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  • Question 1 - A 5-year-old girl is presented to the emergency surgery department with a fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is presented to the emergency surgery department with a fever and a blotchy rash. Her mother reports that the rash started behind her ears and has now spread all over her body. During the examination, you observe clusters of white lesions on the buccal mucosa. The child has not received any vaccinations.

      What is the potential complication that this child may face?

      Your Answer: Ramsay-Hunt syndrome

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a common complication of measles and can be fatal, especially in children. The measles virus can damage the lower respiratory tract epithelium, which weakens the local immunity in the lungs and leads to pneumonia.

      Aside from pneumonia, measles can also cause other complications such as otitis media, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased risk of appendicitis, and myocarditis. Treatment for measles usually involves rest, fluids, and pain relief.

      If a person has measles, it is important to inform the local Health Protection Team (HPT) and avoid going to school or work for at least four days after the rash appears.

      Mumps, on the other hand, can cause complications such as orchitis, oophoritis, pancreatitis, and viral meningitis. Symptoms of mumps include fever, headache, swelling of the parotid glands, and general malaise.

      Kawasaki disease, a different illness, can lead to coronary artery aneurysm. Symptoms of Kawasaki disease include high fever, rash, conjunctival injection, red and cracked hands, feet, and lips, and swollen lymph glands.

      It is important to note that otitis media, not otitis externa, is a complication of measles.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Disease

      Measles is a viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious viruses known and is spread through aerosol transmission. The incubation period is 10-14 days, and the virus is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop.

      The prodromal phase of measles is characterized by irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. These white spots on the buccal mucosa typically develop before the rash. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered for immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. It is a notifiable disease, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unvaccinated child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

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  • Question 2 - Which statement about childhood vaccination is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about childhood vaccination is accurate?

      Your Answer: Children with stable neurological disorders should be immunised as per schedule

      Explanation:

      Important Information about Vaccinations

      Vaccinations are an essential part of maintaining good health and preventing the spread of diseases. The MMR vaccine, for example, should be given twice – once at around 1 year and then repeated as a Preschool booster – to improve immune response. On the other hand, live polio vaccination has been replaced by an injectable inactive polio vaccine.

      It is crucial to maintain the cold chain for vaccines, as they can be damaged by freezing. Additionally, while vaccinations can be given to pregnant women on occasion, live vaccines are contraindicated. It is also important to note that children with stable neurological conditions like spina bifida should be vaccinated as per schedule.

      Overall, vaccinations are a vital tool in protecting ourselves and our communities from the spread of diseases. By following the recommended vaccination schedule and guidelines, we can ensure that we are doing our part in promoting good health and preventing the spread of illnesses.

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  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old woman has just found out that she has Huntington disease and...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman has just found out that she has Huntington disease and is worried that she may have passed it on to her children. The father of the children doesn't have the disease.

      What is the probability that each of her children has inherited the condition?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Huntington disease is an autosomal dominant condition, which implies that the patient has one normal and one faulty copy of the gene. The faulty copy is dominant and causes the disease. If an affected patient has a child, the child has a 50% chance of inheriting the faulty gene and developing the condition, and a 50% chance of inheriting the normal gene and not developing the disease.

      Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Characteristics and Complicating Factors

      Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This means that both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and there is no carrier state. Both males and females can be affected, and only affected individuals can pass on the disease. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.

      However, there are complicating factors that can affect the inheritance of autosomal dominant diseases. One of these factors is non-penetrance, which refers to the lack of clinical signs and symptoms despite having an abnormal gene. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis may not show any symptoms. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, which occurs when there is a new mutation in one of the gametes. This means that 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.

      In summary, autosomal dominant inheritance is characterized by certain patterns of inheritance, but there are also complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Understanding these factors is important for genetic counseling and for predicting the risk of passing on the disease to future generations.

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  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old boy is seen by his doctor for inadequate asthma management. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is seen by his doctor for inadequate asthma management. He is currently on a daily steroid inhaler (Clenil - 50 mcg, two puffs twice a day) and uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. What should be the next course of action in his treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Inhaled long-acting beta2-agonist

      Correct Answer: Trial of a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      If a child under the age of 5 has asthma that is not being effectively managed with a combination of a short-acting beta agonist and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid, it is recommended by NICE guidelines to try adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist to their treatment plan.

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.

      For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.

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  • Question 5 - A young woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes to you with an...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes to you with an erythematous rash, mild fever and enlarged glands in her neck. You suggest taking a blood test to check if she is immune to rubella since there is no record of her being immunised. She asks about the potential risk to her baby if she does have rubella. What is the percentage of infants that may develop congenital rubella syndrome and potential birth defects if a woman contracts rubella at ten weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: Up to 25%

      Correct Answer: Up to 90%

      Explanation:

      Maternal Rubella Infection in Pregnancy

      Maternal rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to fetal loss or congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). CRS is characterized by various abnormalities such as cataracts, deafness, cardiac defects, microcephaly, retardation of intrauterine growth, and inflammatory lesions in the brain, liver, lungs, and bone marrow.

      If the infection occurs within the first eight to ten weeks of pregnancy, up to 90% of surviving infants may experience damage, often with multiple defects. However, the risk of damage decreases to about 10-20% if the infection occurs between 11 and 16 weeks of gestation. Infections after 16 weeks of pregnancy are rare and typically only result in deafness, with no other fetal damage reported up to 20 weeks of pregnancy.

      Overall, maternal rubella infection during pregnancy can have severe consequences for the developing fetus, highlighting the importance of vaccination and prevention measures.

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  • Question 6 - Sophie is an 8 month old baby girl who comes to you with...

    Correct

    • Sophie is an 8 month old baby girl who comes to you with inadequate weight gain (75th to 25th centile), during examination she has a blanching, erythematous rash on her abdomen, colicky abdominal pain and regurgitation after feeds. She has been breastfed with additional 'Cow & Gate' formula. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cows' milk protein intolerance

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis based on the given history is cows’ milk protein intolerance. This is suggested by the involvement of multiple systems, the introduction of top up feeds at 7 months (which coincides with the onset of symptoms), and faltering growth. Charlie’s age also makes pyloric stenosis an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically presents between 2 to 8 weeks and is very rare above 6 months. The presentation is also atypical for eczema, infantile colic, and reflux due to the involvement of multiple systems.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

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  • Question 7 - How many doses of tetanus vaccine should a teenager receive as part of...

    Incorrect

    • How many doses of tetanus vaccine should a teenager receive as part of the routine UK immunisation schedule?

      Your Answer: 3 with an optional 4th dose

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses. This is considered to provide long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and non-penetrating with negligible tissue damage. Tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment, wounds containing foreign bodies, and compound fractures. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns that show extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

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  • Question 8 - A 5-year-old girl presents with a three-day history of paroxysms of colicky central...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with a three-day history of paroxysms of colicky central abdominal pain and bile-stained vomiting. The abdomen feels full and tender. Some red mucous has been passed from the rectum.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Abdominal Pain in Children: Intussusception as the Most Likely Diagnosis

      Intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in young children. It occurs when a section of bowel invaginates into the section next to it, leading to the sloughing off of ischaemic bowel mucosa and the characteristic redcurrant jelly stool. In most cases, the cause of intussusception is unclear, but in some cases, a pathological lead-point may be present. Meckel’s diverticulum is the most common lead-point, but an enlarged Peyer patch caused by a viral infection may also be a factor.

      Other potential causes of abdominal pain in children include intestinal duplication, appendicitis, and Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). Intestinal duplication is a rare congenital malformation that may present as a solid or cystic tumor, intussusception, perforation, or bleeding. Appendicitis is most common in older children and typically presents with central abdominal pain that localizes to the right iliac fossa. HSP may cause abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and bloody diarrhea, but it is typically accompanied by a purpuric rash, which is absent in this scenario.

      Overall, given the age of the patient and the presence of a tender mass in the upper abdomen and emptiness in the right lower quadrant, intussusception is the most likely diagnosis. A lead-point may be present, making non-operative reduction unlikely.

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  • Question 9 - A mother brings her 10 week old baby to your morning GP clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 10 week old baby to your morning GP clinic with a three day history of noisy breathing, coryza, reduced feeding, and increased fussiness. What signs would prompt you to consider admitting the infant?

      Your Answer: Heart rate of 152 beats per minute

      Correct Answer: Feeding less than 50% of normal

      Explanation:

      If a child with bronchiolitis displays any high risk signs, it is important to admit them for support with feeding to prevent dehydration. The NICE CKS provides a comprehensive list of these signs, which include a respiratory rate exceeding 60 per minute, intermittent apnoea, grunting, moderate or severe chest in-drawing, cyanosis, pale, ashen, mottled or blue skin color, lack of response to social cues, inability to be roused or stay awake, and appearing ill. Reduced skin turgor is also a sign of dehydration to watch out for.

      Understanding Bronchiolitis

      Bronchiolitis is a condition that is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles. It is a serious lower respiratory tract infection that is most common in children under the age of one year. The pathogen responsible for 75-80% of cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while other causes include mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is more serious in children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia, congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis.

      The symptoms of bronchiolitis include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Fine inspiratory crackles may also be present. Children with bronchiolitis may experience feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea, which is often the reason for hospital admission.

      Immediate referral to hospital is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referring to hospital if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration.

      The investigation for bronchiolitis involves immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions, which may show RSV. Management of bronchiolitis is largely supportive, with humidified oxygen given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%. Nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth, and suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions.

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  • Question 10 - A 12-year-old boy is diagnosed with haemophilia A after being evaluated for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is diagnosed with haemophilia A after being evaluated for a haemarthrosis. Among his family members, who is the most probable to have the same condition?

      Your Answer: Father

      Correct Answer: Mother's brother

      Explanation:

      The answer is mother’s brother, as X-linked recessive conditions are exclusive to males and do not transmit from male to male.

      X-linked recessive inheritance affects only males, except in cases of Turner’s syndrome where females are affected due to having only one X chromosome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by carrier females, and male-to-male transmission is not observed. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

      If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is rare for an affected father to have children with a heterozygous female carrier, but in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect can be seen.

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  • Question 11 - The practice pediatrician has seen several adolescents with orthopaedic abnormalities and is uncertain...

    Incorrect

    • The practice pediatrician has seen several adolescents with orthopaedic abnormalities and is uncertain about their management. You have been tasked with creating a tutorial on the subject. Which of these adolescent orthopaedic abnormalities is MOST LIKELY to require active intervention? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Flexible flat feet in a 1-year-old boy

      Correct Answer: Scoliosis in an 8-year-old girl

      Explanation:

      Common Pediatric Orthopedic Conditions and Their Management

      Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine that can occur in children at different ages. Infantile scoliosis is more common in boys and may resolve spontaneously or progress to severe deformity. Juvenile and adolescent scoliosis are more common in girls and often require surgical intervention.

      In toeing is a condition where the feet point inward when a child walks. It is most commonly due to internal tibial torsion in children under 2 years old, which usually resolves on its own. Over 2 years old, internal femoral torsion is the most common cause and can be treated by correcting abnormal sitting positions.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, occur when the legs curve outward at the knee. This is usually caused by a tight posterior hip capsule and typically resolves by age 2. In severe cases, night splints or an osteotomy may be necessary. Rickets should be ruled out as a possible cause.

      Flexible flat feet, or hypermobile pes planus, are common in young children and usually resolve by age 6. If the child experiences pain, difficulty walking, or trouble with shoes, ankle-stretch exercises and foot orthoses may be necessary.

      Knock knees, or genu valgum, occur when the legs curve inward so that the knees touch but the feet are apart. This condition is usually benign and resolves by age 5-8. Surgery may be necessary if it persists beyond age 10.

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  • Question 12 - A 12-year-old girl presents with symptoms that meet the criteria for a diagnosis...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl presents with symptoms that meet the criteria for a diagnosis of mild attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). You are considering referring the child to the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS). Her father would like information about managing this condition.
      What is the most suitable advice to provide regarding the management of ADHD?

      Your Answer: You can arrange referral to a parent-training programme even before a formal diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Managing Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD): Myths and Facts

      Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a common neurodevelopmental disorder that affects children and adults. Managing ADHD can be challenging, and there are many myths and misconceptions about the condition and its treatment. Here are some common myths and facts about managing ADHD:

      Myth: Referral to a parent-training program should wait for a formal diagnosis.
      Fact: If the problems are having an adverse impact on development or family life, a General Practitioner should consider referral to a parent-training and/or education program even before a formal diagnosis. The parent program may include skills to manage problem behavior and communicate with the child and help to understand the child’s emotions and behavior.

      Myth: Eliminating artificial coloring and additives from the diet is important.
      Fact: NICE doesn’t recommend this unless there seems to be a link between deterioration in behavior and consumption of artificial additives.

      Myth: A food diary to seek a relationship between specific foods and symptoms is unhelpful.
      Fact: The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises that if there seems to be a clear relationship between specific foods and symptoms, parents should keep a diary recording food and drinks taken and behavior. If the diary supports a relationship, then referral to a dietician should be offered.

      Myth: Dietary fatty acid supplements (omega 3 and omega 6) are beneficial.
      Fact: Many parents have experimented with these supplements, but according to NICE guidelines, these should not be routinely recommended.

      Myth: Methylphenidate (Ritalin®) can be prescribed immediately.
      Fact: In more severe attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder or where other measures have not been successful, medication is usually recommended. Drug treatment should not be started in primary care. Methylphenidate (Ritalin®) is the most commonly used drug.

      In conclusion, managing ADHD requires a comprehensive approach that includes parent training, dietary changes, and medication when necessary. It is important to separate myths from facts to ensure that individuals with ADHD receive the best possible care.

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  • Question 13 - A mother brings her 3-year-old son for a concerning diaper rash. She has...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 3-year-old son for a concerning diaper rash. She has attempted to treat it with barrier creams but has not seen any improvement. She seeks advice on what to do next. During the examination, the doctor observes beefy red plaques in the groin area, affecting the skin folds. There are no skin abnormalities in other areas. The child is progressing typically, growing well, has received all necessary vaccinations, and is breastfeeding satisfactorily.

      What is the probable reason for this diaper rash?

      Your Answer: Candidal dermatitis

      Explanation:

      The probable cause of the nappy rash is Candidal, as indicated by the distinct, reddish patches that resemble raw meat. This type of rash is characterized by the involvement of skin folds and the appearance of satellite lesions, which are both present in this case.

      Atopic dermatitis is unlikely as there are no other lesions on the infant’s body, and the typical locations for this condition in infants are the flexural and facial areas.

      Irritant contact dermatitis is less probable than Candidal infection, as the latter has likely progressed from an initial irritant contact dermatitis. Additionally, the skin folds would have been spared in the case of irritant contact dermatitis due to protection from the irritant.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is not a likely cause, as it typically presents on the infant’s scalp as cradle cap, which is characterized by an erythematous scaly plaque.

      Understanding Napkin Rashes and How to Manage Them

      Napkin rashes, also known as nappy rashes, are common skin irritations that affect babies and young children. The most common cause of napkin rash is irritant dermatitis, which is caused by the irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces. This type of rash typically spares the creases. Other causes of napkin rash include candida dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, psoriasis, and atopic eczema.

      To manage napkin rash, it is recommended to use disposable nappies instead of towel nappies and to expose the napkin area to air when possible. Applying a barrier cream, such as Zinc and castor oil, can also help. In severe cases, a mild steroid cream like 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary. If the rash is suspected to be candidal nappy rash, a topical imidazole should be used instead of a barrier cream until the candida has settled.

      It is important to note that napkin rash can be uncomfortable for babies and young children, so it is essential to manage it promptly. By following these general management points, parents and caregivers can help prevent and manage napkin rashes effectively.

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  • Question 14 - A mother is worried because her 2-year-old girl was exposed to measles two...

    Incorrect

    • A mother is worried because her 2-year-old girl was exposed to measles two days ago.

      Which one of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: She should anticipate the rash occurring in the next five days

      Correct Answer: Immunisation with the live attenuated virus is advised within 72 hours to confer protection

      Explanation:

      Measles Treatment and Complications

      If a person has been exposed to measles within the past 72 hours, the measles vaccine is the preferred treatment option. This vaccine can provide lifelong immunity, although it is not 100% effective in preventing the disease. If the vaccine is not an option, immune globulin can be given within six days of exposure.

      Complications from measles are common, with one-third of those infected experiencing issues such as pneumonia, otitis media, and diarrhea. However, the most serious complication is the development of subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis.

      Measles typically begins with coryzal symptoms, followed by the appearance of a rash several days later.

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  • Question 15 - As part of a community health initiative, you are tasked with developing a...

    Correct

    • As part of a community health initiative, you are tasked with developing a program to enhance the well-being of infants in the area. What is the leading cause of mortality among infants aged over one month but under 12 months?

      Your Answer: Sudden infant death syndrome

      Explanation:

      Accidents become the leading cause of death in children after they turn one year old.

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, and maternal drug use. SIDS incidence also tends to increase during the winter months. However, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS, such as breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers. In the event of a SIDS case, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.

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  • Question 16 - You see a 6-month-old baby girl who has been crying and pulling her...

    Correct

    • You see a 6-month-old baby girl who has been crying and pulling her legs up as if she is in pain. She has had some loose stools and has vomited twice today.
      Her mother says that the last stool looked rather red as if there was blood in it. She looks pale and distressed.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception: A Common Cause of Intestinal Obstruction in Children

      Intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in children aged 5 months to 3 years, accounting for up to 25% of abdominal emergencies in children up to age 5. It occurs when one segment of the bowel invaginates into another just distal to it, leading to obstruction. This condition is more common in boys than girls, with a ratio of approximately 3:2, and two-thirds of patients are under 1-year-old, with the peak age being between 5-10 months.

      The clinical features of intussusception include sudden onset of paroxysms of colicky abdominal pain, which may be more insidious in older children. The pain occurs about every 10-20 minutes and is often accompanied by crying. Patients may appear well between paroxysms initially, but early vomiting can rapidly become bile-stained. Neurological symptoms such as lethargy, hypotonia, or sudden alterations of consciousness can also occur.

      Other features of intussusception include a palpable ‘sausage-shaped’ mass, often in the right upper quadrant, and absence of bowel in the right lower quadrant (Dance’s sign). Patients may also experience dehydration, pallor, shock, irritability, sweating, and later mucoid and bloody ‘red currant stools’. Late pyrexia may also occur.

      In summary, intussusception is a common cause of intestinal obstruction in children, with a range of clinical features that can help diagnose the condition. Early recognition and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 17 - You are conducting a 12-week postnatal check on a baby boy and his...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a 12-week postnatal check on a baby boy and his mother. During the examination, you inquire about the child's immunisation schedule. The mother expresses concern about recent measles outbreaks and asks when her son will receive his first MMR vaccine.

      At what age is the first dose of the MMR vaccine typically administered?

      Your Answer: At 4 months of age

      Correct Answer: At 12-13 months of age

      Explanation:

      At the age of 12-13 months, the MMR vaccine is administered as a routine, followed by a Preschool booster at 3-4 years of age.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

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  • Question 18 - An apprehensive mother has called the clinic to report that her family had...

    Incorrect

    • An apprehensive mother has called the clinic to report that her family had significant contact with a confirmed case of measles yesterday. Her husband believes he had measles when he was younger, but their three children, aged 6 months, 5 years, and 11 years, have not received the MMR vaccine. You are contemplating administering post-exposure prophylaxis with the MMR vaccine.

      What is the minimum age requirement for the MMR vaccine to be effective as post-exposure prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: 9 months

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      MMR Vaccine Administration Guidelines

      The MMR vaccine can be administered at any age, but it is recommended to consult with your local Health Protection Team if the child is under 1 year of age. In case of exposure to measles, mumps, or rubella, most individuals can receive post-exposure prophylaxis with the MMR vaccine within three days, provided that the vaccine is not contraindicated. However, the response to MMR vaccine in infants under 6 months of age is not optimal, and it is not recommended as post-exposure prophylaxis in this age group.

      For children under 6 months of age, pregnant women, and immunocompromised individuals, human normal immunoglobulin should be considered if the MMR vaccine cannot be given. It is important to follow the recommended guidelines for MMR vaccine administration to ensure the best protection against these diseases.

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  • Question 19 - A 10-day-old infant presents with feeding difficulties for the past 24 hours. The...

    Correct

    • A 10-day-old infant presents with feeding difficulties for the past 24 hours. The baby was born at 38 weeks, induced 12 hours after pre-labour spontaneous rupture of membranes. After being observed, there were no concerns and the baby was discharged.

      The infant is breastfed every 1-2 hours, but for the past day, has been less interested in feeding, occurring every 3-4 hours, sometimes being woken to feed. The baby appears uncomfortable while feeding and keeps pulling away. The mother also reports that the baby makes an unusual grunting sound after exhaling.

      What is the most likely diagnosis based on this information?

      Your Answer: Neonatal sepsis

      Explanation:

      Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and may include respiratory distress, jaundice, seizures, and poor feeding. Diagnosis is usually established through blood culture, and treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid/electrolyte status, and preventing or managing hypoglycemia and metabolic acidosis.

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  • Question 20 - Which medical conditions are included in the February 2022 UK immunisation schedule for...

    Incorrect

    • Which medical conditions are included in the February 2022 UK immunisation schedule for receiving the Meningococcal ACWY vaccine?

      Your Answer: Diabetes

      Correct Answer: Haemophilia

      Explanation:

      Asplenia and Splenic Dysfunction: Important Considerations for Vaccinations

      A surprising answer for many, the medical conditions that require additional vaccines may not be what you expect. While immunosuppression and diabetes are common guesses, patients with asplenia or splenic dysfunction (such as those with coeliac disease or sickle cell) should receive Men ACWY, Pneumococcal, and influenza vaccines in addition to the routine schedule.

      It’s important to note that asplenia and splenic dysfunction are not rare conditions. In fact, one in a hundred patients may have coeliac disease, whether diagnosed or not. Additionally, those with complement disorders (including those receiving complement inhibitor therapy) should also receive the Meningococcal ACWY vaccine.

      Overall, it’s crucial for healthcare professionals to consider these conditions when determining a patient’s vaccination schedule. By doing so, we can help protect those who may be at higher risk for vaccine-preventable diseases.

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  • Question 21 - Regarding croup, which is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding croup, which is accurate?

      Your Answer: Both dexamethasone and prednisolone are approved for treating it

      Explanation:

      Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline. While dexamethasone is the preferred and commonly used treatment for croup, prednisolone is not typically recommended as a first-line treatment for croup in clinical guidelines. Dexamethasone is the standard corticosteroid used due to its efficacy and safety profile in managing croup symptoms.

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  • Question 22 - A 4-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). His parents want...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). His parents want to know what is causing these infections.
      What is the most common cause of this problem in a child of this age?

      Your Answer: Posterior urethral valves

      Correct Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR)

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Urinary Tract Conditions: Causes and Symptoms

      Recurrent urinary infections in children can be caused by various conditions that lead to urinary stasis. One of the most common causes is vesicoureteric reflux (VUR), which occurs in 41% of cases. VUR is found in about 1% of normal infants and can resolve over several years, but it is a risk factor for pyelonephritis and renal scarring. Other causes of recurrent urinary infections include renal calculi, obstructive uropathy, poor urine flow, impaired immune or renal function, and sexual abuse.

      Posterior urethral valves, a less common condition than VUR, can cause urinary tract infections, diurnal enuresis, voiding pain or dysfunction, and an abnormal urinary stream. Bilateral polycystic kidney disease, which rarely causes major symptoms during childhood, can lead to progressive kidney failure and present with loin pain, haematuria, UTIs, and stones. Neurogenic bladder, caused by spina bifida, spinal trauma, or tumour, can cause urine leakage and retention, and is less common than VUR. Renal calculi, caused by metabolic abnormalities or unknown factors, are less common in childhood than VUR and may present with urinary infections.

      In summary, recurrent urinary infections in children can be caused by various conditions, each with its own set of symptoms and risk factors. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and ensure proper kidney function.

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  • Question 23 - You see a 5-year-old boy who is brought by his foster parents for...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 5-year-old boy who is brought by his foster parents for review.

      His medical problems include: growth restriction, developmental delay and he has had a ventricular septal defect repaired.

      On examination he has a saddle-shaped nose, hypertelorism, a thin upper lip and absent philtrum.

      Maternal abuse of which of the following during pregnancy has caused this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Cocaine

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

      Fetal Alcohol Syndrome is a condition that affects children whose mothers consumed alcohol during pregnancy. It is characterized by growth restriction, cardiac abnormalities, and developmental problems. Children with this syndrome also have distinct facial features.

      The typical ‘facies’ of children with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome are easily recognizable and include a small head circumference, a thin upper lip, and a flattened philtrum. These features are a result of the alcohol exposure during fetal development and can have lifelong consequences for the affected child. It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent this condition from occurring.

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  • Question 24 - A 7-year-old girl is playing outside when she trips and falls, landing on...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is playing outside when she trips and falls, landing on the outside of her left foot. She immediately cries out in pain and looks for help. There is no significant family or personal medical history. She is assisted by a neighbor as she limps inside. She is able to put weight on her foot.
      Upon examination, her left ankle is swollen, warm, and shows signs of bruising. She has limited range of motion, particularly with internal rotation, and experiences tenderness along the lateral aspect of the ankle joint below the lateral malleolus, although there is no point tenderness over the malleolus itself.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibular fracture

      Correct Answer: Ankle dislocation

      Explanation:

      Ankle Injuries in Children and the Ottawa Ankle Rules

      The history of ankle injuries in children suggests a forced internal rotation at the ankle joint, which can cause a sprain of the lateral ligaments. This type of injury requires supportive strapping, analgesia, and graduated mobilization. However, ankle sprains are less common in children than adults because their ligaments are stronger than their growth plates. As a result, the growth plate tends to fracture before the ligament tears.

      In some cases, Salter-Harris Type 1 fractures and ligament tears may not show up on radiographs. Therefore, it is important to consider the patient’s history, such as tenderness over the ligament rather than bone and whether the patient is weight-bearing.

      The Ottawa ankle rules are helpful in assisting GPs in the management of ankle injuries in adults and determining the need for an x-ray. A recent study published in the BMJ showed that the Ottawa ankle rules are highly accurate at excluding ankle fractures after a sprain injury. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for ankle injuries in children and adults.

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  • Question 25 - A 7-month-old girl presents with diarrhoea and vomiting. She has vomited twice and...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old girl presents with diarrhoea and vomiting. She has vomited twice and had about four diarrhoea stools in the previous 24 h. There is no obvious sign of dehydration. She was born at 37 weeks’ gestation with a low birthweight but has gained weight adequately since then.
      What is the most appropriate next management choice?

      Your Answer: Feeding with formula milk should cease

      Correct Answer: Oral rehydration salt solution should be given

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastroenteritis in Children: Importance of Oral Rehydration Salt Solution

      Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, which can lead to dehydration if not managed properly. While most children do not show signs of dehydration, those at increased risk should be given oral rehydration salt solution as supplemental fluid. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), children at increased risk include infants younger than one year, those who have passed more than five loose stools or vomited more than twice in the previous 24 hours, and those with signs of malnutrition.

      It is important to note that feeding with formula or breast milk should continue if the child can tolerate it. Solid food should not be given, and fruit juices or carbonated drinks should be avoided due to their high osmolarity. While extra fluid intake should generally be encouraged, it may not be enough for children with multiple risk factors for dehydration. Therefore, oral rehydration salt solution should be given as recommended by healthcare professionals.

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  • Question 26 - The father of a 2-year-old visits the pediatrician's office to inquire about the...

    Correct

    • The father of a 2-year-old visits the pediatrician's office to inquire about the latest childhood immunisation schedule in the UK. He expresses apprehension about the 4-in-1 vaccine and its potential to overwhelm his child. Can you provide information on the vaccines included in this shot?

      Your Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, haemophilus influenza type b and hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Starting from 2017, the hepatitis B vaccination has been incorporated into the standard immunisation schedule in the UK, which now includes the 6-in-1 vaccine. Previously, the 5-in-1 vaccine comprised diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio and haemophilus influenza type b. The hepatitis B vaccine is now administered alongside these at 8, 12 and 16 weeks after birth.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

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  • Question 27 - A 4-year-old child has been started on montelukast due to recurrent episodes of...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child has been started on montelukast due to recurrent episodes of viral-induced wheezing that have resulted in hospitalization. What is a typical side effect of this medication that should be cautioned to the parents?

      Your Answer: Nightmares

      Explanation:

      Nightmares are a frequent and distressing side effect of montelukast. It is recommended that children take the medication in the morning instead of at night if they experience this issue. Montelukast is not associated with exacerbating coughs (which are usually caused by ramipril), blurred vision (which can be caused by Olanzapine), ringing in the ears (which is often caused by furosemide), or increased appetite (which is often a side effect of antidepressants like sertraline).

      Preschool Wheeze in Children: Classification and Management

      Wheeze is a common occurrence in Preschool children, with around 25% experiencing it before they reach 18 months old. Viral-induced wheeze is now one of the most frequently diagnosed conditions in paediatric wards. However, there is still ongoing debate about how to classify wheeze in this age group and the most appropriate management strategies.

      The European Respiratory Society Task Force has proposed a classification system for Preschool wheeze, dividing children into two groups: episodic viral wheeze and multiple trigger wheeze. Episodic viral wheeze occurs only during a viral upper respiratory tract infection and is symptom-free in between episodes. On the other hand, multiple trigger wheeze can be triggered by various factors, such as exercise, allergens, and cigarette smoke. Episodic viral wheeze is not associated with an increased risk of asthma in later life, while a proportion of children with multiple trigger wheeze may develop asthma.

      For parents who smoke, it is strongly recommended that they quit smoking. The management of episodic viral wheeze is symptomatic, with first-line treatment involving short-acting beta 2 agonists or anticholinergic via a spacer. If symptoms persist, the next step is intermittent leukotriene receptor antagonist or inhaled corticosteroids, or both. Oral prednisolone is no longer considered necessary for children who do not require hospital treatment. For multiple trigger wheeze, a trial of inhaled corticosteroids or a leukotriene receptor antagonist is typically recommended for 4-8 weeks.

      Overall, the classification and management of Preschool wheeze in children is an ongoing area of research and debate, with the aim of providing the most effective and appropriate care for these young patients.

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  • Question 28 - A 7-year-old girl from a Somali immigrant family has been experiencing discomfort in...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl from a Somali immigrant family has been experiencing discomfort in her arms and legs. Upon examination, you observe that she also has bow legs.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Rickets and its Risk Factors in Dark-Skinned Populations

      Rickets is a condition that affects bone development in children, and dark skin is a risk factor for this condition in certain populations. In the United Kingdom, South Asian, African Caribbean, and Middle Eastern descent populations are particularly at risk. A study conducted in Bristol found that most cases of rickets were among Somali patients. The study identified 31 children with vitamin D deficiency, seven of whom had bone or limb pain, seven had bow legs or swollen joints, one had convulsions, and one had respiratory difficulty. Twelve children were asymptomatic and diagnosed through screening after a family member was found to have vitamin D deficiency. Fibromyalgia, infantile tibia vara, juvenile chronic arthritis, and physiological bow leg deformity are not related to rickets. It is important to identify and address risk factors for rickets in order to prevent and treat this condition.

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  • Question 29 - A 10-week-old boy has not opened his bowels for five days. The mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-week-old boy has not opened his bowels for five days. The mother reports that he is exclusively breastfed. The baby appears healthy, and examination findings are unremarkable. Meconium was passed within the first 24 hours after birth. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Macrogol laxative should be given

      Correct Answer: Reassure the parents that this is usually normal in a breastfed infant

      Explanation:

      Understanding Infant Bowel Movements: Breastfed Babies and Constipation

      Breastfed infants tend to have more frequent bowel movements than formula-fed babies, but there is a wide range of normal variation. It is common for breastfed babies to have frequent bowel movements up to six weeks of age due to the gastro-colic reflex. However, it is also normal for breastfed babies to go several days without a bowel movement, sometimes up to 7-10 days. When a bowel movement does occur after a longer period of time, it may be a blow-out of normal consistency and should not cause concern as long as it appears painless.

      It is important to note that simple straining to pass stool is also normal and doesn’t necessarily indicate constipation. However, if there are worrying signs such as difficulty with feeding, failure to gain weight, or signs of discomfort, medical attention should be sought.

      It is not necessary to give a macrogol laxative unless a diagnosis of constipation is made. Additionally, introducing baby food containing fruit and vegetables is not appropriate for exclusively breastfed infants. Prune juice may help with constipation, but it is not recommended for infants until they are weaned at 4-6 months.

      Overall, as long as the baby is well and examination is normal, there is no need for urgent referral to hospital. However, if constipation appears during the first few weeks of life, it may be a sign of a more serious condition such as Hirschsprung’s disease, which requires medical attention.

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  • Question 30 - A mother brings her 18-month-old daughter in for review. She started walking three...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 18-month-old daughter in for review. She started walking three months ago. The mother has noticed that her daughter seems to be 'bow-legged' when she walks.

      Examination of the knees and hips is unremarkable with a full range of movement. Leg length is equal. On standing the intercondylar distance is around 7cm.

      What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Refer to paediatric orthopaedics

      Correct Answer: Reassure that it is a normal variant and likely to resolve by the age of 4 years

      Explanation:

      It is common for children under the age of 3 to have bow legs, which is considered a normal variation. Typically, this condition resolves on its own by the time the child reaches 4 years old.

      Common Variations in Lower Limb Development in Children

      Parents may become concerned when they notice what appears to be abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This often leads to a visit to the primary care physician and a referral to a specialist. However, many of these variations are actually normal and will resolve on their own as the child grows.

      One common variation is flat feet, where the medial arch is absent when the child is standing. This is typically seen in children of all ages and usually resolves between the ages of 4-8 years. Orthotics are not recommended, and parental reassurance is appropriate.

      Another variation is in-toeing, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. In most cases, these will resolve on their own, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention such as serial casting or surgical intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, are typically seen in the first or second year of life and are characterized by an increased intercondylar distance. This variation usually resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, are seen in the third or fourth year of life and are characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This variation also typically resolves on its own.

      In summary, many variations in lower limb development in children are normal and will resolve on their own. However, if there is concern or persistent symptoms, intervention may be appropriate.

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