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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman is prescribed amiodarone for her newly diagnosed arrhythmia and expresses...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman is prescribed amiodarone for her newly diagnosed arrhythmia and expresses concern to her General Practitioner about its impact on her thyroid function due to her past medical history of autoantibody-positive hypothyroidism. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Monitor thyroid function three months after starting amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Monitoring and Amiodarone Use: What Patients Need to Know

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, but it can also cause thyroid dysfunction. Patients on this drug should have their thyroid function regularly monitored, with a baseline check and another three months after starting the medication. Patients with a history of hypothyroidism can still use amiodarone, but with more stringent monitoring. Those with thyroid autoantibodies are at increased risk of drug-induced hyperthyroidism. If thyroid function becomes deranged, amiodarone may need to be discontinued or thyroxine supplements dose-adjusted. Regular thyroid monitoring is crucial for patients on amiodarone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 2 - The following blood result is reported for an 85-year-old woman with a medical...

    Incorrect

    • The following blood result is reported for an 85-year-old woman with a medical history of hypertension, diverticulitis, and hypothyroidism. She is currently taking amlodipine, ramipril, and levothyroxine. The result shows a TSH level of 0.01 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 22 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). What potential complication could she face if this condition remains untreated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      The risk of osteoporosis increases with over-replacement of thyroxine. Elevated T4 and suppressed TSH levels in blood tests indicate over-replacement with levothyroxine, which can cause confusion in biochemistry abnormalities, although this is more commonly observed in hypothyroidism. Constipation is a symptom of hypothyroidism, not over-replacement with levothyroxine. Muscle weakness and reduced reflexes are also associated with hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Over-replacement with thyroxine would result in weight loss rather than weight gain.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man presents with complaints of low libido, erectile dysfunction and loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with complaints of low libido, erectile dysfunction and loss of early-morning erections. His testes appear normal but his serum testosterone is 10 nmol/l (reference range 11–36 nmol/l).
      Which of the following statements regarding this patient's presentation is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A recent acute illness such as pneumonia could explain a low testosterone result

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypogonadism: Interpreting Testosterone Results and Treatment Considerations

      Hypogonadism, or low testosterone, can present with a variety of symptoms including low libido, erectile dysfunction, and loss of early morning erections. When low testosterone is detected, further testing with follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and prolactin measurements can help distinguish primary from secondary hypogonadism.

      There are several factors that can contribute to reversible hypogonadism, including concurrent illness, certain medications, and lifestyle factors such as excessive alcohol consumption and stress. However, it is important to note that hypogonadism should be treated with testosterone replacement therapy, regardless of age, but only after confirming the diagnosis with repeat testing.

      It is also important to consider age-related declines in testosterone levels, which typically occur after the age of 30. However, this decline may be a result of deteriorating general health rather than the cause. Therefore, it is crucial to interpret testosterone results in the context of the patient’s symptoms and overall health status.

      In cases where hypogonadism is suspected, referral to an endocrinologist may be necessary if there are suggestive clinical symptoms and chronic androgen deficiency. However, it is important to note that testosterone replacement therapy should not be initiated solely based on age or a single low testosterone result.

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 4 - You are assessing a 54-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with type...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 54-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. As part of his diabetic evaluation, he was instructed to perform home blood pressure monitoring. The average daytime reading has returned as 152/84 mmHg.

      The patient migrated to the UK from Sudan approximately two years ago and has no significant medical history other than a vitamin D deficiency, which is believed to be due to his dark skin.

      Based on the current NICE guidelines, what would be the most appropriate course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start losartan

      Explanation:

      For black patients with type 2 diabetes and hypertension, the recommended first-line treatment is an angiotensin II receptor blocker, specifically losartan. This is based on evidence that ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, may be less effective in patients of African or African-Caribbean ethnicity. For non-diabetic patients of this ethnicity, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled, a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide may be added as a second or third line of treatment. While lifestyle changes are important, this patient’s stage 2 hypertension and diabetes put him at high risk for complications, making prompt and effective treatment essential.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old male presents with a four month history of polyuria with polydipsia.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male presents with a four month history of polyuria with polydipsia.

      Which of the following measurements would confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A urine dipstick analysis showing +++ glucose

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus

      Diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed based on symptoms and a random glucose level above 11.1 mmol/L or a fasting plasma glucose level above 7 mmol/L. Another option is the two-hour oral glucose tolerance test. Impaired glucose tolerance may be indicated by a post-OGTT plasma glucose level between 7.7 and 11.1 or a fasting plasma glucose level between 6.1 and 7.

      For certain groups, an HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended as the cut-off point for diagnosing diabetes. However, it is important to note that a value below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) doesn’t necessarily exclude a diabetes diagnosis using glucose tests. It is crucial to familiarize oneself with the exceptions to these guidelines.

      Overall, the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus requires careful consideration of various factors and tests to ensure accurate identification and appropriate treatment.

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the hallway. A nurse is present and has conducted a finger-prick glucose test, which shows a reading of 1.8 mmol/l. Upon examination, you observe that she is unresponsive to verbal cues, with a pulse rate of 84/min. The nurse has already positioned the patient in the recovery position. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give intramuscular glucagon

      Explanation:

      Placing any object in the mouth of an unconscious patient can be risky as they may not be adequately safeguarding their airway.

      In cases of heparin overdose, protamine sulfate is administered.

      Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.

      Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man has been treated for prostate cancer and is currently receiving...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been treated for prostate cancer and is currently receiving 3 monthly injections of a gonadorelin analogue. He has been experiencing bothersome hot flashes and seeks your advice. According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended treatment for this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyproterone acetate

      Explanation:

      For the management of hot flashes in men undergoing hormonal treatment for prostate cancer, NICE suggests the use of cyproterone acetate, while the use of other medications is not recommended.

      Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.

      In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old man comes in after a fall and reports feeling constantly cold....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes in after a fall and reports feeling constantly cold. Thyroid function tests are ordered and the results are as follows:

      Free T4 7.1 pmol/l
      TSH 14.3 mu/l

      What should be done next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start levothyroxine 25mcg od

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits hypothyroidism, indicated by low free T4 and elevated TSH levels. Considering her age, it is recommended to gradually introduce levothyroxine at a starting dose of 25mcg once daily.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor's office. She was recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor's office. She was recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism and is currently taking 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily. The doctor has access to thyroid function and other test results from the previous week. What is the most effective test for tracking her progress and treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid peroxidase antibody levels

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Hormone Therapy and Monitoring

      Thyroxine is an effective treatment for hypothyroidism as it helps to suppress the high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in the body. The best way to monitor the effectiveness of this treatment is by measuring TSH levels and aiming to bring them into the normal range. In addition to TSH, other tests such as triiodothyronine, free thyroxine (T4), thyroid peroxidase antibody, and protein-bound iodine levels may be used in the initial investigation and diagnosis of thyroid disorders. Proper monitoring and management of thyroid hormone therapy can help improve symptoms and prevent complications.

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her weight is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her weight is 76 kg, body mass index 34 kg/m2. After 3 months’ trial of dietary modification, she has lost 2 kg in weight, and her Hba1c, which was 78 mmol/mol at diagnosis, is 71 mmol/mol. She is well and has no symptoms related to her condition.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate treatment to commence.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Type 2 Diabetes

      Type 2 diabetes is a chronic condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. Metformin is the preferred first-line treatment as it increases insulin sensitivity. However, caution should be taken when prescribing metformin to patients with renal impairment. If metformin is not suitable, other options include dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitors, pioglitazone, and sulfonylureas. Pioglitazone can be used as a second-line treatment or in combination with metformin. Acarbose is a weak hypoglycemic agent and is only used in combination with other agents. Sulfonylureas may be considered as first-line therapy in symptomatic patients, but should be prescribed with caution in obese individuals. Insulin may be necessary if oral therapies fail to adequately control HbA1C levels. It is important to consider contraindications and potential side effects when selecting a treatment option.

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old woman is brought in to see her General Practitioner by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is brought in to see her General Practitioner by her concerned daughter. She has been unsteady on her feet, slightly muddled, nauseous and fatigued over recent months. Her medical history includes controlled hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine. She is clinically euvolaemic. The only abnormality in her blood tests is a sodium level of 125 mmol/l (normal range 135–145 mmol/l).
      Which is the most appropriate initial treatment for hyponatraemia in the majority of patients with inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Restriction of water intake

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyponatraemia

      Hyponatraemia is a condition where the concentration of sodium in the blood is lower than normal. There are various treatment options available for this condition, depending on the severity and underlying cause.

      Restriction of water intake is a common treatment for hyponatraemia caused by the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). In this condition, the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is not inhibited by a reduction in plasma osmolality, leading to excessive water retention. Fluid restriction, usually limiting fluids to 500 ml/day below the average daily urine volume, can help normalise blood osmolality.

      Intravenous infusion of hypertonic saline is an emergency treatment for acute symptomatic hyponatraemia. Hypertonic saline (3%) is given via continuous infusion to rapidly increase the concentration of sodium in the blood.

      Intravenous infusion of isotonic saline is not the first-line treatment for hyponatraemia. It may be used in some cases, but hypertonic saline is preferred for acute symptomatic hyponatraemia.

      Oral demeclocycline is a pharmacological intervention reserved for refractory cases of hyponatraemia. It is a tetracycline derivative that decreases urine concentration even in the presence of high plasma ADH levels. However, it can be nephrotoxic.

      Oral furosemide is another treatment option that may be used to decrease the reabsorption of water. However, it is not a first-line treatment and should be used with caution to avoid correcting water imbalances too rapidly.

      In conclusion, the treatment options for hyponatraemia depend on the underlying cause and severity of the condition. Fluid restriction, intravenous infusion of hypertonic saline, and pharmacological interventions may be used in different situations to help normalise blood sodium levels.

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is found in a coma....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is found in a coma. He is given intravenous glucose to revive him. He tells the physician that he was unaware that he had hypoglycaemia.
      Select from this list the single correct statement about hypoglycaemia in a diabetic patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemic unawareness is a contraindication to driving

      Explanation:

      Hypoglycaemic unawareness, where a person with diabetes is unable to recognize the symptoms of low blood sugar, is a reason why they should not drive according to the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA). To be considered fit to drive, a person with diabetes must have experienced no more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia in the past year and be aware of the symptoms. Symptoms of mild hypoglycaemia include hunger, anxiety, irritability, palpitations, sweating, and tingling lips. As blood glucose levels drop further, symptoms may progress to weakness, lethargy, impaired vision, confusion, and irrational behavior. Severe hypoglycaemia can result in seizures and loss of consciousness, and between 4 and 10% of deaths in people with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus are due to hypoglycaemia. Recurrent exposure to hypoglycaemia can lead to a loss of early warning symptoms, making it more difficult for a person to recognize when their blood sugar is low. While most patients with impaired awareness of hypoglycaemia can recognize their symptoms and correct the hypoglycaemia with a small amount of fast-acting carbohydrate taken by mouth, severe hypoglycaemia occurs when patients require treatment by another person because they are incapable of self-management.

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old man presents with general malaise. He has recently been prescribed carbimazole...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with general malaise. He has recently been prescribed carbimazole for hyperthyroidism. What is the most crucial blood test to conduct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      Exclusion of agranulocytosis is necessary when using carbimazole.

      Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.

      However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - What is the most appropriate next step in managing a patient with erectile...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate next step in managing a patient with erectile dysfunction who has a reduced morning serum total testosterone level?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action

      Explanation:

      Testing for Reduced Serum Testosterone

      Patients who exhibit symptoms of reduced serum testosterone should undergo a repeat test, preferably in the morning, along with FSH, LH, and prolactin. This helps determine which part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis is affected. It is crucial to take action as the patient may have an underlying endocrinological cause. If the repeat test shows abnormal results, referral to a secondary care physician is necessary. The physician may then consider treatments such as testogel or nebido.

      In summary, testing for reduced serum testosterone is essential in diagnosing and treating patients with symptoms of low testosterone levels. A repeat test, along with other hormone tests, can help identify the root cause of the problem and guide appropriate treatment.

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old female comes to her doctor with a complaint of feeling tired...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female comes to her doctor with a complaint of feeling tired for the past two months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:

      Na+ 128 mmol/l
      K+ 5.6 mmol/l
      Urea 5.3 mmol/l
      Creatinine 99 µmol/l
      Total T4 66 nmol/l (70 - 140 nmol/l)

      Which diagnostic test is most likely to reveal the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short synacthen test

      Explanation:

      The most effective way to diagnose Addison’s disease is through the short synacthen test. If a patient presents with lethargy, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia, it is highly indicative of Addison’s disease. While the patient’s thyroxine level is slightly low, it is unlikely to be the cause of the hyperkalaemia. It is possible that the patient also has hypothyroidism, but this would not fully explain their symptoms.

      Investigating Addison’s Disease: ACTH Stimulation Test and Serum Cortisol Levels

      When investigating a patient suspected of having Addison’s disease, the most definitive test is the ACTH stimulation test, also known as the short Synacthen test. This involves measuring plasma cortisol levels before and 30 minutes after administering Synacthen 250ug IM. Adrenal autoantibodies, such as anti-21-hydroxylase, may also be detected.

      However, if an ACTH stimulation test is not readily available, a 9 am serum cortisol level can be useful. A level of over 500 nmol/l makes Addison’s disease very unlikely, while a level below 100 nmol/l is definitely abnormal. If the level falls between 100-500 nmol/l, an ACTH stimulation test should be performed.

      It is important to note that around one-third of undiagnosed patients with Addison’s disease may also have associated electrolyte abnormalities, such as hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate these levels as well to ensure a proper diagnosis and treatment plan.

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  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old man has a small-cell lung cancer. His serum sodium level is...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has a small-cell lung cancer. His serum sodium level is 128 mmol/l on routine testing (normal range 135–145 mmol/l).
      What is the most probable reason for the biochemical abnormality observed in this case? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)

      SIADH is a condition where the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the posterior pituitary is not inhibited by a reduction in plasma osmolality on drinking water, causing water retention and extracellular fluid volume expansion without oedema or hypertension. This condition is commonly associated with small-cell lung cancer. Hyponatraemia and concentrated urine are the main laboratory findings, and severe cases may present with symptoms of cerebral oedema. Addison’s disease, diuretics, psychogenic polydipsia, and vomiting are not likely causes of hyponatraemia, although they may contribute to it in certain cases.

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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old asthmatic woman presents with a history of amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old asthmatic woman presents with a history of amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She is eager to get pregnant and has been attempting to conceive for six months, but has not been successful. What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pituitary microadenoma

      Explanation:

      Causes of hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea: differential diagnosis

      Hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea are two related conditions that can have various underlying causes. One common cause is a prolactin-secreting pituitary tumour, which can be either a microadenoma (more common) or a macroadenoma (less common). Another possible cause is the use of certain drugs, such as dopamine receptor antagonists and some antidepressants. Hyperthyroidism is not a likely cause, but hypothyroidism can sometimes lead to hyperprolactinaemia. Finally, while hepatic impairment can cause hyperprolactinaemia, it is not a frequent finding in patients with liver cirrhosis. Therefore, a careful differential diagnosis is needed to identify the specific cause of hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea in each patient.

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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old man has type 2 diabetes. He is a group 1 driver...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has type 2 diabetes. He is a group 1 driver with a valid driving licence.

      He wants to know if he needs to inform the DVLA about his condition.

      Which patients with diabetes must by law inform the DVLA about their condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There are no requirements for patients with diabetes to inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidelines for Diabetic Drivers

      Drivers with diabetes do not need to inform the DVLA if their condition is managed by tablets or diet and they are free of complications such as visual impairment or hypoglycaemic attacks. However, if they are taking tablets that can induce hypoglycaemia, such as sulphonylureas, they must inform the DVLA. Additionally, if they have experienced more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia within the last 12 months or are at high risk of developing it, they must also inform the DVLA.

      In January 2016, the DVLA updated their guidelines, which may be reflected in AKT exam questions. It is important for drivers with diabetes to familiarize themselves with any additions or amendments. One of the changes made was to revise the wording for Group 1 drivers who are managed by tablets that carry a risk of inducing hypoglycaemia, including sulphonylureas and glinides.

      It is important to note that drivers who are treated with insulin must inform the DVLA by law. Some people with diabetes may develop associated problems that could affect their ability to drive safely, and it is important to follow the guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

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  • Question 19 - A 52-year-old man has a BMI of 32.6 kg/m2, smokes thirty cigarettes daily,...

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    • A 52-year-old man has a BMI of 32.6 kg/m2, smokes thirty cigarettes daily, and drinks four pints of beer in his local pub every week. He is on the pub darts team and claims it is the only exercise he wants or needs.

      He has recently been diagnosed with diabetes by his GP and has been commenced on a diet. He has been told to see you for information regarding foot care.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes

      Explanation:

      Types of Diabetes

      There are two major types of diabetes: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin and typically affects children. Patients with type 1 diabetes are thin, lose weight, and are treated with insulin. On the other hand, type 2 diabetes affects an older age group and is associated with weight gain (obesity). It is usually treated with diet and/or drugs. Although not inherited in any mendelian fashion, type 2 diabetes has a familial occurrence due to the body type of the family. Iatrogenic diabetes is caused by medical treatments, while mitochondrial diabetes is a very rare form of diabetes resulting from damage to mitochondrial DNA. Finally, secondary diabetes occurs as a consequence of another disease.

      It is important to differentiate between the types of diabetes as this guides treatment. Patients with type 1 diabetes require insulin, while those with type 2 diabetes may initially be treated with diet and/or drugs but may eventually require insulin. Understanding the cause of diabetes is also important in determining the appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has observed an increase in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has observed an increase in his blood glucose levels after starting a new medication for his lipids. Despite maintaining his usual diet and exercise routine, his HbA1c has worsened by approximately 0.5%. Which of the following drugs is the probable culprit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ezetimibe

      Explanation:

      Effects of Cholesterol-Lowering Medications on Glucose Control

      The mechanism by which nicotinic acid affects glucose levels is not fully understood, but it may increase blood glucose in some patients by stimulating hepatic glucose output or blocking glucose uptake by skeletal muscle. However, for most patients with diabetes, nicotinic acid has minimal effect. A meta-analysis in 2011 suggested an increased risk of inducing diabetes in patients treated with intensive statin therapy, but this did not examine whether statins worsened glucose control in established diabetics. Cholestyramine may interact with oral hypoglycemics, but it doesn’t typically worsen diabetic control and may even improve it. Fenofibrate and ezetimibe have not been shown to worsen diabetic control. Overall, the effects of cholesterol-lowering medications on glucose control vary and should be monitored closely in patients with diabetes.

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  • Question 21 - Mrs. Waller, a patient with type 2 diabetes, comes to discuss her latest...

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    • Mrs. Waller, a patient with type 2 diabetes, comes to discuss her latest HbA1c result. It has gone up to 66 mmol/mol since the last check. She is already taking metformin and gliclazide. You advise adding in a third blood glucose lowering drug, and agree on trying canagliflozin, an SGLT2 inhibitor. You counsel her that it will cause a slight increase in urine volume and risk of urinary and genital infections, including rare reports of Fournier's gangrene, but that it can have beneficial side effects of weight loss and possibly improves cardiovascular outcomes. You also mention that the MHRA have issued an alert about an uncommon but important possible hazard of treatment with SGLT2 inhibitors.

      What specific aspect of routine diabetes care is crucial in preventing or detecting this potential side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foot check

      Explanation:

      Patients taking canagliflozin should have their legs and feet closely monitored for ulcers or infection due to the possible increased risk of amputation. It is important for these patients to attend regular foot checks and practice good foot care. Eye screening, influenza vaccination, and shingles vaccination are not affected by SGLT2 inhibitors and should be attended as normal.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

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  • Question 22 - You suspect that a 52-year-old man is suffering from Cushing syndrome.
    What time of...

    Incorrect

    • You suspect that a 52-year-old man is suffering from Cushing syndrome.
      What time of day is a random cortisol test most likely to be abnormal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2400 h

      Explanation:

      Cortisol Levels and Cushing Syndrome: Diagnostic Tests and Circadian Rhythms

      Plasma cortisol levels in normal individuals follow a circadian rhythm, with the highest levels in the morning and the lowest levels at night. However, in patients with Cushing syndrome, this rhythm is disrupted, and late-night cortisol levels do not fall as they should. This alteration in cortisol secretion can be used to diagnose Cushing syndrome, with an elevated serum cortisol at 2400 h being an early indicator.

      The 0900 h cortisol level is not a reliable indicator of Cushing syndrome, as it may still be within the normal range. Instead, a low-dose dexamethasone suppression test is used, where a failure to suppress cortisol suggests Cushing syndrome.

      A 24-hour urine collection with cortisol level analysis is a better test for Cushing syndrome than serum cortisol, with two or more samples showing cortisol excretion more than three times the upper limit of normal being a confident diagnosis.

      Late-night cortisol samples should be taken between 2300 h and 0100 h, while melatonin, which regulates sleep and wakefulness, follows a reverse circadian rhythm, with levels highest during periods of sleep. Synthetic melatonin is commonly used to alleviate jet lag.

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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department from her workplace, for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department from her workplace, for the second time in the span of three months, after experiencing a syncopal episode. She also reported feeling extremely fatigued for the past few months and having bouts of dizziness. Upon examination, she appeared slender and sun-kissed, with a blood pressure of 112/72 mmHg while lying down, but it dropped to 87/63 mmHg upon standing. Her baseline serum cortisol was low (<100 nmol/l) and her free thyroxine (T4) level was also low.
      What is the most appropriate diagnosis for the clinical presentation described above? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hypoadrenalism

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Primary Hypoadrenalism: A Case Study

      A woman presents with a marked postural drop in blood pressure, increased pigmentation, and low cortisol levels, indicating primary hypoadrenalism as the most likely diagnosis. The high adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) level causes pigmentation, and autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands is responsible for 80% of cases. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are common in established cases. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends hospital admission for serum cortisol levels below 100 nmol/l and referral to an endocrinologist for levels between 100 and 500 nmol/l. Hypovolemia, HIV, hypothyroidism, and psychiatric symptoms are unlikely causes based on the case history.

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  • Question 24 - A 5-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes is rushed into the emergency room...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes is rushed into the emergency room by her father as she is extremely restless. He suspects that she is experiencing a 'hypo' and has attempted to give her sugary drinks and snacks, but to no avail. The child is uncooperative and agitated. Upon examination, she appears sweaty and anxious, but her airways are clear and she is breathing normally. Physical examination is unremarkable, and her vital signs are normal. A blood glucose test reveals a reading of 3.2 mmol/L. The child weighs 20kg. What is the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer glucagon 500 mcg IM STAT

      Explanation:

      In the case of a child weighing 25kg or less experiencing hypoglycaemia, glucagon 500 mcg should be given via IM if oral treatment is not possible or ineffective. Hypoglycaemia is clinically defined as a blood glucose level below 3.5 mmol/L, which is the case for this child. Despite the mother’s attempts at oral treatment, the child has not improved, making it necessary to administer glucagon to prevent further deterioration. Once the child is stable, it is advisable to contact the paediatric team for further evaluation and management.

      Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.

      Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 25 - A 58-year-old man is discharged from hospital after suffering an acute coronary syndrome....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man is discharged from hospital after suffering an acute coronary syndrome. He has type 2 diabetes and takes metformin. Diabetic control had previously been good.
      What is the most appropriate statement to make regarding this patient's management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Statins should always be started unless they are contraindicated

      Explanation:

      Correct Management of Type 2 Diabetes and Cardiovascular Disease: Common Misconceptions

      There are several misconceptions regarding the management of type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease that need to be addressed. One common misconception is that statins should only be started if a formal risk assessment is conducted. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends that statin treatment with atorvastatin 80 mg should always be started for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease, unless contraindicated.

      Another misconception is that blood pressure should be 150/80 mmHg or less. The target for blood pressure in type 2 diabetes is actually 140/90 mmHg, and following a myocardial infarction, it may be prudent to aim even lower.

      It is also incorrect to assume that insulin should be started for all patients with type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease. Insulin should only be used if clinically indicated due to poor diabetic control.

      Contrary to popular belief, the usual cardiac rehabilitation program is not contraindicated for patients with type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease. All patients should be given advice about and offered a cardiac rehabilitation program with an exercise component.

      Finally, the use of angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibition is not contraindicated in the first six weeks after a myocardial infarction. In fact, people who have had a myocardial infarction with or without diabetes should normally be discharged from the hospital with ACE inhibitor treatment, provided there are no contraindications.

      In summary, it is important to dispel these common misconceptions and ensure that patients with type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease receive appropriate and evidence-based management.

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  • Question 26 - A 48-year-old woman presents as an emergency appointment with recurrent attacks of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents as an emergency appointment with recurrent attacks of chest tightness and palpitations. She was advised to seek immediate attention should a recurrence occur. She reports feeling unwell while out shopping, experiencing chest tightness, rapid palpitations, sweating, lightheadedness, and pins and needles in her fingers. She is unsure what triggers these episodes. Her past medical history includes treatment for asthma and anxiety following her divorce a few years ago. She appears pale and sweaty, with a rapid regular pulse of 122 beats per minute and blood pressure of 220/115 mmHg. Heart sounds are normal, chest is clear, and she has a slight fine tremor. Urine dipstick testing reveals glycosuria+++, nitrites and leucocytes are negative. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyrotoxicosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Chest Tightness and Palpitations in Primary Care

      Symptoms of chest tightness and palpitations are common in primary care, but diagnosing the underlying cause can be challenging. Episodic symptoms often require catching the symptoms during an attack to make an accurate diagnosis. Patients may describe a previous attack, but positive examination findings are often lacking when they are asymptomatic. Therefore, history is crucial, and patients should seek review when experiencing symptoms.

      In this case, the patient presented with high blood pressure, tachycardia, and glycosuria during an attack. The episodic nature of the symptoms suggested panic attacks, phaeochromocytoma, or a paroxysmal tachyarrhythmia such as Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. However, WPW typically causes paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and would not cause glycosuria. Panic attacks would not cause glycosuria, and the severity of the hypertension would go against this diagnosis. Phaeochromocytoma unifies the history and clinical features and is the underlying disorder.

      Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that produces catecholamines and causes episodes of hypertension, chest tightness, sweating, tremor, and flushing. Glycosuria occurs in approximately 30% of patients during an attack. Diagnosis is made by a 24-hour urine collection for metanephrines, and surgical removal is the treatment of choice.

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  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns of feeling constantly overheated and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns of feeling constantly overheated and experiencing early menopause. Her husband has also noticed a swelling in her neck over the past few weeks. During the examination, her pulse is recorded at 90/minute and a small, painless goitre is observed. The doctor orders blood tests which reveal the following results:

      - TSH < 0.05 mu/l
      - Free T4 24 pmol/l
      - Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies 102 IU/mL (< 35 IU/mL)
      - ESR 23 mm/hr

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Based on the presence of thyrotoxic symptoms, goitre, and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies, the likely diagnosis is

      Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs

      Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also displays specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.

      Graves’ disease is characterized by the presence of autoantibodies, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy reveals a diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine. These features help distinguish Graves’ disease from other causes of thyrotoxicosis and aid in its diagnosis.

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  • Question 28 - A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision. Upon examination, she displays exophthalmos and conjunctival oedema, leading to a suspicion of thyroid eye disease. What can be inferred about her thyroid condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eu-, hypo- or hyperthyroid

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease is often linked to hyperthyroidism from Graves’ disease, but it can also occur in euthyroid or hypothyroid patients. The severity of the eye disease is not necessarily related to the level of thyrotoxicosis.

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

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  • Question 29 - A 38-year-old man presents with complaints of decreased libido. He has also noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents with complaints of decreased libido. He has also noticed a decrease in the frequency of needing to shave. During attempts at sexual intercourse, he has been unable to maintain an erection. His visual field testing is normal and he has no history of medication use. Growth hormone studies and thyroid function levels are within normal limits, but his serum prolactin levels are elevated at 1500 mIU/l. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Microprolactinoma

      Explanation:

      When a patient has consistently high prolactin levels without a clear cause, it may be due to a prolactinoma, a type of pituitary tumor. In the case of a microprolactinoma, the prolactin levels may be between 1000-5000 mIU/l, but the patient’s hormone profile and visual fields are normal. Hyperprolactinemia can inhibit the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone, leading to symptoms such as infertility and decreased libido. Treatment options include surgery or medication with dopamine agonists. Macroprolactinoma, acromegaly, and hypothyroidism are unlikely causes in this case. Psychogenic impotence doesn’t explain the elevated prolactin levels.

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  • Question 30 - An eighty-two-year-old gentleman with a history of renal stones is seen with an...

    Incorrect

    • An eighty-two-year-old gentleman with a history of renal stones is seen with an acute episode of left sided loin pain and dipstick haematuria. He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and angina.

      Bloods are requested which show:

      Na+ 137 mmol/L (137-144)

      K+ 5.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Urea 18.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 296 µmol/L (60-110)

      eGFR 17 -

      Which one of his medications should be withheld?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Contraindications to Metformin Use

      Metformin is a commonly prescribed medication for the treatment of type 2 diabetes. However, there are certain situations where its use is contraindicated. Ketoacidosis, use of iodine-containing contrast media, and use of general anesthesia are all contraindications to metformin use. Additionally, patients with renal impairment are at an increased risk of lactic acidosis and should have their dose reviewed if their estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 45. Metformin should be avoided if the eGFR is less than 30 and should be withdrawn or treatment interrupted in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function. These patients include those with shock, sepsis, acute heart failure, respiratory failure, and those who have recently had a myocardial infarction. In the case of a patient with a renal calculus and significantly impaired renal function, metformin should be withheld.

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