the patient’s medical history of constipation, it is likely that she has been taking a laxative, which could be either osmotic or a stimulant. Both types of laxatives are known to cause hypokalemia, and in this case, senna is the likely culprit.

      Heparin can cause hyperkalemia, especially when used in conjunction with spironolactone, ACE inhibitors, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and trimethoprim. Heparin inhibits aldosterone synthesis, leading to increased potassium retention and sodium excretion. This effect is more pronounced in elderly individuals, diabetics, and those with renal failure. The risk of hyperkalemia increases with higher doses, prolonged use, and unfractionated heparin therapy.

      Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. It promotes the loss of sodium and water from the body without depleting potassium. Amiloride causes hyperkalemia by inhibiting sodium reabsorption at various points in the kidneys, which reduces potassium and hydrogen secretion and subsequent excretion.

      Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that is known to cause hyperkalemia and is therefore not the cause of the patient’s hypokalemia.

      Understanding Laxatives

      Laxatives are frequently prescribed medications in clinical practice, with constipation being a common issue among patients. While constipation may be a symptom of underlying pathology, many patients experience simple idiopathic constipation. The British National Formulary (BNF) categorizes laxatives into four groups: osmotic, stimulant, bulk-forming, and faecal softeners.

      Osmotic laxatives, such as lactulose, macrogols, and rectal phosphates, work by drawing water into the bowel to soften stools and promote bowel movements. Stimulant laxatives, including senna, docusate, bisacodyl, and glycerol, stimulate the muscles in the bowel to contract and move stool along. Co-danthramer, a combination of a stimulant and a bulk-forming laxative, should only be prescribed to palliative patients due to its potential carcinogenic effects.

      Bulk-forming laxatives, such as ispaghula husk and methylcellulose, work by increasing the bulk of stool and promoting regular bowel movements. Faecal softeners, such as arachis oil enemas, are not commonly prescribed but can be used to soften stool and ease bowel movements.

      In summary, understanding the different types of laxatives and their mechanisms of action can help healthcare professionals prescribe the most appropriate treatment for patients experiencing constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old male has been diagnosed with carcinoma of the head of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male has been diagnosed with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas. He has reported that his stool is sticking to the toilet bowl and not flushing away. Which enzyme deficiency is most likely causing this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lipase

      Explanation:

      Steatorrhoea, characterized by pale and malodorous stools that are hard to flush, is primarily caused by a deficiency in lipase.

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.

      Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.

      Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following is the least probable outcome associated with severe atrophic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least probable outcome associated with severe atrophic gastritis in elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duodenal ulcers

      Explanation:

      A duodenal ulcer is unlikely to occur as a result of the decrease in gastric acid. However, it should be noted that gastric polyps may develop (refer to below).

      Types of Gastritis and Their Features

      Gastritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the stomach lining. There are different types of gastritis, each with its own unique features. Type A gastritis is an autoimmune condition that results in the reduction of parietal cells and hypochlorhydria. This type of gastritis is associated with circulating antibodies to parietal cells and can lead to B12 malabsorption. Type B gastritis, on the other hand, is antral gastritis that is caused by infection with Helicobacter pylori. This type of gastritis can lead to peptic ulceration and intestinal metaplasia in the stomach, which requires surveillance endoscopy.

      Reflux gastritis occurs when bile refluxes into the stomach, either post-surgical or due to the failure of pyloric function. This type of gastritis is characterized by chronic inflammation and foveolar hyperplasia. Erosive gastritis is caused by agents that disrupt the gastric mucosal barrier, such as NSAIDs and alcohol. Stress ulceration occurs as a result of mucosal ischemia during hypotension or hypovolemia. The stomach is the most sensitive organ in the GI tract to ischemia following hypovolemia, and prophylaxis with acid-lowering therapy and sucralfate may minimize complications. Finally, Menetrier’s disease is a pre-malignant condition characterized by gross hypertrophy of the gastric mucosal folds, excessive mucous production, and hypochlorhydria.

      In summary, gastritis is a condition that can have different types and features. It is important to identify the type of gastritis to provide appropriate management and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (0/1) 0%
Passmed