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  • Question 1 - You assess a 31-year-old patient who has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving despite...

    Correct

    • You assess a 31-year-old patient who has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving despite regular intercourse for 9 months. The patient is in good health and has no history of sexually transmitted infections. Menstrual periods have always been irregular, with months between menses. The patient's BMI is 20 kg/m² and physical examination is unremarkable.

      Semen analysis shows normal results. The patient's blood test results are as follows:

      Reference Range (female)
      Day 21 progesterone (nmol/L) 16 >30
      LH (mUI/mL) 22 3.3-100
      FSH (mUI/mL) 8 <30
      Total testosterone (nmol/L) 3.6 <2.7
      Prolactin (mIU/L) 325 <700
      SHBG (nmol/L) 20 19-145

      What is the most appropriate initial step to enhance the couple's chances of conceiving?

      Your Answer: Clomifene

      Explanation:

      Couples, including those with fertility issues, have a 15-20% chance of conceiving naturally within a year through regular unprotected sexual intercourse. However, this patient’s PCOS condition, which causes ovulation insufficiency, may prolong the process. Hence, a referral is necessary for assistance, and treatment with clomifene to stimulate ovulation would be suitable.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.

      Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.

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  • Question 2 - During a routine postnatal check, a 27-year-old woman who is breastfeeding her baby...

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    • During a routine postnatal check, a 27-year-old woman who is breastfeeding her baby and follows a vegan diet asks for advice on ensuring her milk provides the necessary nutrients for her child. As she has no underlying medical conditions, what daily supplement does the NHS recommend for women who follow a vegan diet while breastfeeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding women who follow a vegan diet may require a B12 supplement as this vitamin is primarily present in meat and dairy products. Vegans can obtain vitamin B12 from fortified breakfast cereals and yeast extracts like Marmite. Additionally, the NHS recommends that all breastfeeding women, regardless of their dietary preferences, should take a daily vitamin D supplement of 10 mcg to promote bone health for themselves and their baby. Women who are eligible for Healthy Start vouchers may receive free supplements, and their Health Visitor can provide guidance on this matter.

      Vitamin B12 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Unlike other vitamins, it can only be found in animal-based foods. The human body typically stores enough vitamin B12 to last for up to 5 years. This vitamin plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including acting as a cofactor for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine through the enzyme homocysteine methyltransferase, as well as for the isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl Co A via the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase. Additionally, it is used to regenerate folic acid in the body.

      However, there are several causes of vitamin B12 deficiency, including pernicious anaemia, Diphyllobothrium latum infection, and Crohn’s disease. When the body lacks vitamin B12, it can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy. To prevent these consequences, it is important to ensure that the body has enough vitamin B12 through a balanced diet or supplements.

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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman is seen for review with her baby six weeks postpartum....

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    • A 32-year-old woman is seen for review with her baby six weeks postpartum. She is using the lactational amenorrheoic method (LAM) for contraception.
      Which of the following should she be advised may increase her risk of pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Menstruation returning

      Explanation:

      Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) as a Contraceptive

      Breastfeeding can be used as a form of contraception through the lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM). This method works by suppressing ovarian activity, which prevents the return of menstrual periods after childbirth. For LAM to be effective, a woman must engage in full breastfeeding, which includes exclusive or almost exclusive breastfeeding with no other liquids or solids given.

      If the frequency or duration of breastfeeding decreases, the risk of menstrual periods and fertility increases. Women who experience bleeding within the first six months after childbirth have a higher risk of pregnancy than those who remain amenorrhoeic. To use LAM as a contraceptive, a woman must meet all three criteria: fully or nearly fully breastfeeding day and night, no long intervals between feeds, and amenorrhoeic and less than six months postpartum.

      When the rules of LAM are strictly followed, failure rates are less than 2%. Therefore, LAM can be an effective and natural form of contraception for women who choose to breastfeed their infants.

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  • Question 4 - A 48-year-old woman comes to see you to discuss her contraception. She has...

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    • A 48-year-old woman comes to see you to discuss her contraception. She has been using the progestogen-only pill for the past 4 years. She is currently amenorrhoeic. She is not sure how long she should continue to use contraception for and asks your advice.

      She was seen two months ago by a colleague who advised her to have her FSH levels checked. This has shown an FSH level of 42 (normal range: less than 30).

      What do you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat FSH now and if >30, then she can stop contraception in 1 year

      Explanation:

      FSH Testing for Women on Contraception

      Current guidance from the Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare suggests that women using progestogen-only contraception can have their FSH levels measured, but only if they are over 50 years old. However, a single elevated FSH reading is not enough to determine ovarian failure. If FSH levels are consistently above 30, contraception can be stopped after a year. It’s important to note that amenorrhea alone is not a reliable indicator of ovarian failure in women taking exogenous hormones. Additionally, for women using combined hormones, FSH testing during a hormone-free period is not a reliable indicator of ovarian failure. Proper testing and monitoring are crucial for women on contraception to ensure their reproductive health.

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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old patient with complex partial seizures controlled with carbamazepine is 32 weeks...

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    • A 25-year-old patient with complex partial seizures controlled with carbamazepine is 32 weeks pregnant.

      She has not had a seizure throughout pregnancy. She expresses a wish to breastfeed, but is concerned that the carbamazepine may affect her child.

      What advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum carbamazepine levels should be monitored whilst Breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Epilepsy and Pregnancy: Considerations for Medication and Breastfeeding

      Carbamazepine (CBZ) is present in breast milk, but only in small amounts. Breastfeeding mothers should be encouraged to continue breastfeeding as the levels of CBZ in breast milk are too low to cause any harm to the baby.

      Prior to conception, it is recommended that women take folic acid at a dose of 5 mg daily to prevent neural tube defects in the fetus. However, it is not recommended for breastfeeding mothers.

      For patients with well-controlled epilepsy, there is no increased risk of seizures during pregnancy or the postpartum period. While there is no routine need to monitor serum anti-epileptic concentrations, the NICE guidelines suggest monitoring levels in certain circumstances such as adjusting phenytoin dose, poor concordance, and suspected toxicity.

      Overall, it is important for women with epilepsy to work closely with their healthcare provider to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby during pregnancy and breastfeeding.

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  • Question 6 - At booking, which women should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test at...

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    • At booking, which women should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks due to their risk of gestational diabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Family history of a first degree relative with diabetes

      Explanation:

      Screening for Gestational Diabetes

      A family history of diabetes in a first-degree relative is a risk factor for gestational diabetes. Therefore, women with this risk factor should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends screening for gestational diabetes using risk factors in a healthy population. At the booking appointment, healthcare providers should determine the following risk factors: body mass index above 30 kg/m2, previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or above, previous gestational diabetes, family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Women with any of these risk factors should be offered testing for gestational diabetes using the two-hour 75 g OGTT. Diagnosis should be made using the criteria defined by the World Health Organization. Women who have had gestational diabetes in a previous pregnancy should be offered early self-monitoring of blood glucose or an OGTT at 16-18 weeks, and a further OGTT at 28 weeks if the results are normal. Women with any of the other risk factors for gestational diabetes should be offered an OGTT at 24-28 weeks. By identifying and managing gestational diabetes, healthcare providers can improve outcomes for both the mother and baby.

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  • Question 7 - You are assessing a 32-year-old woman who has recently given birth. She has...

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    • You are assessing a 32-year-old woman who has recently given birth. She has a lengthy medical history of rheumatoid arthritis but did not take any disease-modifying medications during pregnancy as her symptoms were well managed. Regrettably, she has experienced a flare-up of her symptoms after giving birth. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:

      - CRP 35 mg/L

      Her infant is currently 3 weeks old, and she is currently breastfeeding. She is curious if she can resume taking methotrexate. What is the current guidance provided in the British National Formulary (BNF)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate is contraindicated for breastfeeding mothers

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding is not recommended while taking Methotrexate.

      Breastfeeding Contraindications: Drugs and Other Factors to Consider

      Breastfeeding is generally recommended for infants as it provides numerous benefits for both the baby and the mother. However, there are certain situations where breastfeeding may not be advisable. One of the major contraindications is the use of certain drugs by the mother, which can be harmful to the baby. Antibiotics like penicillins and cephalosporins, as well as endocrine medications like levothyroxine, can be given to breastfeeding mothers. On the other hand, drugs like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, and benzodiazepines should be avoided.

      Aside from drugs, other factors like galactosaemia and viral infections can also make breastfeeding inadvisable. In the case of HIV, some doctors believe that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of transmission, especially in areas where infant mortality and morbidity rates are high.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these contraindications and to provide appropriate guidance to mothers who are considering breastfeeding. By doing so, they can help ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 8 - Which of the following anti-epileptic medications poses the highest risk of neurodevelopmental delay...

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    • Which of the following anti-epileptic medications poses the highest risk of neurodevelopmental delay when taken by expectant mothers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      The use of sodium valproate in pregnant women poses a considerable threat of causing neurodevelopmental delay.

      Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important to aim for monotherapy and to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, with sodium valproate being associated with neural tube defects, carbamazepine being considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics, and phenytoin being associated with cleft palate. Lamotrigine may be a safer option, but the dose may need to be adjusted during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn. It is important to seek specialist neurological or psychiatric advice before starting or continuing antiepileptic medication during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age. Recent evidence has shown a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of sodium valproate, leading to recommendations that it should not be used during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age unless absolutely necessary.

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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman comes in for a routine antenatal check-up at 15 weeks...

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    • A 32-year-old woman comes in for a routine antenatal check-up at 15 weeks of pregnancy. During the clinic visit, her blood pressure is measured at 154/94 mmHg, which is confirmed by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. Reviewing her medical records, it is noted that her blood pressure was 146/88 mmHg four weeks ago. A urine dipstick test shows normal results, and there is no significant medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-existing hypertension

      Explanation:

      It should be noted that the woman already had hypertension before becoming pregnant. Blood pressure issues related to pregnancy, such as pre-eclampsia or pregnancy-induced hypertension, typically do not occur until after 20 weeks of gestation. The fact that her ambulatory blood pressure readings were elevated rules out the possibility of her hypertension being caused by anxiety in a medical setting. It is important to consider the possibility of secondary hypertension, as high blood pressure in a woman of this age is not typical.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.

      After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 10 - You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old female who wants to start...

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    • You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old female who wants to start trying to conceive. She has a history of epilepsy and takes levetiracetam 250 mg twice daily.

      Which of the following would be most important to advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take folic acid 5 mg once daily from before conception until 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Women who are taking antiepileptic medication and are planning to conceive should be prescribed folic acid 5mg instead of the standard 400 mcg once daily. This high dose of folic acid should be taken from before conception until 12 weeks into the pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. It is important to refer these women to a specialist for assessment, but they should continue to use effective contraception until then. It is important to reassure these women that they are likely to have a normal pregnancy and healthy baby. Folic acid should be started as soon as possible, even if the pregnancy is unplanned.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.

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  • Question 11 - A new mother delivered a baby with ambiguous genitalia. She mentioned that she...

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    • A new mother delivered a baby with ambiguous genitalia. She mentioned that she and her spouse have a family history of sex hormone disorders, but neither of them have been impacted. What is the probable cause of hormone disorder in this case, considering the diagnosis of 5 alpha-reductase syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to convert testosterone to 5α-dihydrotestosterone

      Explanation:

      Disorders of Sex Development: Common Conditions and Characteristics

      Disorders of sex development refer to a group of conditions that affect the development of an individual’s reproductive system. The most common disorders are androgen insensitivity syndrome, 5-α reductase deficiency, male and female pseudohermaphroditism, and true hermaphroditism. Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that results in end-organ resistance to testosterone, causing genotypically male children to have a female phenotype. 5-α reductase deficiency, on the other hand, is an autosomal recessive condition that results in the inability of males to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, leading to ambiguous genitalia in the newborn period. Male and female pseudohermaphroditism are conditions where individuals have testes or ovaries but external genitalia are female or male, respectively. Finally, true hermaphroditism is a very rare condition where both ovarian and testicular tissue are present. Understanding the characteristics of these conditions is crucial in providing appropriate medical care and support for affected individuals.

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  • Question 12 - A 29-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has been experiencing fatigue...

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    • A 29-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has been experiencing fatigue and has not had a regular period for the past 5 months. She previously had a consistent 28-day cycle. A pregnancy test is negative, her pelvic exam is normal, and routine blood work is ordered:

      Complete blood count - normal
      Electrolyte panel - normal
      Thyroid function test - normal
      Follicle-stimulating hormone - 40 iu/l ( < 35 iu/l)
      Luteinizing hormone - 30 mIU/l (< 20 mIU/l)
      Oestradiol - 75 pmol/l ( > 100 pmol/l)

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature ovarian failure

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flashes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, and elevated FSH and LH levels. Hormone replacement therapy or a combined oral contraceptive pill is recommended until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT doesn’t provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes.

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  • Question 13 - A 27-year-old Indian woman contacts her doctor for guidance. She is currently 12...

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    • A 27-year-old Indian woman contacts her doctor for guidance. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and was in close proximity to her nephew who has been diagnosed with Chickenpox. The patient spent a few hours with her nephew and had physical contact such as hugging. The patient reports feeling fine and has no noticeable symptoms. She is unsure if she has had Chickenpox before.

      What is the best course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check antibody levels

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman is exposed to Chickenpox, it can lead to serious complications for both her and the developing fetus. To prevent this, the first step is to check the woman’s immune status by testing for varicella antibodies. If she is found to be non-immune, she should receive varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) as soon as possible for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP).

      It is important to note that the management and organization of the blood test can be arranged by the GP, although the midwife should also be informed. If the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant and non-immune, VZIG should be given immediately, but it may still be effective up to 10 days after exposure.

      For pregnant women who develop Chickenpox after 20 weeks of gestation, oral aciclovir or an equivalent antiviral should be started within 24 hours of rash onset. However, if the woman is less than 20 weeks pregnant, it is recommended to seek specialist advice.

      It is crucial to take action and not simply provide reassurance in cases where the woman is found to be non-immune to varicella, as both she and the fetus are at risk.

      Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.

      To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.

      If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.

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  • Question 14 - A 47-year-old woman seeks guidance regarding contraception options while experiencing perimenopausal symptoms. She...

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    • A 47-year-old woman seeks guidance regarding contraception options while experiencing perimenopausal symptoms. She and her partner are currently using condoms, which is satisfactory for them. Her last menstrual cycle occurred approximately 10 months ago. What advice should be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After 12 further months of amenorrhoea she may stop using condoms

      Explanation:

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

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  • Question 15 - Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who recently gave birth to a baby girl...

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    • Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who recently gave birth to a baby girl and wants to discuss contraception options. She used to take the combined pill but prefers not to use any form of contraception if possible. She is not currently breastfeeding. What is the duration after childbirth when she no longer needs contraception?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Up to 21 days

      Explanation:

      Nancy can be advised that she doesn’t need contraception for up to 21 days after giving birth. According to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare Guideline on Postnatal Sexual and Reproductive Health, contraceptive protection is not necessary before Day 21 postpartum. However, if Nancy wants to avoid pregnancy after Day 21, she should use a contraceptive method as ovulation may occur as early as Day 28 in non-breastfeeding women. Breastfeeding women who want to prevent pregnancy should also use a contraceptive method, although any method will be more effective due to reduced fertility. Fully breastfeeding women may rely on the lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) alone until breastfeeding decreases or other LAM criteria are no longer met.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The Progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first 2 days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than 6 weeks postpartum. If breastfeeding is between 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum, it is UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk postpartum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first 7 days.

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks. Meanwhile, the Lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old diabetic lady presents to you for advice on contraception. She reports...

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    • A 50-year-old diabetic lady presents to you for advice on contraception. She reports having regular periods lasting 5 days, which are not heavy. She is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has hypertension, which is managed with ramipril. Her most recent blood pressure reading was 120/82, and her BMI is 28. She has no history of migraines, breast cancer, or venous thromboembolism in herself or her family. She recently had a lipid check and has an upcoming appointment with another provider to discuss her dyslipidemia. What would be the safest form of contraception for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Copper coil

      Explanation:

      UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptives

      The UK medical eligibility criteria are used to guide clinical judgement for the use of contraceptives. For patients with multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, such as smoking, diabetes, hypertension, obesity, and dyslipidaemias, the copper IUCD is UKMEC 1 and IUS UKMEC 2. The copper coil is the safest option as it doesn’t interfere with any systemic risk factors for cardiovascular disease and has a UK medical eligibility score of 1. This means there is no restriction on the use of the contraceptive method.

      However, the combined oral contraceptive is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism and a potential link with cardiovascular and cerebrovascular disease. Therefore, it is not suitable for women with pre-existing risk factors for these conditions and scores a UK medical eligibility of 3. The other contraceptive options all have a UK medical eligibility score of 2, which is less favorable than a score of 1 with the copper coil. It is important to consider these criteria when choosing a contraceptive method for patients with multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease.

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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about her mental health...

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    • A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about her mental health after struggling to adjust to the birth of her first child a week ago. She reports feeling disorganised, experiencing auditory hallucinations, and having a low mood. She also mentions a previous miscarriage two years ago that was a difficult time for her. Is there an increased risk for this patient to develop this mental health condition again in a future pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25-50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.

      ‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.

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  • Question 18 - What is the accurate statement about the connection between IUDs and PID? ...

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    • What is the accurate statement about the connection between IUDs and PID?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk in first 20 days then returns to normal

      Explanation:

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

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  • Question 19 - A soon-to-be mother is curious about medications during pregnancy, particularly folic acid supplements....

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    • A soon-to-be mother is curious about medications during pregnancy, particularly folic acid supplements. What factors increase the likelihood of a couple having a baby with a neural tube defect (NTD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      If a couple has a history of neural tube defects (NTDs), either partner has a NTD, or they have a family history of NTDs, they are at high risk of conceiving a child with this condition. Additionally, if the woman has coeliac disease, diabetes, thalassaemia trait, or is taking antiepileptic drugs, the risk is also increased. However, being obese (with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) is not a risk factor for NTDs and may actually be protective. On the other hand, advancing maternal age is a known risk factor for Down’s syndrome, while maternal rubella can lead to multiple congenital malformations and mental retardation in the child.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.

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  • Question 20 - What factors are associated with the age of menopause onset in women? ...

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    • What factors are associated with the age of menopause onset in women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Age at menarche

      Explanation:

      Premature Menopause: Causes and Ethnic Differences

      Studies have not found a correlation between the age at which a woman experiences menarche and the age at which she enters menopause. However, premature menopause may be linked to various factors such as smoking, living at high altitudes, and poor nutritional status. Additionally, there may be a genetic predisposition to early menopause. While there is no evidence of ethnic differences in the age of menopause, certain ethnic groups may be more susceptible to specific causes of premature menopause.

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  • Question 21 - Which one of the following statements regarding uterine fibroids is incorrect? ...

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    • Which one of the following statements regarding uterine fibroids is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Undergo malignant change in 1 in 200 cases

      Explanation:

      Most pathologists hold the view that uterine leiomyosarcomas, which may appear as ‘fibroids’ at first, are most likely new growths rather than a conversion of pre-existing fibroids.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are believed to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility, but this is rare.

      Diagnosis is usually done through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is necessary. For menorrhagia, treatment options include the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, oral progestogen, and injectable progestogen. Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids includes GnRH agonists and ulipristal acetate, while surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, and complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia have been mentioned previously. Another complication is red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour and commonly occurs during pregnancy. Understanding uterine fibroids is important for women’s health, and seeking medical attention is necessary if symptoms arise.

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  • Question 22 - A 7-month-old infant has sensorineural deafness and a ventricular septal defect. Her mother...

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    • A 7-month-old infant has sensorineural deafness and a ventricular septal defect. Her mother gives a history of medication for acne, which was stopped when she realised she was pregnant.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause these defects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isotretinoin

      Explanation:

      Acne Medications and Pregnancy: Risks and Precautions

      Acne is a common skin condition that affects many people, including pregnant women. However, not all acne medications are safe to use during pregnancy. Here are some important things to know about the risks and precautions of using acne medications during pregnancy.

      Isotretinoin is a highly effective medication for reducing sebum secretion, but it is also highly teratogenic. Women who take isotretinoin must have a negative pregnancy test before treatment and use effective contraception during and after the course. Congenital deafness and central nervous system and heart defects may occur in children exposed to isotretinoin in utero.

      Topical retinoids, such as topical isotretinoin and topical retinoin, have a very low absorption rate through the skin. However, there are some reports of birth defects associated with their use, so women should avoid using them during pregnancy until more data is collected.

      Clindamycin, a topical and systemic antibiotic, has no reported adverse effects in pregnancy. Minocycline and oxytetracycline are less effective for acne treatment but are also less teratogenic. However, tetracyclines can stain bones and teeth, so they should be stopped if pregnancy occurs. Erythromycin is a more suitable antibiotic for pregnant women with acne.

      In summary, pregnant women with acne should consult with their healthcare provider before using any acne medication. It is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits of each medication and take appropriate precautions to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus.

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  • Question 23 - A 17-year-old patient presents requesting emergency contraception after unprotected intercourse the previous evening....

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old patient presents requesting emergency contraception after unprotected intercourse the previous evening. She would also like to start a contraceptive pill as she has no regular form of contraception at the moment. She is not sure where she is in her menstrual cycle as her periods are irregular. She smokes 5 cigarettes a day. Her past medical history includes asthma and appendicectomy. Her blood pressure is 102/66 mmHg and her body mass index (BMI) is 28 kg/m.²

      What factor in the history above needs to be taken into consideration for the dosage of the latter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Body mass index

      Explanation:

      Levonorgestrel dosage should be increased for individuals with a BMI greater than 26 or a weight exceeding 70 kg.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, and should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) for maximum efficacy. The single dose of levonorgestrel is 1.5mg, but should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. It is safe and well-tolerated, but may cause vomiting in around 1% of women. Ulipristal, on the other hand, is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that inhibits ovulation. It should be taken within 120 hours after intercourse, and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which may inhibit fertilization or implantation. It must be inserted within 5 days of UPSI, or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high-risk of sexually transmitted infection. The IUD is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle, and may be left in-situ for long-term contraception.

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  • Question 24 - A woman who is 28-weeks pregnant presents with a productive cough. Crackles are...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 28-weeks pregnant presents with a productive cough. Crackles are heard in the right base during examination and an antibiotic is deemed necessary. Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      The BNF recommends against the use of quinolones during pregnancy due to the risk of arthropathy observed in animal studies. While there have been reports of a potential increase in the risk of necrotizing enterocolitis with the use of co-amoxiclav during pregnancy, the evidence is not conclusive. The BNF states that co-amoxiclav is currently considered safe for use during pregnancy, and provides links to both the BNF and the UK teratology information service for further information.

      Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients

      When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.

      In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.

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  • Question 25 - A 27-year-old Caucasian woman who is 10 weeks pregnant visits her GP. This...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old Caucasian woman who is 10 weeks pregnant visits her GP. This is her first pregnancy. Her BMI is 29 kg/m² and she has no significant medical history or family history. The birthweight of her siblings is unknown. As per the current NICE guidelines, what investigation should be arranged in primary care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks only

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that all women with a BMI greater than 30 undergo screening for gestational diabetes using an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) between 24-28 weeks of pregnancy. Additionally, women who have risk factors for gestational diabetes, such as a family history of diabetes, a previous large baby weighing 4.5 kg or more, or belonging to an ethnic group with a high prevalence of diabetes, should also be offered an OGTT during this time. If a woman has previously had gestational diabetes, she should be offered an OGTT as soon as possible after booking and again at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal. Alternatively, early self-monitoring of blood glucose may be offered as an option.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old lady seeks your advice on contraception. She has recently entered a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old lady seeks your advice on contraception. She has recently entered a new relationship and wants to protect herself against pregnancy. She is in good health, doesn't experience migraines, and is a non-smoker. Her mother had breast cancer a decade ago, but has since been declared cancer-free. The patient has a confirmed BRCA1 gene mutation. Her BMI is 23 and her blood pressure is 124/82. Based on this information, what form of contraception would you recommend for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine copper coil

      Explanation:

      UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraception

      The UK medical eligibility criteria for contraception categorizes contraceptive methods into four categories. Category 1 indicates that there are no restrictions for use, while Category 4 indicates that use poses an unacceptable health risk. For patients with a BRCA gene mutation, the combined contraceptive pill has a UK Category rating of 3 and should definitely not be used. All of the other options are rated a UK Category 2, so will still need careful follow-up. The intrauterine copper coil is the only method that is rated a UK Category 1, making it the safest option to use here. There is no restriction on the use of this method for this condition. It is important to consider the UK medical eligibility criteria when choosing a contraceptive method to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the chosen method.

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  • Question 27 - A mother brings her 5 year-old daughter to clinic with a widespread rash....

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    • A mother brings her 5 year-old daughter to clinic with a widespread rash. You diagnose Chickenpox. You know her mother, who is also a patient at the practice, is currently 25 weeks pregnant with her second child. Should you take any action regarding her exposure to Chickenpox?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enquire as to her Chickenpox history

      Explanation:

      When pregnant women are exposed to Chickenpox, it is important to inquire about their prior history of the infection. If they are uncertain or have not had it before, it is recommended to test for varicella antibodies. In cases where they are found to be non-immune, varicella immunoglobulin should be considered. This treatment can be administered at any stage of pregnancy and is effective for up to 10 days following exposure.

      Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.

      To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.

      If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.

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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old trans woman presents to the GP seeking advice on contraception. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old trans woman presents to the GP seeking advice on contraception. They are looking for a method that can both prevent pregnancy and stop their menstrual cycle. The patient has previously used the combined contraceptive pill without any issues, but has required emergency contraception due to missed pills. They have no medical history of blood clots, cancer, or migraines, and do not smoke. There is no family history of breast cancer. The patient is currently receiving testosterone therapy for gender dysphoria at a gender identity clinic.

      During the examination, the patient's BMI is 23kg/m² and their blood pressure is 124/78 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's contraception needs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer the levonorgestrel intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      Patients assigned female at birth undergoing testosterone therapy should avoid contraceptives containing oestrogen as they can counteract the effects of the therapy. The recommended contraceptive option is the levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS), which is a progestogen-only method that doesn’t interfere with hormone regimens used in transgender treatment. Additionally, the IUS can reduce or stop vaginal bleeding. Given the patient’s forgetfulness and history of missed pills, the progesterone-only pill is not the best option. It is important to note that while testosterone therapy may suppress menstruation, it doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy and can even have harmful effects on a developing fetus.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.

      For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.

      In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.

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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of blood clots who takes warfarin has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of blood clots who takes warfarin has just missed a period and has a positive pregnancy test. She is concerned about the potential harm to the developing fetus.
      Which fetal anomaly is linked to the administration of this medication while pregnant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nasal hypoplasia

      Explanation:

      The Risks of Warfarin Use During Pregnancy

      Warfarin, a commonly used anticoagulant, is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its ability to cross the placental barrier and cause bleeding in the fetus. Its use during the first trimester, particularly between the sixth and ninth weeks, can lead to skeletal abnormalities such as nasal hypoplasia, limb abnormalities, and calcification of the vertebral column, femur, and heel bone. Other potential complications include low birthweight, developmental disabilities, and an increased risk of spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, neonatal death, and preterm birth. However, unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin can be used as safer alternatives. While warfarin is not known to cause neural tube defects or cleft lip and palate, it is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with its use during pregnancy.

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  • Question 30 - A 20-year-old patient comes in requesting to start taking a combined oral contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old patient comes in requesting to start taking a combined oral contraceptive pill. During the consultation, she mentions having experienced migraine with aura in the past. She asks why the combined oral contraceptive pill is not recommended for her. How should you respond?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Significantly increased risk of ischaemic stroke

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors

      Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.

      When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.

      In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

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