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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with advanced colonic cancer becomes cachectic. He is still living at home and is troubled by his lack of appetite and rapid weight loss. There are no obvious reversible problems (eg pain, medication, vomiting, reflux), and his examination shows no acute issues such as bowel obstruction. Blood tests are unremarkable, other than long-standing anaemia and low albumin levels.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be beneficial for patients with anorexia/cachexia?Your Answer: Cyclizine
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Anorexia/Cachexia Syndrome in Palliative Care
The anorexia/cachexia syndrome is a complex metabolic process that occurs in the end stages of many illnesses, resulting in loss of appetite, weight loss, and muscle wasting. While drugs can be used to improve quality of life, their benefits may be limited or temporary. Corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone, are a commonly used treatment option for short-term improvement of appetite, nausea, energy levels, and overall wellbeing. However, their effects tend to decrease after 3-4 weeks. Proton pump inhibitors, like omeprazole, should be co-prescribed for gastric protection. Amitriptyline is unlikely to be beneficial in these circumstances, but may be useful for depression or neuropathic pain. Cyclizine may help with nausea, but doesn’t have a role in anorexia/cachexia. Levomepromazine is commonly used for end-of-life care to alleviate nausea, but is unlikely to target anorexia or cachexia specifically. Overall, treatment options for anorexia/cachexia syndrome in palliative care should be carefully considered and tailored to each individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is terminally ill with carcinoma of the pancreas. He has abdominal and back pain and his analgesic combination of full doses of paracetamol and codeine is no longer controlling this.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication?Your Answer: Tramadol
Correct Answer: Morphine
Explanation:Choosing the Right Pain Medication: A Guide to Opioids and Adjuvants
When it comes to managing pain, healthcare professionals often follow the World Health Organization’s analgesic ladder. This involves starting with non-opioid medications, such as paracetamol, and weak opioids, such as codeine, before moving on to stronger opioids like morphine if necessary.
In cases where bone pain or soft tissue infiltration is present, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like ibuprofen can be added as an adjuvant at any step in pain management. However, it is important to note that these adjuvants are unlikely to be a substitute for stronger opioids like morphine.
Dihydrocodeine and tramadol are both weak opioids and are therefore unlikely to provide significant pain relief in cases where stronger medication is needed. Amitriptyline, on the other hand, is an adjuvant typically used for neuropathic pain and is unlikely to be effective in this scenario.
For patients who require a strong opioid but are unable to take oral medication, fentanyl may be prescribed as a transdermal patch. Ultimately, the choice of pain medication and adjuvants will depend on the individual patient’s needs and the severity of their pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with known Hodgkin's lymphoma presents with concerns of facial swelling. Upon examination, his face appears red and puffy, with engorged neck veins and a non-rising jugular venous pulse upon liver palpation. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Superior vena cava obstruction
Correct Answer: Cardiac failure
Explanation:Superior Vena Cava Obstruction: A Potentially Urgent Condition
Superior vena cava obstruction is a rare but serious condition that requires prompt treatment. Although it is not immediately life-threatening, it can cause swelling of the face and fixed elevation of the jugular venous pulse. In the UK, lung cancer is the most common cause, but lymphoma can also be a factor.
Treatment options may include steroids or stenting, but in a primary care setting, the first step is to admit the patient as an emergency for further investigation and treatment. It is important to act quickly to prevent any potential complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with spinal pain. He has a history of bronchial carcinoma. Which of the following signs is LEAST indicative of spinal metastases?
Select ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lumbar pain relieved by rest and aggravated by movement
Explanation:Recognizing Spinal Metastases: Symptoms and Risks
Spinal metastases pose a significant risk of spinal cord compression, affecting 5-10% of all cancer patients. While all options may indicate spinal metastases, it is crucial to identify specific symptoms. Lumbar pain that worsens with movement and improves with rest is a common symptom of mechanical back pain, but other concerning features include progressive and nocturnal spinal pain. If a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of spinal metastases, doctors should consult with the local metastatic spinal cord coordinator within 24 hours to ensure prompt and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The district nurses request your presence for a home visit to assess a 42-year-old woman with a fungating squamous cell skin carcinoma. She is receiving palliative care due to widespread metastatic disease.
The nurses have been attending to the wound dressing multiple times a week, but have observed that the tumour has become malodorous. What topical medications could be beneficial in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Managing Malodorous Fungating Tumours with Metronidazole
Fungating tumours require meticulous nursing care, including regular dressings and frequent monitoring. However, in cases where the tumour emits a foul odour, additional measures may be necessary. Metronidazole is a medication that can be used to reduce malodour in these instances. It can be administered both systemically and topically, with the latter being the preferred method.
Topical metronidazole is typically applied to the wound once or twice a day. This medication has been found to have good activity against anaerobic bacteria, which are often responsible for the unpleasant odour associated with fungating tumours. Other treatment options are unlikely to be effective in managing malodour in these cases.
In summary, managing malodorous fungating tumours requires a comprehensive approach that includes good nursing care and the use of appropriate medications such as metronidazole. By following these guidelines, patients can experience improved quality of life and greater comfort during their palliative care journey.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A surgery hires a Nurse Practitioner (NP) to care for a nearby nursing home. The GPs only visit when requested by the NPs. An 87-year-old woman with dementia contracts a chest infection. Following discussions with her family, the NP decides to treat her with oral antibiotics but not to admit her. She passes away two days later, and a GP from the local out-of-hours service confirms her death. The woman's last GP visit was five weeks ago. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Report the death to the Coroner
Explanation:As the patient was not examined by a physician during the final 28 days of their illness, it is necessary to report their death.
Death Certification in the UK
There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.
When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.
Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 7
Incorrect
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John is a 85-year-old man with advanced metastatic prostate cancer who you have been managing in the community with palliative care who has died today. You fill out the death certificate. In which of the following circumstances would you be required to refer the case to the coroner?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If the person who died was not visited by a medical practitioner during their final illness
Explanation:A death should be referred to the coroner if the person who died was not visited by a medical practitioner during their final illness, if the cause of death is unknown, if the death was violent or unnatural, if the death was sudden and unexplained, if a medical certificate is not available, if the person who died wasn’t seen by the doctor who signed the medical certificate within 28 days before death or after they died, if the death occurred during an operation or before the person came out of anaesthetic, or if the medical certificate suggests the death may have been caused by an industrial disease or industrial poisoning.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman has liver metastases from a colorectal cancer. She complains of nausea, which comes in waves, and experiences vomiting before going for chemotherapy but finds this less troublesome after chemotherapy. She also finds the nausea less troublesome when she is distracted.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anxiety
Explanation:Assessing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Possible Causes and Treatment Options
When assessing nausea and vomiting in palliative care, it is important to seek a reversible cause. If none is found, a specific diagnosis should be made. One possible cause is anxiety, which can present with nausea in waves and anticipatory vomiting that may be relieved by distraction. Benzodiazepines or levomepromazine can be used for medication. Other causes include gastric stasis, gastric outflow obstruction, small stomach syndrome, oesophageal blockage, bowel obstruction, raised intracranial pressure, movement-related nausea, vestibular issues, drugs, metabolic issues, and carcinomatosis. It is important to consider all possible causes and choose appropriate treatment options accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The director of a nearby assisted living facility reaches out to your practice to notify you of the sudden passing of an 80-year-old man. He had a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and advanced dementia. Your last interaction with him was during a home visit 2 months ago to discuss advanced care planning, which included avoiding hospitalization and establishing a do not resuscitate order.
What is the best course of action to take following his death?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner
Explanation:If a doctor has not seen the deceased in the 28 days prior to their death, the death must be referred to the coroner. This is a notifiable death and may require further investigation and a post-mortem. However, the first step is to refer the death to the coroner’s office. Alerting the safeguarding lead or calling 999 is not necessary in this situation, and completing the death certificate should not be done until after the coroner’s investigation is complete.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer presents with chest wall pain and pain in her left hip. She is under the oncologists and recent imaging revealed diffuse metastatic deposits throughout her pelvis, spine and ribs, some of which appear to account for her present pain.
The patient has come to see you to discuss pain relief as she currently takes only regular paracetamol. You discuss the options and she agrees that the next step is to use a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Her past medical history includes angina which gives her relatively frequent symptoms and for which she continues to receive medication to treat.
Which is the most appropriate NSAID to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketorolac 10 mg QDS
Explanation:Managing Symptoms in Patients with Metastatic Cancer: Considerations for Prescribing Anti-Inflammatory Medications
When managing symptoms in patients with metastatic cancer, it is important to consider the potential side effects of medications. For example, if a patient has angina, prescribing an anti-inflammatory medication should take into account their cardiac risk to avoid thrombotic complications that could cause additional pain and suffering.
Cyclo-oxygenase-2 selective inhibitors (COX-2 inhibitors) carry an increased risk of myocardial infarction and stroke and should only be used over non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) if specifically indicated. However, even among NSAIDs, there is variation in terms of thrombotic risk. Diclofenac at 150 mg daily and high dose ibuprofen at 2.4 g daily are linked with an increased thrombotic risk, while naproxen 1 g daily and lower doses of ibuprofen (=<1.2 g daily) have not been shown to be associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. Therefore, when prescribing anti-inflammatory medications for patients with metastatic cancer, it is important to consider their individual cardiovascular risk and choose the medication with the best safety profile. The lowest effective dose of NSAID should be prescribed for the shortest period of time to control symptoms, and the need for long-term treatment should be reviewed periodically.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, complaining of profound fatigue. This has developed during and since he completed adjuvant chemotherapy for prostate cancer. He finds that he is low in energy despite getting around seven hours of sleep a day.
Recent blood tests including a full blood count, prostate-specific antigen (PSA), thyroid function tests, vitamin D, iron studies and renal function are all normal. He requests advice on how he can address his symptoms.
What is the most appropriate advice to give this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should maintain a good level of physical activity
Explanation:Managing Cancer-Related Fatigue: Practical Advice and Guidance
Cancer-related fatigue is a common symptom experienced by many patients undergoing treatment. While the causes are not fully understood, there are practical steps that can be taken to manage this debilitating condition.
One important factor is maintaining a good level of physical activity. This can help reduce symptoms of fatigue, boost appetite, provide more energy, and improve sleep quality. However, it’s important to strike a healthy balance between activity and rest.
While support groups can be helpful for some patients, it’s important to note that speaking to others about fatigue may worsen symptoms for some. It’s important to find what works best for each individual.
Short-term sedative sleeping tablets are not recommended for managing fatigue. Instead, establishing a sleep routine and practicing good sleep hygiene can be more effective.
Psychological support can also be beneficial for some patients. Many hospitals offer access to counsellors or staff specially trained to provide emotional support to people affected by cancer. Oncologists or specialist nurses can provide information about available services.
Overall, managing cancer-related fatigue requires a multifaceted approach that takes into account individual needs and preferences. By following practical advice and guidance, patients can improve their quality of life and better cope with the challenges of cancer treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has metastatic disease following a carcinoma of the lung. He has been discharged to be cared for at home as per his wishes and has a home visit from his general practitioner. He is not eating or drinking and has a syringe driver of morphine and cyclizine to manage symptoms. His conscious level is variable.
Which of the following signs would indicate that he is entering the last days of life?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cheyne-Stokes breathing
Explanation:Understanding Symptoms in Palliative Care: Indicators of End-of-Life
As a patient approaches the end of their life, it can be difficult to determine the exact moment of passing. However, certain symptoms may indicate that the end is near. Cheyne-Stokes breathing, characterized by cycles of increasingly deep and shallow respiration with possible periods of apnea, is a poor prognostic sign often seen in palliative care. Rectal bleeding may indicate progression of colorectal carcinoma, but doesn’t necessarily indicate the end of life. Abdominal distension may be related to the cancer or constipation caused by pain medication, but is not an indicator of prognosis. Grand mal seizures may require further investigation or treatment, but do not necessarily give an idea of prognosis. Pain management should be regularly reviewed, but the amount of pain doesn’t necessarily correlate with entering the end-of-life phase. Understanding these symptoms can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for patients and their families during this difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are called to see a palliative care patient who is homebound and receiving care from the district nurses and community palliative care nurses. The primary diagnosis is lung cancer and symptom control is currently being achieved with the use of a syringe driver. The reason for the call today is that the patient's 85-year-old mother has had three seizures in the last 24 hours. The patient is for palliative treatment only and neither she nor her family want her to be admitted to the hospital. You review the current medications being administered via the syringe driver and see that she is being given diamorphine, cyclizine, and hyoscine hydrobromide.
Which of the following treatment plans is most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin 300 mg daily taken orally
Explanation:Treatment Options for Seizures in Palliative Care
In palliative care, patients may experience seizures which can be distressing for both the patient and their family. To prevent further fits and provide symptom palliation, treatment is necessary. However, the method of administration must be considered as the patient may already be receiving medication via a syringe driver. Oral preparations may not be absorbed adequately, and phenytoin is not the medication of choice in this setting. Benzodiazepines can provide palliation of anxiety, restlessness, and breathlessness, as well as treat seizures. However, intramuscular and rectal administration of medication can be uncomfortable for the patient.
Midazolam is the benzodiazepine antiepileptic of choice for use as a continuous subcutaneous infusion. It is typically administered at initial doses of 20-40 mg over 24 hours. Lorazepam and diazepam also have their roles in palliative care, but they may be preferable in different situations, especially if delivery is by an alternative route to subcutaneous infusion and as required use is indicated for more infrequent symptoms. Overall, the choice of treatment for seizures in palliative care should be carefully considered to ensure the patient’s comfort and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has metastatic prostate cancer. Because he is now experiencing excessive fatigue, some routine blood tests are performed.
Which of the following findings would raise the most concern?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium 3.42 mmol/l
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Test Results: A Case Study of Hypercalcaemia
The patient’s blood test results show a serum calcium concentration of 3.42 mmol/l, indicating hypercalcaemia most likely caused by cancer. This constitutes an emergency, and the patient should be immediately offered admission to the hospital. Intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates are the usual management for hypercalcaemia. The other blood test results, including alanine aminotransferase, potassium, sodium, and urea, are all within normal limits or near the upper end of the reference range and are not a cause for concern. This case study highlights the importance of recognizing significant abnormalities in blood test results, especially in emergency situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man is seen by the District Nurse at home, where he is being looked after by his family as he has advanced prostate cancer with bone metastases. His pain has been well controlled; he has a catheter in situ and can take oral medication. In the last week, he has not been eating and drinking much. His urine output is reduced; hence, his urine looks concentrated.
Over the last two days, he has become very confused, especially in the evening. He has been trying to get out of his bed and he has been pulling his catheter. He has been shouting at the family. His wife is very distressed. She asks for some sedation.
On examination by the District Nurse, his temperature is 37 oC. His pulse is 90 bpm and regular, while his blood pressure is 112/78 mmHg. His oxygen saturation is 96% on air. A urine dipstick is positive for protein.
What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.5 mg haloperidol orally
Explanation:Medication Options for Delirium in Palliative Care
When managing delirium in palliative care patients, it is important to consider the appropriate medication options. For a patient experiencing symptoms of delirium, such as confusion and agitation, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of haloperidol. The initial dose should be 0.5-1.0 mg at night and every two hours as needed, with the option to increase the dose in 0.5-1.0 mg increments up to a maximum of 10 mg per day (or 5 mg per day for elderly patients).
While benzodiazepines may be used for delirium management, temazepam and diazepam are not recommended by NICE. Instead, lorazepam would be the preferred benzodiazepine option. Zopiclone, a hypnotic used for insomnia, is not indicated for delirium treatment in palliative care.
It is important to consider the patient’s ability to take medication orally and the availability of a syringe driver when selecting a medication option. Administering subcutaneous medication may delay the management of delirium if the patient is still able to take medication orally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing increased pain and frequent vomiting while taking oral modified-release morphine sulphate 60mg bd. It has been decided to switch to subcutaneous administration. What is the appropriate dosage of morphine for a continuous subcutaneous infusion over a 24-hour period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 60mg
Explanation:In this scenario, the BNF suggests administering half the usual oral dose of morphine.
When morphine is given through injection (subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intravenous), the recommended dose is approximately half of the oral dose. If the patient is no longer able to swallow, a continuous subcutaneous infusion of morphine is typically used.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The importance of comprehending the function of grief in palliative care lies in aiding patients and their caregivers in managing it. What is the typically acknowledged sequence of the phases of bereavement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Explanation:Understanding the Five Stages of Grief: Insights from Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross
Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross is known for her pioneering work in supporting and counseling individuals experiencing personal trauma, grief, and grieving, particularly in relation to death and dying. Her ideas, particularly the five stages of grief model, have been widely used to help people cope with emotional upheavals resulting from various life events.
The first stage is denial, which involves a conscious or unconscious refusal to accept the reality of the situation. This can be a defense mechanism that some people use to cope with traumatic changes. However, denial can also hinder the healing process if it is not addressed.
The second stage is anger, which can manifest in different ways. People may direct their anger towards themselves or others, especially those close to them. It is important to understand that anger is a natural response to grief and to remain non-judgmental when dealing with someone who is upset.
The third stage is bargaining, which often involves attempting to make deals with a higher power or trying to negotiate a better outcome. However, this rarely provides a sustainable solution for grief.
The fourth stage is depression, which can include feelings of sadness, regret, fear, and uncertainty. It is a sign that the person is beginning to accept the reality of the situation.
The final stage is acceptance, which varies depending on the individual’s circumstances. It is an indication that the person has achieved some emotional detachment and objectivity. People who are dying may enter this stage long before their loved ones, and they must go through their own unique stages of grief.
While Kübler-Ross’s concepts were developed through extensive interviews with dying patients, some have criticized her one-size-fits-all approach as being too simplistic. Not everyone will experience all of these stages, and they may not occur in a specific order. Nonetheless, understanding these stages can provide valuable insights into the grieving process and help individuals cope with emotional upheavals resulting from various life events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism currently treated with thyroxine replacement presents with gradually progressive weakness over the past few months. She now finds it difficult to get out of a chair and to climb the stairs at home. Medication includes thyroxine and ramipril.
On examination, her BP is 138/88 mmHg, heart rate is 75 bpm and regular. She has fatigable ptosis and proximal myopathy affecting both the upper and lower limbs. There is no muscle wasting or fasciculation.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Understanding Myasthenia Gravis
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a possible diagnosis for a patient with slowly progressive proximal myopathy and a history of autoimmunity. The main symptoms are proximal muscle weakness and ptosis, without muscle wasting or fasciculation. Sensation is unimpaired, and tendon reflexes are normal. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies are found in 85% of patients with generalised myasthenia. Treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and oral corticosteroids.
Other conditions, such as Lambert-Eaton syndrome, myotonic dystrophy, motor neurone disease, and Guillain-Barré syndrome, have different presentations and are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. It is important to consider all possible diagnoses and conduct appropriate tests to ensure an accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents with chronic leg pain and is diagnosed with an osteosarcoma.
Which of the following is true of osteosarcoma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Typical punched out lesion seen on x ray
Explanation:Osteosarcomas: A Bone Cancer that Affects Long Bones
Osteosarcomas are a type of bone cancer that primarily affects the metaphysis of long bones, with the knee and proximal humerus being the most commonly affected areas. Although they are more commonly seen in young adults, they can also occur in the elderly in association with Paget’s disease. The most common symptoms of osteosarcomas are bone pain and a palpable lump.
When an x-ray is taken, periosteal elevation (known as Codman’s triangle) and a ‘sunburst’ appearance due to soft tissue involvement are typically seen. Early haematogenous spread is common, and the 5-year survival rate is approximately 50%.
Overall, osteosarcomas are a serious form of bone cancer that require prompt diagnosis and treatment. By understanding the symptoms and diagnostic features of this condition, patients and healthcare providers can work together to develop an effective treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer has noticed an increase in nausea and vomiting as her opioid dose has been raised. She is currently experiencing persistent and severe vomiting with minimal relief of her nausea.
Which medication is most likely to provide relief for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Managing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Medications to Consider
Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms in palliative care, and can be caused by a variety of factors such as drug toxicity or metabolic disturbances. To manage these symptoms, several medications can be considered.
Haloperidol is often the first-line drug for opioid-induced nausea, renal failure, and hypercalcaemia. Metoclopramide and levomepromazine are alternative options. For nausea caused by cytotoxic therapy or radiotherapy, ondansetron can be used.
Ranitidine may be beneficial if gastric or oesophageal stasis is an issue. Cyclizine is useful for managing vagally-mediated nausea and vomiting caused by mechanical bowel obstruction, vestibular disturbance, and Intracranial disease. Dexamethasone can be added to cyclizine in scenarios where Intracranial pressure is raised.
Finally, hyoscine butylbromide can be used for managing bowel colic and excessive gastrointestinal secretions. When selecting medications, it is important to consider the underlying cause of the nausea and vomiting, as well as the patient’s individual needs and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 21
Incorrect
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For a person with a certain condition, what is the most probable prognostic indicator of nearing end of life (within 12 months)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia in a patient with motor neurone disease
Explanation:Clinical Indicators for End-of-Life Care in Various Conditions
The Gold Standards Framework (GSF) Prognostic Indicator Guidance provides specific clinical indicators for various conditions that suggest the patient is approaching the end of life. For motor neurone disease, the indicators include marked rapid decline in physical status, first episode of aspiration pneumonia, increased cognitive difficulties, weight loss, significant complex symptoms and medical complications, low vital capacity, dyskinesia, mobility problems, falls, and communication difficulties. Lack of improvement three months after a stroke is an indicator for someone with severe paralysis. Wheelchair-bound multiple sclerosis patients may have quite a long life. Frail elderly people with co-morbidities may experience significant weight loss, but it needs to be accompanied by deteriorating function or at least two of weakness, slow walking speed, low physical activity, exhaustion, or depression. For patients with heart failure, repeated hospital admissions carry prognostic significance. These indicators can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate end-of-life care for patients with various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A geriatric patient with terminal illness is currently receiving 60mg of modified release morphine every 12 hours. Due to difficulty in swallowing, you plan to switch to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine. The morphine ampoules available are of 10 mg/ml strength. What would be the required volume of morphine (in ml) to be added to the syringe driver for a 24 hour period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6
Explanation:Converting Oral Morphine to Subcutaneous Infusion
In order to convert oral morphine to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine, the total 24 hour oral dose must be calculated. For example, if the patient is taking a 12 hour release preparation of 60mg, the total daily dose of oral morphine is 120mg. To convert this to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine, the figure must be divided by two. For diamorphine, the figure would be divided by three. Therefore, the patient needs 60mg morphine over 24 hours.
It is important to note that the question asks for the volume of morphine over 24 hours, not the dose. If the ampoules are 10 mg/ml, then to deliver 60mg in 24 hours, 6 x 10 mg/ml = 6 ml is needed. It is crucial to read the question carefully to ensure the correct answer is given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 23
Incorrect
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As a member of staff at a GP practice, your supervising GP begins discussing the coroner's responsibilities and when it is necessary to refer deceased patients to them. She asks you to identify which of the following cases should be referred to the coroner for an autopsy:
A patient in their 90s who passed away peacefully in their sleep at home.
Please indicate which case requires referral to the coroner.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A patient with a long history of mental illness and self-harm who committed suicide
Explanation:Reporting to the coroner is necessary when a patient dies by suicide, as none of the other options meet the reporting criteria outlined in the notes.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man with advanced pancreatic cancer is experiencing widespread pruritus and has tried several emollients, including one with menthol. He is jaundiced and has declined a biliary stent. What is the next most suitable medication to try for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydroxyzine
Explanation:Management of Pruritus in Palliative Care Patients with Advanced Pancreatic Cancer
When treating a patient with advanced pancreatic cancer who has declined stenting for relief of cholestasis, the focus should be on palliative symptom management. The underlying cause of widespread pruritus should be treated if possible, but in this case, emollients have been tried and a sedating antihistamine such as hydroxyzine or chlorphenamine is the next appropriate medication. While pregabalin and gabapentin may be considered, they should only be used after discussion with a specialist/dermatologist. Topical calamine lotion is not recommended by NICE for pruritus treatment. Hydralazine, a vasodilator antihypertensive drug, has no indication for use in pruritus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 25
Incorrect
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At what stage are GPs typically involved in myeloma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ESR and plasma viscosity are nearly always raised
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of abnormal plasma cells that produce an excess of monoclonal antibodies, also known as paraproteins. Here are some key diagnostic markers and symptoms of multiple myeloma:
– Bence Jones protein is a reliable diagnostic marker.
– Bone pain is common, usually in the back, but not in the skull.
– White blood cell count is usually normal or low, with a classic leucoerythroblastic anemia.
– Paraprotein may be absent in 20% of cases, but there are light chains in the urine.
– Serum calcium can be normal or raised, and both ESR (usually) and CRP (nearly always) are raised.
– IL6 is a key myeloma growth cytokine. Serum IL6 is raised in active myelomatosis and it primarily controls CRP production. A rise in IL6 is mirrored by a rise in CRP.
– Bone lesions are lytic.It is important to note that multiple myeloma can present differently in each individual, and a proper diagnosis requires a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional. If you are experiencing any symptoms or have concerns about multiple myeloma, please consult with your doctor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is concerned about the impact on her life expectancy.
Which of the following features is most likely to suggest that the end of life is approaching (ie within the next 12 months)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The doctor feels he will die soon
Explanation:The Gold Standards Framework (GSF) Prognostic Indicator Guidance aims to identify patients who are nearing the end of their life. The first step is to ask the surprise question to determine if the doctor would be surprised if the patient were to die in the next few months, weeks, or days. If the answer is no, measures should be taken to improve the patient’s quality of life. If the answer is yes, two further steps outline general indicators of decline and specific indicators for different diseases. For COPD, at least two of the following indicators should be present: severe disease, recurrent hospital admissions, long-term oxygen therapy criteria, MRC grade 4/5, signs and symptoms of right heart failure, combination of other factors, or more than six weeks of systemic steroids for COPD in the preceding six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are assessing a palliative care cancer patient with advanced metastatic disease who is in their 70s.
You have been requested by the palliative care community nurse to attend for a joint home visit as the patient has been experiencing headaches. The patient had a CT head scan four weeks ago that revealed extensive brain metastases.
No further active treatment has been planned, and the patient has chosen to receive home care with community support. You suspect that the headaches are due to increased intracranial pressure.
What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe for symptom relief?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:Treatment for Symptoms of Raised Intracranial Pressure in Brain Metastases Patients
This patient is experiencing symptoms of raised intracranial pressure due to brain metastases. Depending on the treatment aims and ceiling of treatment, radiotherapy may be indicated. However, pharmacotherapy can also aid in palliating symptoms. High dose corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone at 16 mg daily for four to five days, followed by a reduced dose of 4-6 mg daily, can help alleviate headaches caused by raised intracranial pressure. Other options may be considered as adjuncts to treatment for pain, nausea, and agitation. Nevertheless, dexamethasone is the best option as it directly targets the underlying problem causing the symptoms in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You do a house call to see a middle-aged gentleman with advanced colon cancer. He has been complaining of a sore mouth, retrosternal discomfort and dysphagia over the last one week.
On examination he has obvious oral thrush.
Which of the following management plans is most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Artificial saliva PRN
Explanation:Managing Dry Mouth in Palliative Care
Dry mouth is a common issue in palliative care, with various factors contributing to its development. If oral thrush is present, it should be treated accordingly. However, if there is no infective cause, simple measures such as good mouth care, chewing sugar-free gum, sucking ice cubes, or using artificial saliva can be effective. It is also important to review the patient’s medication, as certain drugs can cause dry mouth as a side effect, including opioids, antiemetics, and antimuscarinic drugs.
In cases where the patient experiences symptoms of retrosternal discomfort and dysphagia, it may suggest candidal oesophagitis with more extensive disease than what is visible in the mouth. In such cases, oral miconazole gel and oral nystatin suspension may not be enough, and systemic treatment with oral fluconazole is necessary. Therefore, managing dry mouth in palliative care requires a comprehensive approach that considers the underlying causes and appropriate treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which one of the following situations would not automatically require a doctor to contact the coroner to discuss the death?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 38-year-old man dies from cerebral malaria contracted in India
Explanation:Notifying the coroner is not legally required for this death, but it must be reported to the Local Authority Proper Officer under the Health Protection Regulations 2010.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old patient of yours has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine. One day you visit him at home to review his medication and check on symptoms. He and his wife are both confused with dosing and think he may have taken too much.
Which of the following symptoms and signs suggests opioid toxicity?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pinpoint pupils
Explanation:Opioid Toxicity and Pain Management in MRCGP Curriculum
Pinpoint pupils, confusion, nightmares, agitation, hypotension, depressed respiration, and myoclonus are all indicative of opioid toxicity. It is important to recognize these symptoms as they can be life-threatening. As part of the MRCGP curriculum, it is essential to have a thorough understanding of pain management, including the most commonly used drugs and any potential adverse effects or interactions. This knowledge will enable healthcare professionals to provide effective pain relief while minimizing the risk of opioid toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize this aspect of the curriculum to ensure that doctors are equipped to manage pain in their patients safely and effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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