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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old gentleman has come to discuss the result of a routine annual...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old gentleman has come to discuss the result of a routine annual blood test at work. He is otherwise well with no symptoms reported.

      He was found to have a serum phosphate of 0.7.
      Other tests done include FBC, U+Es, LFTs, Calcium and PTH which were all normal.
      Serum phosphate normal range (0-8-1.4 mmol/L)

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound neck

      Explanation:

      Management of Mild Hypophosphataemia

      In cases of mild hypophosphataemia, monitoring is often sufficient. It may be helpful to check vitamin D levels as it can affect phosphate uptake and renal excretion, along with parathyroid hormone (PTH). If there is a concurrent low magnesium level, it may indicate dietary deficiencies.

      An ultrasound of the neck is not necessary unless there are signs of enlarged parathyroid glands. Oral phosphate is typically reserved for preventing refeeding syndrome in cases of anorexia, starvation, or alcoholism. Mild hypophosphataemia usually resolves on its own.

      Parenteral phosphate may be considered in acute situations but requires inpatient monitoring of calcium, phosphate, and other electrolytes. Referral should only be considered if the patient is symptomatic, has short stature or skeletal deformities consistent with rickets, or if the hypophosphataemia is chronic or severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old man presents for an insurance medical. He has no significant medical...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents for an insurance medical. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, his BMI is 23 kg/m2, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and auscultation of the heart reveals a mid-systolic click and a late systolic murmur (which are more pronounced when he stands up).
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Mitral valve prolapse

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mitral Valve Prolapse: Symptoms, Causes, and Associated Conditions

      Mitral valve prolapse is a condition where the leaflets of the mitral valve bulge in systole, affecting around 2-3% of the population. It can occur as an isolated entity or with heritable disorders of connective tissue. While most people are asymptomatic, some may experience symptoms such as anxiety, panic attacks, palpitations, syncope, or presyncope. The condition is also a risk factor for mitral regurgitation and carries a small risk of cerebral emboli and sudden death. Diagnosis is made through auscultation, with a mid-to-late systolic click and a late systolic murmur heard at the apex. Other heart conditions, such as atrial septal defect, aortic stenosis, mitral regurgitation, and mitral stenosis, have distinct murmurs that aid in diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up appointment 6 weeks after...

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    • A 75-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up appointment 6 weeks after undergoing catheter ablation due to unresponsive atrial fibrillation despite antiarrhythmic treatment. He has a medical history of asthma, which he manages with a salbutamol reliever and beclomethasone preventer inhaler, and type II diabetes, which he controls through his diet. The patient is currently receiving anticoagulation therapy in accordance with guidelines. There are no other significant medical histories.

      What should be the next course of action in his management?

      Your Answer: Continue anticoagulation long-term

      Explanation:

      Patients who have undergone catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation still need to continue long-term anticoagulation based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score. In the case of this patient, who has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 due to age and past medical history of diabetes, it is appropriate to continue anticoagulation.

      Amiodarone is typically used for rhythm control of atrial fibrillation, but it is not indicated in this patient who has undergone catheter ablation and has no obvious recurrence of AF.

      Beta-blockers and diltiazem are used for rate control of atrial fibrillation, but medication for AF is not indicated in this patient.

      Anticoagulation can be stopped after 4 weeks post catheter ablation only if the CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      19.7
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  • Question 4 - You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol measurement with regards lipid modification therapy for cardiovascular disease prevention.
      Which of the following lipoproteins contribute to 'non-HDL cholesterol'?

      You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol measurement with regards lipid modification therapy for cardiovascular disease prevention.

      Which of the following lipoproteins contribute to 'non-HDL cholesterol'?

      Your Answer: LDL, IDL and VLDL cholesterol

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Non-HDL Cholesterol in Statin Treatment

      NICE guidelines recommend that high-intensity statin treatment for both primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease should aim for a greater than 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol. Non-HDL cholesterol includes LDL, IDL, and VLDL cholesterol. In the past, LDL reduction has been used as a marker of statin effect. However, non-HDL reduction is more useful as it takes into account the atherogenic properties of IDL and VLDL cholesterol, which may be raised even in the presence of normal LDL levels.

      Using non-HDL cholesterol also has other benefits. Hypertriglyceridaemia can interfere with lab-based LDL calculations, but it doesn’t impact non-HDL calculation, which is measured by a different method. Additionally, a fasting sample is not required to measure non-HDL cholesterol, making sampling and monitoring easier. Overall, non-HDL cholesterol is an important marker to consider in statin treatment for cardiovascular disease prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      5.4
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  • Question 5 - You see a 50-year-old type one diabetic patient who has come to see...

    Correct

    • You see a 50-year-old type one diabetic patient who has come to see you regarding his erectile dysfunction. He reports a gradual decline in his ability to achieve and maintain erections over the past 6 months. After reviewing his medications and discussing treatment options, you suggest he try a phosphodiesterase (PDE-5) inhibitor and prescribe him sildenafil.

      What advice should you give this patient regarding taking a PDE-5 inhibitor?

      Your Answer: Sexual stimulation is required to facilitate an erection

      Explanation:

      PDE-5 inhibitors do not cause an erection on their own, but rather require sexual stimulation to assist in achieving an erection. They are typically the first choice for treating erectile dysfunction, as long as there are no contraindications.

      The primary cause of ED is often vasculogenic, such as cardiovascular disease, which means that the same lifestyle and risk factors that apply to CVD also apply to ED. Treatment for ED typically involves a combination of lifestyle changes and medication. It is important to advise patients to lose weight, quit smoking, reduce alcohol consumption, and increase exercise. Lifestyle changes and risk factor modification should be implemented before or alongside treatment.

      Generic sildenafil is available on the NHS without restrictions. Additionally, other PDE-5 inhibitors may be prescribed on the NHS for certain medical conditions, such as diabetes.

      For most men, as-needed treatment with a PDE-5 inhibitor is appropriate. The frequency of treatment will depend on the individual.

      Sildenafil should be taken one hour before sexual activity and requires sexual stimulation to facilitate an erection.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      15.4
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  • Question 6 - What additional action is mentioned in the latest NICE guidance for monitoring blood...

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    • What additional action is mentioned in the latest NICE guidance for monitoring blood pressure in diabetic patients compared to non-diabetic patients?

      Your Answer: Measure BP standing and sitting

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Treatment for Hypertension

      When monitoring treatment for hypertension, it is recommended by NICE to use clinic blood pressure (BP) measurements. However, for patients with type 2 diabetes, symptoms of postural hypotension, or those aged 80 and over, both standing and sitting BP should be measured. Patients who wish to self-monitor their BP should use home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) and receive proper training and advice. Additionally, for patients with white-coat effect or masked hypertension, ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or HBPM can be considered in addition to clinic BP measurements.

      It is important to note that for adults with type 2 diabetes who have not been previously diagnosed with hypertension or renal disease, BP should be measured at least annually. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively monitor and manage hypertension in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      23
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  • Question 7 - A 38-year-old man suffers a myocardial infarction (MI) and is prescribed aspirin, atorvastatin,...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man suffers a myocardial infarction (MI) and is prescribed aspirin, atorvastatin, ramipril and bisoprolol upon discharge. After a month, he experiences some muscle aches and undergoes routine blood tests at the clinic. His serum creatine kinase (CK) activity is found to be 650 u/l (normal range 30–300 u/l). What is the probable reason for the elevated CK levels in this individual?

      Your Answer: Effect of statin therapy

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Elevated CK Levels in a Post-MI Patient on Statin Therapy

      When a patient complains of symptoms while on statin therapy, it is reasonable to check their CK levels. An elevated level suggests statin-induced myopathy, and the statin should be discontinued. However, if the patient doesn’t complain of further chest pain suggestive of another MI, CK is no longer routinely measured as a cardiac marker. Heavy exercise should also be avoided, and CK levels usually return to baseline within 72 hours post-MI. While undiagnosed hypothyroidism can cause a rise in CK, it is less likely than statin-induced myopathy, and other clinical features of hypothyroidism are not mentioned in the scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      7.3
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  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss the uptitration of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss the uptitration of his medication as advised by cardiology. He suffered an anterior myocardial infarction (MI) four weeks ago. His history reveals that he is a smoker (20 per day for 30 years) and works in a sedentary office job, where he often works long days and eats ready meals to save time with food preparation.
      On examination, his heart rate is 62 bpm and his blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, body mass index (BMI) is 31. His bisoprolol is increased to 5 mg and ramipril to 7.5 mg.
      Which of the following is the single non-pharmacological intervention that will be most helpful in reducing his risk of a future ischaemic event?

      Your Answer: Stopping smoking

      Explanation:

      Reducing Cardiovascular Risk: Lifestyle Changes to Consider

      Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is a leading cause of death worldwide, but many of the risk factors are modifiable through lifestyle changes. The three most important modifiable and causal risk factors are smoking, hypertension, and abnormal lipids. While hypertension and abnormal lipids may require medication to make significant changes, smoking cessation is the single most important non-pharmacological, modifiable risk factor in reducing cardiovascular risk.

      In addition to quitting smoking, there are other lifestyle changes that can help reduce cardiovascular risk. A cardioprotective diet should limit total fat intake to 30% or less of total energy intake, with saturated fat intake below 7%. Low-carbohydrate dietary intake is also thought to be important in cardiovascular disease prevention.

      Regular exercise is also important, with 150 minutes or more per week of moderate-intensity aerobic activity and muscle-strengthening activities on at least two days a week recommended. While exercise is beneficial, stopping smoking remains the most effective lifestyle change for reducing cardiovascular risk.

      Salt restriction can also help reduce risk, with a recommended intake of less than 6 g per day. Patients should be advised to avoid adding salt to their meals and minimize processed foods.

      Finally, weight reduction should be advised to decrease future cardiovascular risk, with a goal of achieving a normal BMI. Obese patients should also be assessed for sleep apnea. By making these lifestyle changes, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      3.7
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  • Question 9 - A 59-year-old male is referred to you from the practice nurse after an...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old male is referred to you from the practice nurse after an ECG shows he is in atrial fibrillation.

      When you take a history from him he complains of palpitations and he has also noticed some weight loss over the last two months. On examination, he has an irregularly irregular pulse and displays a fine tremor.

      What is the next most appropriate investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Exercise tolerance test

      Explanation:

      Assessing Patients with Atrial Fibrillation

      When assessing patients with atrial fibrillation, it is crucial to identify any underlying causes. While some cases may be classified as lone AF, addressing any precipitating factors is the first step in treatment. Hyperthyroidism is a common cause of atrial fibrillation, and checking thyroid function tests is the next appropriate step in diagnosis. Other common causes include heart failure, myocardial infarction/ischemia, mitral valve disease, pneumonia, and alcoholism. Rarer causes include pericarditis, endocarditis, cardiomyopathy, sarcoidosis, and hemochromatosis.

      For paroxysmal arrhythmias, a 24-hour ECG can be useful, but in cases of persistent atrial fibrillation, an ECG is not necessary. Exercise tolerance tests are used to investigate and risk-stratify patients with cardiac chest pain. While an echocardiogram is useful in patients with atrial fibrillation to look for valve disease and other structural abnormalities, it is not the next most appropriate investigation in this case. Overall, identifying the underlying cause of atrial fibrillation is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with a persistent cough...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with a persistent cough and difficulty breathing for the past few weeks after returning from a trip to Italy. Initially, she thought it was just a cold, but now she has noticed swelling in her feet. Upon examination, she has crackling sounds in both lungs, a third heart sound, and a displaced point of maximum impulse.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Cardiomyopathy and Recent Travel History

      Cardiomyopathy is a myocardial disorder that can range from asymptomatic to life-threatening. It is important to consider this diagnosis in young patients presenting with heart failure, arrhythmias, or thromboembolism. While recent travel history may be relevant to other potential diagnoses, such as atypical pneumonia or thromboembolism, neither of these fully fit the patient’s history and examination. Rheumatic heart disease, pericarditis, and pulmonary embolus can also be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms. The underlying cause and type of cardiomyopathy in this case are unknown but could be multiple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      8.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (10/10) 100%
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