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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus presents for his annual review. He is currently taking metformin 500 mg twice daily.
On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 130/84 mmHg. His glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is 63 mmol/mol (normal range: < 48 mmol/mol), while his urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 1.2 mg/mmol (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol).
What is the most appropriate action to take to minimise his risk of kidney disease?Your Answer: Start ramipril
Correct Answer: Increase metformin to 1 g twice daily
Explanation:Optimizing Glycemic Control in Type II Diabetes: Treatment Options for Renal Protection
The prevalence of kidney disease is increasing in those with type II diabetes, making primary prevention crucial. Optimal control of blood glucose and blood pressure are key factors in preventing renal disease. In a patient with normal blood pressure but elevated HbA1c, increasing metformin to optimize glycemic control is appropriate. While ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor antagonists are useful for renoprotection in diabetic patients, they should be reserved for those with evidence of kidney failure. Insulin therapy should also be considered only after trying other oral diabetic medications. Low-protein diets are recommended for patients with established renal disease, but not for those without microalbuminuria. Overall, optimizing glycemic control is the priority in preventing renal disease in type II diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 58-year-old woman with diet-controlled type II diabetes is being treated with a thiazide, a beta blocker and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for hypertension. Her General Practitioner has recently increased some of her medication and has asked her to return to the surgery for a repeat blood pressure measurement and blood test to check for renal function and electrolytes.
Investigations:
Investigation Results Normal value
Serum potassium concentration 3.1 mmol/l 3.5-5.0 mmol/l
Blood pressure 156/94 mmHg <140/90 mmHg
Serum creatinine concentration 115 µmol/l 70-120 µmol/l
Which of the following is the single most likely cause of her hypokalaemia?
Your Answer: The thiazide diuretic
Explanation:Causes of Hypokalaemia: Understanding the Factors that Lower Potassium Levels
Hypokalaemia, or low potassium levels, can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is the use of thiazide diuretics, which inhibit sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. This can lead to excess potassium loss via urine, especially in patients with underlying renal impairment. However, the use of a potassium-sparing diuretic can help offset this problem.
Another possible cause of hypokalaemia is primary aldosteronism, also known as Conn syndrome. This condition can cause hypertension and hypokalaemia, but it only accounts for a small percentage of hypertension cases.
Low dietary potassium intake is also a factor that can contribute to hypokalaemia, although it is less common in people who are eating normally. Potassium depletion is more likely to occur in cases of starvation.
Renal tubular acidosis type 4, which is often seen in patients with diabetes, is associated with hyperkalaemia rather than hypokalaemia. On the other hand, renal tubular acidosis types 1 and 2 are linked to hypokalaemia.
Lastly, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors tend to raise the plasma potassium concentration rather than decrease it, due to their action on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
Understanding the various causes of hypokalaemia is important in identifying and treating the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 49-year-old patient sees you as part of a health check-up.
He asks you your views about whether he should have a PSA (prostate-specific antigen) check.Your Answer: The patient should be dissuaded from a PSA check as there is no evidence that screening for prostate cancer improves mortality rates from the disease
Explanation:PSA Testing and Prostate Cancer Screening
Current advice from the Department of Health states that patients should not be refused a PSA test if they request one. However, patients should be informed about the implications of the test. While there is no clear evidence to support mass prostate cancer screening, studies have shown that diagnosing patients through case presentation has led to improved cancer mortality rates in the USA. It is important to note that many patients with prostate cancer do not experience symptoms, and urinary symptoms are not always indicative of the disease. Additionally, prostate cancer can develop in patients as young as their fifth decade of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old diabetic woman is in her seventh year of haemodialysis. She visits her General Practitioner with symptoms of pain, numbness and tingling in both hands during the early hours of the morning. She also complains of stiffness in her shoulders, hips and knees.
What diagnosis best fits with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Uraemic neuropathy
Correct Answer: Dialysis amyloidosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, Shoulder Pain, and Flexor Tenosynovitis
Dialysis Amyloidosis: A Likely Diagnosis
The patient in question has been undergoing dialysis therapy for six years, which puts them at risk for dialysis amyloidosis. This condition occurs due to the accumulation of beta-2-microglobulin (B2M) in the body, which is not effectively cleared during dialysis. Symptoms of B2M amyloidosis typically appear after five years of dialysis therapy and often present as a triad of carpal tunnel syndrome, shoulder pain, and flexor tenosynovitis in the hands. The presence of all three symptoms in this patient strongly supports a diagnosis of dialysis amyloidosis.
Other Possible Diagnoses
Rheumatoid arthritis is a possible diagnosis due to joint pain and stiffness, but the absence of joint swelling makes it less likely. Diabetic neuropathy can cause sensory and motor neuropathies, but the joint symptoms in this patient do not support this diagnosis. Seronegative arthritis is unlikely due to the absence of joint swelling, and it doesn’t account for the neuropathic symptoms seen in this patient. Uraemic neuropathy is a distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy caused by uraemic toxins, but the presence of joint symptoms in this patient doesn’t support a diagnosis of neuropathy.
Conclusion
Based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, dialysis amyloidosis is the most likely diagnosis. However, further testing and evaluation may be necessary to confirm this diagnosis and rule out other possible conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of consuming bendroflumethiazide?
Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Correct Answer: Pseudogout
Explanation:Gout is more likely to occur as a result of taking bendroflumethiazide, rather than pseudogout.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of urinary incontinence. She recently gave birth to her second child through vaginal delivery about two months ago and has resumed exercising. However, she experiences incontinence during aerobics and jogging. On physical examination, she appears healthy with a blood pressure of 120/80 and a BMI of 24 kg/m2. Abdominal examination is normal. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?
Your Answer: Refer her for supervised pelvic floor exercises
Explanation:Treatment Options for Urinary Incontinence
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects many women. Stress or mixed UI can be treated with supervised pelvic floor muscle training, which should be offered as first-line treatment for at least three months. Bladder training, oxybutynin, or solifenacin are treatments for overactive bladder, while sacral nerve stimulation is used for detrusor overactivity in patients who have failed conservative treatment. Pelvic floor exercises are effective in preventing and treating stress incontinence, and supervised exercises have been shown to improve symptoms post-pregnancy. Electrical stimulation or surgical referral are other options if exercises are ineffective. Urodynamic investigations before initial treatment do not improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with chronic renal failure presents with anaemia.
Select the single most likely cause.Your Answer: Erythropoietin deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease
Anaemia is a common complication in patients with chronic kidney disease, with a prevalence of about 12%. As the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls, the prevalence of anaemia increases. Patients should be investigated if their haemoglobin falls to 110g/L or less or if symptoms of anaemia develop.
The typical normochromic normocytic anaemia of chronic kidney disease mainly develops from decreased renal synthesis of erythropoietin. Anaemia becomes more severe as the glomerular filtration rate decreases. Iron deficiency is also common and may be due to poor dietary intake or occult bleeding. Other factors contributing to anaemia include the presence of uraemic inhibitors, a reduced half-life of circulating blood cells, or deficiency of folate or vitamin B12.
Although supplements of vitamin C have been used as adjuvant therapy in the anaemia of chronic kidney disease, NICE recommends that they should not be prescribed for this purpose as evidence suggests no benefit. It is important to monitor and manage anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease to improve their quality of life and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 8
Correct
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Which option from the following list is currently considered the least valuable use of the prostate specific antigen (PSA) test in clinical practice?
Your Answer: Screening
Explanation:Understanding the Total PSA Test and Digital Rectal Examination for Prostate Cancer Diagnosis and Monitoring
Prostate cancer is a common cancer in men, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. The total PSA test and digital rectal examination (DRE) are commonly used to diagnose and monitor prostate cancer. These tests are ordered when a man has symptoms that could be due to prostate cancer, such as obstructive lower urinary symptoms, unexplained low back pain, pelvic pain, or bone pain.
The PSA level at the time of diagnosis can indicate the tumor burden. A higher PSA level indicates a higher tumor burden in the body. A PSA of < 10 is favorable, while a PSA of > 20 is considered unfavorable. The stage/prognostic grouping of prostate cancer is based on the stage, PSA level, and Gleason score.
The total PSA test may also be ordered during treatment for men who have been diagnosed with prostate cancer to verify the effectiveness of treatment and at regular intervals after treatment to monitor for cancer recurrence. It is also ordered at regular intervals when a man with cancer is participating in ‘watchful waiting’ and not currently being treated for his prostate cancer.
Screening for prostate cancer, particularly by the PSA test, is controversial. While it can lead to early detection and treatment of prostate cancer, about 15% of men with a negative PSA test have prostate cancer, and about 65% of men with a positive PSA test have a negative prostate biopsy. A systematic review and meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials found that screening for prostate cancer increases the probability of diagnosis, but there is no statistically significant effect on death rates. The included studies provided little information about the potential harms associated with screening.
In conclusion, understanding the total PSA test and digital rectal examination is crucial for the diagnosis and monitoring of prostate cancer. While screening for prostate cancer remains controversial, these tests are essential for men with symptoms that could be due to prostate cancer and for those who have been diagnosed with prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-year-old man has recently read about prostate cancer and asks whether he should undergo a digital rectal examination to assess his prostate.
For which of the following would it be most appropriate to conduct a digital rectal examination (DRE) to assess prostate size and consistency?Your Answer: In a patient with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)
Explanation:Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing: Important Considerations
In patients with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), it is important to consider the possibility of locally advanced prostate cancer causing obstructive LUTS. Therefore, a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test and digital rectal exam (DRE) should be offered to men with obstructive symptoms.
While family history is a significant risk factor for prostate cancer, a grandfather’s history of the disease may not be as significant as a first-degree relative’s (father or brother) history.
If a man presents with symptoms of urinary tract infection, it is important to investigate and treat the infection before considering any PSA testing. Prostate cancer typically doesn’t cause symptoms of urinary tract infection.
Currently, there is no formal screening program for prostate cancer. However, men may choose to request a PSA test after being informed of the potential benefits and risks. It is important to note that DRE alone should not be used for screening.
Prior to testing for PSA, it is recommended to perform DRE at least a week prior as it can falsely elevate PSA levels.
Key Considerations for Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 10
Correct
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An 80-year-old patient presents with lower urinary tract symptoms. Which of the following statements about benign prostatic hyperplasia is not true?
Your Answer: Goserelin is licensed for refractory cases
Explanation:The use of Goserelin (Zoladex) is not recommended for treating benign prostatic hyperplasia.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are conducting an annual medication review for a 70-year-old female patient with a medical history of hypertension and a myocardial infarction 6 years ago. During her blood test taken a week ago, her estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) was found to be 45 mL/min/1.73 m2, indicating reduced kidney function and a possible diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The patient is curious about what other tests are needed to confirm CKD, aside from repeating her kidney function test in 3 months. What other tests should be recommended?
Your Answer: She should bring in an early morning urine sample for dipstick testing and if it shows proteinuria or haematuria it should be sent for urine ACR calculation
Correct Answer: She should bring in an early morning urine sample to be dipped for haematuria and sent for urine ACR calculation
Explanation:To diagnose CKD in a patient with an eGFR <60, it is necessary to measure the creatinine level in the blood, obtain an early morning urine sample for ACR testing, and dip the urine for haematuria. CKD is confirmed when these tests show a persistent reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. Proteinuria is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease and mortality, and an early morning urine sample is preferred for ACR analysis. The patient should provide another blood sample after 90 days to confirm the diagnosis of CKD. Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old lady presents with urinary incontinence. Her history appears to be consistent with stress incontinence. She describes large leaks of urine over the past six months. She often leaks urine when coughing or climbing up stairs and sometimes wakes up a few times at night to urinate. She doesn't complain of dysuria or haematuria. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender and urinalysis is normal. Her BMI is 25.1 and she doesn't smoke. She has tried pelvic floor exercises for 9 months which haven't worked. She is not keen on surgery.
What medication is licensed for urinary stress incontinence in this patient?Your Answer: Desmopressin
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Urinary Incontinence
Urinary stress incontinence can be managed through lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine intake, maintaining steady fluid intake, losing weight, and quitting smoking. Pelvic floor exercises can also be helpful. If these measures are not effective, surgical options may be considered. Duloxetine can be used as a second-line treatment if the patient prefers medical grounds or if surgery is not an option. For urge incontinence, first-line medications include solifenacin, oxybutynin, and tolterodine. Desmopressin is used for conditions such as diabetes insipidus, multiple sclerosis, enuresis, and haemophilia and von Willebrand’s disease. By following these treatment options, patients can manage their urinary incontinence and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 75-year-old terminally ill man with pancreatic cancer presents to the Emergency Department. He complains of abdominal pain and has not passed urine for ten hours.
On examination, he has an easily palpable, enlarged bladder. You decide to insert a urinary catheter.
What is the most appropriate way to approach this procedure in this patient?Your Answer: Once urine flow is achieved, push the catheter as far as it can go before inflating the balloon
Explanation:To ensure proper catheterisation, it is important to push the catheter in as far as it can go before inflating the balloon, once urine flow has been achieved. Aseptic technique should always be used to reduce the risk of infection. It is not advisable to use force to overcome resistance during catheter insertion, as this can create a false passage. The smallest catheter size that allows for effective drainage should be used, unless there is an infection or postoperative bleeding, in which case a larger bore may be necessary to minimise obstruction risk. For long-term catheterisation, an indwelling Foley catheter with an inflatable balloon should be used instead of a straight (Nelaton) catheter that is immediately removed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 48-year-old-man presents to his General Practitioner very anxious as he has noticed blood in his urine that morning. For the past three days, he has been experiencing some lower abdominal discomfort, increased urinary frequency and mild dysuria. He is usually fit and well and doesn't take any regular medications. He is afebrile and normotensive. Urine dipstick is positive for blood, leukocytes and nitrites.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Prescribe antibiotics and advise him to return if no improvement in symptoms within 48 hours
Explanation:If a patient presents with symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI), it is recommended to prescribe antibiotics and advise them to return if their symptoms do not improve within 48 hours. A routine nephrology referral is not necessary in this case, as the patient’s haematuria can be explained by the UTI. However, if a patient has unexplained visible haematuria, urgent urological investigations should be conducted. It is not advisable to book an urgent blood test for prostate-specific antigen until after the UTI has been treated, unless there is a strong suspicion of prostate cancer. According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotics should be started immediately for men with typical UTI symptoms, and urine culture should be sent away for analysis. If visible haematuria persists or recurs after successful treatment of the UTI, an urgent suspected cancer referral should be sent. In men over 45 years old, a 2-week-wait referral should be considered in the absence of UTI symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman undergoes a routine health assessment. She feels well, has never smoked, and has no complaints. The examination is unremarkable. Investigations reveal microscopic haematuria in the urine and the following results. She has no pain, dysuria and was not exercising prior to collection.
Hb 140 g/L
Platelets 280 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 12 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?Your Answer: Reassure and re-check in 6 weeks
Correct Answer: Urgent (2-week) referral to a urologist
Explanation:If a patient aged 60 or over presents with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, it is important to exclude bladder cancer. Referral using the suspected cancer pathway should be made within 2 weeks. The urologist may request investigations such as a urine red cell morphology, CT intravenous pyelogram, and urine cytology. However, CT kidneys, ureter and bladder is not appropriate at this stage as it assesses radio-opaque stones in the renal tract. Routine referral to a urologist is also not ideal if bladder cancer is suspected. In resource-poor settings, the GP should commence relevant investigations for bladder cancer while waiting for the urology appointment. Reassuring and re-checking in two weeks or six weeks may be appropriate for lower risk cases.
Bladder cancer is a common urological cancer that primarily affects males aged 50-80 years old. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons increase the risk of developing the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is also a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, such as inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are rare. The most common bladder malignancies are urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and adenocarcinoma. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with papillary growth patterns having a better prognosis. The remaining tumors may be of higher grade and prone to local invasion, resulting in a worse prognosis.
The TNM staging system is used to describe the extent of bladder cancer. Most patients present with painless, macroscopic hematuria, and a cystoscopy and biopsies or TURBT are used to provide a histological diagnosis and information on depth of invasion. Pelvic MRI and CT scanning are used to determine locoregional spread, and PET CT may be used to investigate nodes of uncertain significance. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, surgery (radical cystectomy and ileal conduit), and radical radiotherapy. The prognosis varies depending on the stage of the cancer, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T, N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 63-year-old lady presents to your clinic with complaints of urine leakage when she sneezes and coughs. She denies dysuria but reports seeing blood in her urine. She has no gastrointestinal symptoms. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Urinalysis reveals the presence of blood, and an MSU shows RBC>100/mm3. She has no known allergies. What would be your approach to managing this patient?
Your Answer: Refer urgently to urology
Explanation:Managing Urinary Incontinence and Haematuria in Women
Stress urinary incontinence can be managed through lifestyle changes such as fluid and caffeine intake reduction, and pelvic floor muscle training. If medical or surgical treatment is preferred, duloxetine can be used as a second-line option. However, trimethoprim is not appropriate in the absence of urinary infection. Routine referral to urology may be necessary for surgical management, but only if there are no red flags.
On the other hand, nephrology referral is indicated for women under 50 years old with microscopic haematuria, proteinuria, or decreased eGFR. In this case, an urgent urology referral is necessary due to the patient’s macroscopic haematuria without urinary tract infection and unexplained microscopic haematuria at her age.
Managing urinary incontinence and haematuria in women requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Proper diagnosis and referral to the appropriate specialist can help ensure effective treatment and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are examining test results of a 23-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant. The midstream specimen of urine (MSU) indicates bacteriuria. During the discussion with the patient, she reports no symptoms of dysuria, frequency, or fever. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim for 3 days
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin for 7 days
Explanation:Antibiotics should be administered promptly to pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 70-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with symptoms consistent with membranous glomerulonephritis.
Which of the following drugs is most likely be responsible?
Your Answer: Gold
Explanation:Renal Complications in Rheumatoid Arthritis Treatment
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints and can lead to disability. The use of gold, penicillamine, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents as disease-modifying drugs in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can result in renal complications. Membranous glomerulonephritis is a common complication that occurs due to the widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane. Immunofluorescence reveals granular deposits of immunoglobulin and complement. Methotrexate, another drug used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can also be toxic to the kidney in large doses. However, such doses are unlikely in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor renal function in patients receiving these medications to prevent renal complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man goes for a routine medical check-up before starting a new job. He has no complaints, and his physical examination is unremarkable. Blood tests are ordered, and all the results are normal except for:
Uric acid 0.66 mmol/l (0.18-0.48 mmol/l)
After reading about gout online, the patient is concerned about his risk. What treatment should be started based on this finding?Your Answer: Colchicine
Correct Answer: No treatment
Explanation:NICE doesn’t recommend treating asymptomatic hyperuricaemia to prevent gout. While high levels of serum uric acid are associated with gout, it is possible to have hyperuricaemia without experiencing any symptoms. Primary prevention of gout in such cases has been found to be neither cost-effective nor beneficial to patients. Instead, lifestyle changes such as reducing consumption of red meat, alcohol, and sugar can help lower uric acid levels without the need for medication. The other options listed are only indicated for the treatment of gout when symptoms are present.
Understanding Hyperuricaemia
Hyperuricaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of uric acid in the blood. This can be caused by an increase in cell turnover or a decrease in the excretion of uric acid by the kidneys. While some individuals with hyperuricaemia may not experience any symptoms, it can be associated with other health conditions such as hyperlipidaemia, hypertension, and the metabolic syndrome.
There are several factors that can contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia. Increased synthesis of uric acid can occur in conditions such as Lesch-Nyhan disease, myeloproliferative disorders, and with a diet rich in purines. On the other hand, decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by drugs like low-dose aspirin, diuretics, and pyrazinamide, as well as pre-eclampsia, alcohol consumption, renal failure, and lead exposure.
It is important to understand the underlying causes of hyperuricaemia in order to properly manage and treat the condition. Regular monitoring of uric acid levels and addressing any contributing factors can help prevent complications such as gout and kidney stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General Hospital dies suddenly. On reviewing her regular medications, you note that she was taking aspirin, a statin and three antihypertensive agents. She had also been receiving erythropoietin injections.
What is the most likely cause of sudden death in this patient?Your Answer: Cardiovascular disease
Explanation:Common Causes of Sudden Death in Patients Undergoing Renal Dialysis
Patients undergoing renal dialysis are at a high risk of cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Chronic renal failure leads to several risk factors, such as abnormal lipid levels and hypertension, that contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease. Statins and antihypertensive medications are commonly prescribed to manage these risk factors. Aspirin may also be prescribed to prevent vascular events, although it increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.
Although patients on dialysis are also at an increased risk of malignancies and pulmonary embolism, sudden death due to these causes is less common than sudden death due to cardiovascular failure. Occult malignancy and overwhelming sepsis are usually preceded by symptoms of illness, whereas sudden death is unexpected. Pulmonary embolism may occur in patients with multiple risk factors, but cardiovascular disease is a more likely cause of death in this context.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 58-year-old male presents with left-sided pain. He reports the pain as radiating from his left flank down to his groin. The pain is severe, comes in waves and the patient looks visibly restless. He has not taken any analgesia.
He has a past medical history of hypertension and stage 4 chronic kidney disease.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate initial analgesia to prescribe in this case?
Your Answer: IV paracetamol
Explanation:Choosing the Appropriate Analgesia for a Patient with Renal/Ureteric Colic
When treating a patient with renal or ureteric colic, it is important to consider their medical history and current condition before prescribing analgesia. In this case, the patient has severe kidney disease, which rules out the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as they can cause further harm to the kidneys.
The most appropriate initial analgesia for this patient is IV paracetamol. While opioids such as IV morphine can be considered, they should be reserved as a third-line option. Oral codeine may also be used, but only after NSAIDs and IV paracetamol have been ruled out.
It is important to note that NSAIDs such as oral naproxen and per rectal diclofenac are typically the first-line analgesics for renal/ureteric colic. However, they are contraindicated in this patient due to their severe kidney disease.
In summary, when choosing the appropriate analgesia for a patient with renal/ureteric colic, it is crucial to consider their medical history and current condition. In this case, IV paracetamol is the most appropriate initial option due to the patient’s severe kidney disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with a general feeling of unwellness. She reports low mood and energy, along with body aches. She is experiencing increased nausea, constipation, and reflux, which has led to a decrease in her appetite. However, she is staying well hydrated. Her medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes, GORD, and recently diagnosed hypertension. Recent blood tests revealed Hb of 135 g/L (115 - 160), urea of 5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and creatinine of 60 µmol/L (55 - 120). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Primary hypoparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of depression, nausea, constipation, and bone pain suggest a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. This condition is characterized by hypercalcaemia, which can cause the ‘moans, groans, and bones’ of hyperparathyroidism. Other common symptoms include polydipsia, polyuria, hypertension, renal stones, and pancreatitis.
It is important to distinguish primary hyperparathyroidism from secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is usually caused by renal disease. In this case, the patient’s recent blood tests showed normal renal function, making secondary hyperparathyroidism less likely. Primary hypoparathyroidism, a congenital condition, is also unlikely as it would cause low calcium and high phosphate levels, resulting in different symptoms than those presented by the patient.
Secondary hypoparathyroidism, which can result in depression due to chronic hypocalcaemia, is also unlikely as it is usually caused by damage to the parathyroid glands from neck surgery or radiation therapy, which the patient has not undergone.
Therefore, primary hyperparathyroidism remains the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms.
Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that is commonly seen in elderly females and is characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, or carcinoma. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism may include polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension.
Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypertension and multiple endocrine neoplasia, such as MEN I and II. To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan or look for a characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism called the pepperpot skull.
The definitive management for primary hyperparathyroidism is total parathyroidectomy. However, conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal, the patient is over 50 years old, and there is no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients who are not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic that mimics the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.
In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can cause various symptoms and is commonly seen in elderly females. It can be diagnosed through various tests and managed through surgery or medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a painful, persistent erection that has lasted for six hours and doesn't subside. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: Sickle cell disease
Explanation:Understanding Priapism: Causes and Types
Priapism is a medical condition characterized by prolonged and painful erections that can last for several hours. There are two types of priapism: low-flow (ischaemic) and high-flow (arterial). Low-flow priapism is the most common type and is often associated with sickle cell disease, leukaemia, thalassemia, and other medical conditions. It is caused by the inadequate return of blood from the penis, resulting in a rigid erection. High-flow priapism, on the other hand, is less common and is usually caused by a ruptured artery from a blunt injury to the penis or perineum.
Stuttering priapism is a distinct condition that is characterized by repetitive and painful episodes of prolonged erections. It is a type of low-flow priapism and is often associated with sickle cell disease. The duration of the erectile episodes in stuttering priapism is generally shorter than in the low-flow ischaemic type.
Other medical conditions that can cause priapism include glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, Fabry’s disease, neurologic disorders, such as spinal cord lesions and spinal cord trauma, and neoplastic diseases, such as prostate, bladder, testicular, and renal cancer and myeloma. Many drugs can also cause priapism, but nearly 50% of cases are idiopathic.
In conclusion, priapism is a serious medical condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the causes and types of priapism can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with haematuria. Investigations confirm the presence of a bladder carcinoma.
In his occupational history, select the single substance exposure which would be a significant risk factor for his current diagnosis.Your Answer: Arsenic
Correct Answer: Aromatic amines
Explanation:Occupational and Environmental Carcinogens: A Brief Overview
Exposure to certain chemicals and substances in the workplace and environment can increase the risk of developing cancer. Bladder carcinoma, for example, is linked to exposure to aromatic amines found in various industries such as dyes, paints, and textiles. Smoking is also a major contributor to bladder cancer. Asbestos, commonly found in construction materials, increases the risk of lung cancer and mesothelioma. Vinyl chloride, used in plastic production and tobacco smoke, is associated with liver cancer, brain cancer, lung cancer, lymphoma, and leukemia. Arsenic exposure predisposes individuals to skin cancer, while nickel exposure increases the risk of squamous-cell carcinomas in the lung and nasal cavity. It is important for individuals to be aware of potential carcinogens in their workplace and environment to take necessary precautions and reduce their risk of developing cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man of Mediterranean origin with chronic kidney disease presents for his annual check-up. His most recent eGFR is 50 mL/min/1.73m2 and his urine albumin creatinine ratio is 42 mg/mmol. He reports feeling well and adhering to the aspirin and atorvastatin prescribed to him last year. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home and provides a week's worth of readings, which indicate an average blood pressure of 143/95 mmHg.
What recommendations would you make for this patient?Your Answer: Start a calcium channel blocker
Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor
Explanation:For patients with chronic kidney disease, the urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) is an important measure of protein loss in the urine. If the ACR is 30 or more, the first line of treatment should be an ACE inhibitor, as it can reduce proteinuria and provide renal protection beyond its use as an antihypertensive. However, if the ACR is less than 30, current NICE guidelines on hypertension should be followed for treatment.
In the case of this patient, an ACE inhibitor should be considered as the first line of treatment since their ACR is greater than 30. Thiazide-like diuretics are a suitable alternative to calcium channel blockers for non-diabetic patients with hypertension and can be used as a second line option. Beta blockers are not a first line option for blood pressure control in non-diabetic patients and are only recommended as a step 4 treatment for hypertension.
If there is doubt about the validity of the patient’s home readings or if they prefer lifestyle management, monitoring without medication changes may be a viable option. However, tight blood pressure control is essential to slow the rate of deterioration of chronic kidney disease and reduce cardiovascular risk.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents with left loin pain which has been present for the last four to six weeks. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications.
The pain doesn't radiate from the left loin and it is not mechanical in nature. It is constant and has started to disturb his sleep at night. He reports that he is opening his bowels normally and denies any lower urinary tract symptoms. Systems review reveals he has lost just over half a stone in weight over the last two months. He tells you he also feels more tired over the last few months.
On examination there is no tenderness on palpation of the lower back at the site of pain. The overlying skin is normal and no masses are felt. Truncal movements and walking do not exacerbate the pain. Abdominal examination is normal. There are no groin abnormalities palpated. A left sided varicocoele is noted. His blood pressure is elevated at 178/98 mmHg.
What is the next best course of action in primary care to aid in establishing a diagnosis for this 49-year-old man?Your Answer: Prostate specific antigen blood test
Correct Answer: Faecal occult blood testing
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Renal Carcinoma
This patient is displaying signs and symptoms that suggest a possible renal carcinoma. The presence of non-mechanical back pain, weight loss, tiredness, hypertension, and left sided varicocoele should alert the clinician to consider a renal cause. It is important to rule out musculoskeletal causes for the back pain and to check for the presence of blood in the urine through a dipstick test.
Renal tumours are often picked up by ultrasound, with haematuria and PUO being more common presentations than pain. It is worth noting that renal and retroperitoneal tumours may cause obstruction of the left testicular vein, leading to a left-sided varicocoele. Therefore, if a varicocoele is found on testicular imaging, the kidneys should also be scanned for any masses. Overall, it is crucial to consider a renal aetiology when presented with these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman takes lithium for bipolar disorder. She presents with symptoms of polyuria, nocturia, and polydipsia, and her family is concerned about her confusion. They suspect diabetes, but her random blood glucose measurement is within the normal range. Her urine has a low specific gravity, and further tests reveal high plasma osmolality and low urine osmolality.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Psychogenic polydipsia
Correct Answer: Diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Understanding Diabetes Insipidus: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Diabetes insipidus is a condition that can be classified as either cranial or nephrogenic. Cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by head injury or pituitary disease, which leads to reduced production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). On the other hand, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by renal insensitivity to ADH, which can be acquired due to renal disease, drugs (such as lithium), or metabolic abnormalities (such as hypercalcaemia). There is also a congenital variety of diabetes insipidus.
The typical symptoms of diabetes insipidus include polyuria and polydipsia, which can lead to confusion if there is coexistent hypernatraemia. Paired urine and serum osmolality tests can show inappropriately low urine osmolality, and in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, plasma ADH is normal or elevated.
Treatment for cranial diabetes insipidus involves the use of desmopressin or chlorpropamide, along with addressing the underlying cause where appropriate. In nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, high doses of desmopressin are needed, and a combination of a thiazide diuretic and a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent is usually more effective.
It is important to note that patients who have been treated long-term with lithium salts for mood disorders have a higher prevalence of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (about 10%). Therefore, it is crucial to monitor these patients for this condition. Once it is established in a patient on lithium, it may not improve even after the drug is stopped, so early recognition is key.
In summary, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for diabetes insipidus is crucial for proper management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing. A colleague at work was recently diagnosed with prostate cancer which has prompted him to make this appointment.
He reports no problems passing urine and detailed questioning reveals no lower urinary tract symptoms and no history of haematuria or erectile dysfunction. He is currently well with no other specific complaints. He has one brother who is 65 and his father is still alive aged 86. There is no family history of prostate cancer.
He is very keen to have a PSA blood test performed as his work colleague's diagnosis has made him anxious.
Which of the following is appropriate advice to give the patient?Your Answer: He should be advised of the benefits and limitations of PSA testing and make an individual decision on whether to have the test
Correct Answer: He should have a digital rectal examination (DRE) and only if abnormal be offered PSA testing
Explanation:PSA Testing in Asymptomatic Men: Pros and Cons
PSA testing in asymptomatic men is a controversial issue, with some advocating for it as a screening test and others wary of overtreatment and patient harm. The limitations of PSA testing in terms of sensitivity and specificity, as well as the inability to distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, are major points of debate.
Currently, PSA testing is not recommended as a screening test for prostate cancer in men of any age. However, it should be offered to men who present with lower urinary tract symptoms, haematuria, or erectile dysfunction. For asymptomatic men with no family history of prostate cancer, it is important to discuss the pros and cons of the test and allow the patient to make their own decision.
Digital rectal examination (DRE) should also be offered, and advice given on the combined use of DRE and PSA testing to detect any prostate abnormalities. If a focal abnormality suggestive of cancer is found during DRE, this alone should prompt referral, and a PSA test should be performed but would not alter the decision to refer. Similarly, an abnormal PSA with a normal DRE should also prompt referral. A normal DRE doesn’t mean that PSA testing is necessarily unwarranted.
Family history of prostate cancer is an important factor to consider, with the risk of prostate cancer being higher in men with a family history of the disease. The patient should be counselled about the relevance of family history as part of their decision to have a PSA test. Overall, the decision to undergo PSA testing should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the potential benefits and risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman is experiencing depression. She has early morning waking, low mood, and no energy. She has lost interest in all her usual activities and feels like giving up. Additionally, she has a history of stress incontinence. Which medication can effectively treat both her depression and stress incontinence?
Your Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Depression and Stress Incontinence
Duloxetine is a medication that can be used to treat both depression and stress incontinence. It may be the best choice for patients who do not want or are not suitable for surgical treatment. However, before considering drug treatment, it is recommended that patients undertake at least three months of pelvic floor exercises. This can help improve symptoms and reduce the need for medication.
It is important to counsel patients about the potential adverse effects of duloxetine, which may include nausea, dry mouth, and constipation. Patients should also be advised to report any unusual symptoms or side effects to their healthcare provider. With proper management and monitoring, duloxetine can be an effective treatment option for depression and stress incontinence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of poor urinary stream and dribbling. He has had four urinary tract infections (UTIs) diagnosed in the last eight months. He is otherwise developmentally normal.
What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Urethral stricture
Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valve
Explanation:Possible Causes of Poor Urinary Stream in Boys
Poor urinary stream in boys can be a sign of urinary-tract obstruction, which is often caused by posterior urethral valves. While this condition is usually diagnosed before birth, delayed presentation can be due to recurrent urinary tract infections. Other possible causes of poor urinary stream include urethral stricture, bladder calculi, and neurogenic bladder. However, these conditions are less common and may be associated with other developmental or neurological issues. Vesicoureteric reflux, which occurs when urine flows back from the bladder up the ureters, may also be a result of urinary tract obstruction but is not likely to be the primary cause of poor urinary stream and terminal dribbling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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