-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
After an emergency Caesarian-section for foetal distress, the consultant obstetrician hands the paediatrician a normal term female infant. You observe that the infant is apnoeic, floppy and blue in colour.
What would be your initial step?Your Answer: Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
Correct Answer: Dry the neonate
Explanation:According to UK resuscitation guidelines, the first step in neonatal resuscitation is to dry the baby, remove any wet towels, and note the time. Within 30 seconds, an Apgar assessment should be conducted to evaluate the baby’s tone, breathing, and heart rate. If the baby is gasping or not breathing, the airway should be opened, and 5 inflation breaths should be given within 60 seconds. If there is no increase in heart rate, chest movement should be checked. If the chest is not moving, the head position should be rechecked, and other airway maneuvers should be considered. Inflation breaths should be repeated, and a response should be looked for. If there is still no increase in heart rate, chest compressions should be started with 3 compressions to each breath. The heart rate should be reassessed every 30 seconds. If the heart rate is still slow or undetectable, venous access and drugs should be considered. Atropine and intubation are later steps in the management.
The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 56-year-old man has arrived at the emergency department after ingesting 28 paracetamol tablets. He has a history of alcohol and drug addiction, as well as being under the care of the mental health crisis team. Prior to the overdose, he had been consuming alcohol heavily. His BMI is 24 kg/m² and he has smoked for 24 pack-years. He is currently taking a statin, omeprazole, and occasionally aspirin for pain relief. The results of his liver function tests show an AST level of 110 iu/l (3-30 iu/l). What aspect of this patient's medical history places him at a heightened risk of hepatotoxicity following his overdose?
Your Answer: Chronic alcohol use
Explanation:Patients who have a history of chronic alcohol intake, anorexia nervosa, or are taking liver-enzyme inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin or carbamazepine are at high risk of hepatotoxicity if they overdose on paracetamol. This can cause permanent damage to the liver and even lead to mortality. Acute alcohol intake, on the other hand, is not a risk factor for hepatotoxicity and may even be protective. Aspirin can harm the stomach lining and kidneys if taken too frequently, but it is unlikely to have a lasting effect on the liver. Statin use does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity. While an AST level of 110 iu/l indicates acute hepatocyte damage, it does not provide information on the long-term effects on the liver, which can be better assessed using Prothrombin time or albumin.
Risk Factors for Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, especially in certain groups of patients. Those taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or those with chronic alcohol excess or who take St John’s Wort are at an increased risk. Malnourished patients, such as those with anorexia nervosa, or those who have not eaten for a few days are also at a higher risk. Interestingly, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity, and may even have a protective effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors when treating patients who have overdosed on paracetamol.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents to your clinic after being diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis. You inform him that this diagnosis increases his likelihood of developing diabetes mellitus. What tests should you suggest to assess his risk for this condition?
Your Answer: Annual HbA1c
Explanation:Type 3c diabetes mellitus is a rare complication of pancreatitis that is more difficult to manage than type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus due to the accompanying exocrine insufficiency, which leads to malabsorption and malnutrition. The development of diabetes mellitus may take years after the onset of pancreatitis, necessitating lifelong monitoring through annual HbA1c measurements. An ultrasound of the pancreas will not provide any indication of diabetes development. Additionally, it is crucial to counsel the patient on their alcohol misuse, as it may exacerbate their pancreatitis.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A patient visits her General Practitioner (GP) with some questions about the Breast Cancer Screening Programme, regarding which she has recently received a letter.
Which of the following most accurately describes the components of breast cancer screening for a patient who is in her 50s?Your Answer: Triple assessment every three years
Correct Answer: Mammogram every three years
Explanation:Breast Cancer Screening and Assessment: What to Expect Every Three Years
The NHS offers routine breast cancer screening every three years for patients aged 50 to 70. This involves a mammogram, an X-ray of the breast tissue. If a suspicious lesion is found, the patient will be referred for triple assessment, which includes history taking, examination, imaging (mammography or ultrasound), and biopsy.
Ultrasound scans are not used for screening but may be used as an alternative to mammography in younger patients or men. A breast examination by a doctor is not part of the screening program but is performed as part of the triple assessment.
MRI scans are not used for screening but may be used for further assessment after a lesion has been identified. Knowing what to expect every three years can help patients feel more prepared and informed about their breast health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Breast
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
Liam, a 17-year-old boy, comes in for his annual asthma review. He has generally well-controlled asthma, with only one exacerbation requiring steroids this year. He takes 2 puffs of his beclomethasone inhaler twice daily, and salbutamol as needed, both via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI).
You decide to assess his inhaler technique. He demonstrates removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, and exhaling before placing his lips over the mouthpiece, pressing down on the canister while taking a slow breath in and then holding his breath for 10 seconds. He then immediately repeats this process for the second dose.
What suggestions could you offer to improve his technique?Your Answer: She should wait 30 seconds before repeating the dose
Explanation:To ensure proper drug delivery, it is important to use the correct inhaler technique. This involves removing the cap, shaking the inhaler, and taking a slow breath in while delivering the dose. After holding the breath for 10 seconds, it is recommended to wait for approximately 30 seconds before repeating the dose. In this case, the individual should have waited for the full 30 seconds before taking a second dose.
Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers
Proper inhaler technique is crucial for effective treatment of respiratory conditions such as asthma. The following guidelines are recommended by Asthma.org.uk, a resource recommended to patients by the British Thoracic Society, for using metered-dose inhalers.
To begin, remove the cap and shake the inhaler. Breathe out gently before placing the mouthpiece in your mouth. As you begin to breathe in slowly and deeply, press down on the canister and continue to inhale steadily. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable, before exhaling. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating the steps.
It is important to note that the inhaler should only be used for the number of doses indicated on the label before starting a new inhaler. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 9-month-old infant is presented to the emergency department by his parents due to several hours of profuse vomiting. The vomit is thick and green in colour, and the infant has not had any wet nappies in the past 24 hours. Upon examination, the infant appears distressed and is crying. An abdominal examination reveals a distended abdomen and absent bowel sounds. The infant has no significant medical history, and the pregnancy and delivery were uneventful. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Intestinal malrotation
Explanation:The likely diagnosis for an infant presenting with bilious vomiting and signs of obstruction is intestinal malrotation. This condition occurs when the bowel fails to loop efficiently during development, leading to an increased risk of volvulus and obstruction. The green color of the vomit is caused by conditions that cause intestinal obstruction distal to the ampulla of Vater. Biliary atresia, intussusception, and oesophageal atresia are other pediatric conditions that may cause vomiting, but they present with different symptoms and are not associated with bilious vomiting and obstruction.
Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders
Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.
Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.
Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.
Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.
Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.
Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 25-year-old male is stabbed outside a bar, he presents with brisk haemoptysis and a left chest drain is inserted in the ED which drained 750ml frank blood. Despite receiving 4 units of blood, his condition does not improve. His CVP is now 13. What is the most appropriate definitive management plan?
Your Answer: Thoracotomy in theatre
Explanation:The patient is suffering from cardiac tamponade, as evidenced by the elevated CVP and hemodynamic instability. The urgent and definitive treatment for this condition is an emergency thoracotomy, ideally performed in a surgical theater using a clam shell approach for optimal access. While pericardiocentesis may be considered in cases where surgery is delayed, it is not a commonly used option.
Thoracic Trauma: Common Conditions and Treatment
Thoracic trauma can result in various conditions that require prompt medical attention. Tension pneumothorax, for instance, occurs when pressure builds up in the thorax due to a laceration to the lung parenchyma with a flap. This condition is often caused by mechanical ventilation in patients with pleural injury. Symptoms of tension pneumothorax overlap with cardiac tamponade, but hyper-resonant percussion note is more likely. Flail chest, on the other hand, occurs when the chest wall disconnects from the thoracic cage due to multiple rib fractures. This condition is associated with pulmonary contusion and abnormal chest motion.
Pneumothorax is another common condition resulting from lung laceration with air leakage. Traumatic pneumothoraces should have a chest drain, and patients should never be mechanically ventilated until a chest drain is inserted. Haemothorax, which is most commonly due to laceration of the lung, intercostal vessel, or internal mammary artery, is treated with a large bore chest drain if it is large enough to appear on CXR. Surgical exploration is warranted if more than 1500 ml blood is drained immediately.
Cardiac tamponade is characterized by elevated venous pressure, reduced arterial pressure, and reduced heart sounds. Pulsus paradoxus may also occur with as little as 100 ml blood. Pulmonary contusion is the most common potentially lethal chest injury, and arterial blood gases and pulse oximetry are important. Early intubation within an hour is necessary if significant hypoxia is present. Blunt cardiac injury usually occurs secondary to chest wall injury, and ECG may show features of myocardial infarction. Aorta disruption, diaphragm disruption, and mediastinal traversing wounds are other conditions that require prompt medical attention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 25-year-old rugby player injured his shoulder after a heavy tackle during a match. He arrived at the Emergency Department in visible discomfort with a deformed right shoulder that appeared flattened and drooped lower than his left. An X-ray revealed an anterior dislocation.
What is the name of the nerve that passes around the surgical neck of the humerus?Your Answer: Anterior branch of the axillary nerve
Explanation:Nerve Branches and their Innervations in the Upper Limb
The upper limb is innervated by various nerves that originate from the brachial plexus. Each nerve has specific branches that innervate different muscles and areas of the arm. Here are some important nerve branches and their innervations in the upper limb:
1. Anterior branch of the axillary nerve: This nerve branch winds around the surgical neck of the humerus and innervates the teres minor, deltoid, glenohumeral joint, and skin over the inferior part of the deltoid.
2. Median nerve: This nerve passes through the carpal tunnel and innervates the muscles of the anterior forearm, as well as the skin over the palmar aspect of the hand.
3. Lateral cutaneous nerve: This nerve is a continuation of the posterior branch of the axillary nerve and sweeps around the posterior border of the deltoid, innervating the skin over the lateral aspect of the arm.
4. Posterior interosseous nerve: This nerve is a branch of the radial nerve and does not wind around the surgical neck of the humerus. It innervates the muscles of the posterior forearm.
5. Radial nerve: This nerve winds around the midshaft of the humerus and innervates the muscles of the posterior arm and forearm, as well as the skin over the posterior aspect of the arm and forearm.
Understanding the innervations of these nerve branches is important in diagnosing and treating upper limb injuries and conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
What is the cause of Ramsay Hunt syndrome?
Your Answer: HSV
Correct Answer: HZV
Explanation:Ramsay Hunt Syndrome: A Facial Paralysis Associated with Herpes Zoster
Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus or geniculate neuralgia, is a condition characterized by acute facial paralysis that occurs alongside herpetic blisters on the skin of the ear canal or auricle. This syndrome was first described by James Ramsay Hunt in 1907, who attributed the symptoms to an infection of the geniculate ganglion by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV).
Patients with Ramsay Hunt syndrome typically experience otalgia (ear pain) along with cutaneous and mucosal rashes. The condition is caused by the reactivation of VZV, which lies dormant in the sensory ganglia after an initial infection with chickenpox. The virus can then travel along the sensory nerves to the skin of the ear, causing blisters and inflammation.
Ramsay Hunt syndrome can be a debilitating condition, as the facial paralysis can affect a person’s ability to speak, eat, and drink. Treatment typically involves antiviral medication, corticosteroids, and supportive care to manage symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment are important for improving outcomes and reducing the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old girl presents to the GP clinic complaining of abdominal pain that has been ongoing for 3 days. She has been eating and drinking normally, has no urinary symptoms, and her bowel habits have not changed. She had a mild cold last week, but it has since resolved. Other than this, she is a healthy and happy child. On examination, her abdomen is soft but tender to the touch throughout. Her temperature is 37.5 degrees Celsius. Her chest is clear, and her heart sounds are normal. What is the most probable cause of this girl's abdominal pain?
Your Answer: Constipation
Correct Answer: Mesenteric adenitis
Explanation:The child is experiencing abdominal pain after a recent viral illness, which is a common precursor to mesenteric adenitis. However, the child is still able to eat and drink normally, indicating that it is unlikely to be appendicitis. Additionally, the child is passing normal stools, making constipation an unlikely cause. The absence of vomiting also makes gastroenteritis an unlikely diagnosis. While abdominal migraine is a possibility, it is less likely than mesenteric adenitis in this particular case.
Mesenteric adenitis refers to the inflammation of lymph nodes located in the mesentery. This condition can cause symptoms that are similar to those of appendicitis, making it challenging to differentiate between the two. Mesenteric adenitis is commonly observed after a recent viral infection and typically does not require any treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)