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Question 1
Correct
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A 27-year-old man with sickle cell disease presents to you seeking advice on the pneumococcal vaccination. As per the current NICE CKS guidance, what would be your recommendation for this patient?
Your Answer: Advise the patient she needs the pneumococcal vaccination every 5-years
Explanation:It is important to note that sickle cell patients require the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years, as per current NICE CKS guidance. Therefore, advising them that they do not need this vaccination would be incorrect. This is because sickle cell patients, along with those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, and chronic renal disease, are likely to experience a rapid decline in antibody concentration. In contrast, patients with conditions such as chronic respiratory disease or diabetes mellitus may only require vaccination once in their lifetime.
Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.
In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 68-year-old man is referred to you by the practice nurse. During a routine medical check-up, the nurse noticed an irregular pulse while taking his blood pressure. An ECG confirmed persistent atrial fibrillation. Despite being asymptomatic, he is surprised by the diagnosis as he has always been fairly fit and healthy. He has a medical history of childhood asthma and migraines, for which he uses salbutamol and ibuprofen PRN, respectively. His blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, and his clinical examination is otherwise normal. Recent blood tests show a HbA1c of 36 mmol/mol, total cholesterol of 5.2, LDL cholesterol of 2.6, and triglycerides of 2.2. What is the first-line antithrombotic treatment that should be considered for this patient?
Your Answer: No antithrombotic treatment indicated
Correct Answer: Oral anticoagulation (for example, warfarin)
Explanation:Understanding the CHA2DS2-VASc Score for Stroke Risk Assessment
The CHA2DS2-VASc score is a tool used to assess the risk of stroke and guide the use of thromboprophylaxis. It takes into account various risk factors such as congestive heart failure, hypertension, age, diabetes, prior stroke or thromboembolism, vascular disease, and sex. Each factor is assigned a certain number of points, and the total score is used to determine whether oral anticoagulation is necessary.
If the score is 1 or more, oral anticoagulation is recommended, while a score of 0 indicates that no anticoagulation is needed. However, if the score is 1 but the only point scored is for female gender, then it is treated as a score of 0. It is important to note that aspirin, clopidogrel, and dipyridamole are not recommended alone or in combination.
In summary, the CHA2DS2-VASc score is a useful tool for assessing stroke risk and guiding thromboprophylaxis use. By taking into account various risk factors, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about the appropriate treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of intermittent headaches and feeling tired for the past two weeks. Upon conducting blood tests, the following result is obtained:
ESR 67 mm/hr
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Temporal arteritis
Explanation:Temporal arteritis is a well-known historical condition. Immediate treatment with high doses of steroids, such as prednisolone at 1 mg/kg/day, is crucial to minimize the risk of vision loss.
Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.
To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of a sizable bruise on his upper right thigh. He accidentally hit it against the table while having a meal. Upon inquiry, he reveals that he tends to bleed excessively even after minor cuts and bruises. He also mentions that his family members have experienced similar symptoms across generations.
Which is the most prevalent genetic clotting disorder that this patient is likely to have?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease (vWD)
Explanation:Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease
Von Willebrand’s disease is a genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive manner. It is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, and it behaves like a platelet disorder. Patients with this condition often experience epistaxis and menorrhagia, while haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare.
The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and serves as a carrier molecule for factor VIII. There are three types of von Willebrand’s disease: type 1, which involves a partial reduction in vWF and accounts for 80% of cases; type 2, which is characterized by an abnormal form of vWF; and type 3, which involves a total lack of vWF and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
To diagnose von Willebrand’s disease, doctors may perform a bleeding time test, measure APTT, and check factor VIII levels. Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin is also a common finding. Treatment options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of vWF, and factor VIII concentrate. The type of von Willebrand’s disease a patient has doesn’t necessarily correlate with their symptoms, but common themes include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising without trauma, and menorrhagia in females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP for routine blood tests after undergoing an elective hip replacement two weeks ago. He has been self-administering subcutaneous venous thromboembolism prophylaxis and reports feeling well. His medical history includes hypertension and polymyalgia rheumatica, and he is currently taking co-codamol, prednisolone, and ramipril. However, his blood tests reveal a platelet count of 36 * 109/L (150 - 400). What is the most likely cause of his thrombocytopenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enoxaparin
Explanation:Thrombocytopenia can be caused by heparin, including the low molecular weight heparin enoxaparin. Prosthetic joints are not a common cause of thrombocytopenia, while the other drugs listed are not typically associated with this condition. If heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is suspected or confirmed, it is important to discontinue heparin and switch to an alternative anticoagulant like danaparoid. Platelet counts should be monitored and normalized before administering warfarin.
Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia
Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This condition is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that have been associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, and anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate. Heparin, a commonly used blood thinner, is also known to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerning symptoms arise. Proper management and monitoring of drug-induced thrombocytopenia can help prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man comes to the clinic with a neck lump that has been present for four weeks. He first noticed the lump when he was buttoning up his shirt collar. He often entertains clients as part of his job but has been unable to drink alcohol for the past few weeks due to pain in the area of the lump. He also reports recent weight loss and night sweats. During the examination, his vital signs are normal, and a 5cm rubbery, firm supraclavicular lymph node is palpable. The chest is clear, and the abdomen is soft and non-tender. Based on the most probable diagnosis, what is the most appropriate course of action according to NICE guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral (within 2 weeks) for specialist assessment
Explanation:If an adult presents with unexplained lymphadenopathy, it is recommended to consider referral for Hodgkin’s lymphoma within 2 weeks. The decision to refer should take into account any associated symptoms, such as fever, night sweats, shortness of breath, pruritus, weight loss, or alcohol-induced lymph node pain. This referral is specific to Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Risk Factors
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life. There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus.
The most common symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes. This is usually painless, non-tender, and asymmetrical, and is most commonly seen in the neck, followed by the axillary and inguinal regions. In some cases, alcohol-induced lymph node pain may be present, but this is seen in less than 10% of patients. Other symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever (Pel-Ebstein). A mediastinal mass may also be present, which can cause symptoms such as coughing. In some cases, Hodgkin’s lymphoma may be found incidentally on a chest x-ray.
When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia may be present, which can be caused by factors such as hypersplenism, bone marrow replacement by HL, or Coombs-positive haemolytic anaemia. Eosinophilia may also be present, which is caused by the production of cytokines such as IL-5. LDH levels may also be raised.
In summary, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life and is associated with risk factors such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include lymphadenopathy, weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever. When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia, eosinophilia, and raised LDH levels may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, type two diabetes mellitus, and chronic kidney disease stage three (CKD 3) presents with a unilateral red eye with purulent discharge. You diagnose her with bacterial conjunctivitis. Considering her medication history, which drug should you avoid prescribing as eye drops?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Patients who are taking bone marrow suppression drugs, particularly methotrexate, should steer clear of using chloramphenicol eye drops for treating bacterial conjunctivitis. Co-trimoxazole and trimethoprim should also be avoided as they can increase the risk of methotrexate toxicity and pancytopenia. Aspirin and lisinopril are unlikely to interact seriously with methotrexate. However, caution should be exercised when using gliclazide and metformin in patients with a history of CKD 3, although the concurrent use of chloramphenicol is not expected to pose any problems.
Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of blood cells due to a poorly functioning bone marrow. It is most commonly seen in individuals around the age of 30 and is marked by a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While lymphocytes may be relatively spared, the overall effect is a condition known as pancytopenia. In some cases, aplastic anaemia may be the first sign of acute lymphoblastic or myeloid leukaemia. A small number of patients may later develop paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria or myelodysplasia.
The causes of aplastic anaemia can be idiopathic, meaning that they are unknown, or they can be linked to congenital conditions such as Fanconi anaemia or dyskeratosis congenita. Certain drugs, such as cytotoxics, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, phenytoin, and gold, as well as toxins like benzene, can also cause aplastic anaemia. Infections such as parvovirus and hepatitis, as well as exposure to radiation, can also contribute to the development of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of feeling constantly fatigued and experiencing occasional joint pains. She has undergone some initial blood tests, including a complete blood count, liver and kidney function tests, thyroid function, and bone profile, all of which have come back normal. Despite this, she is worried because her sister was recently diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. Upon further questioning, she denies any history of rash, mouth sores, or hair loss, and her physical examination is unremarkable. However, she remains anxious and is requesting another blood test to rule out the possibility of lupus.
What is the most appropriate blood test to perform in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibodies
Explanation:The ANA test is commonly used to screen for autoimmune rheumatic diseases in adults, but it is not very accurate without typical clinical features. While tests like anti-dsDNA are more specific for SLE, they are less sensitive, meaning a negative result doesn’t necessarily rule out the condition.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about decreased libido and erectile dysfunction. His wife notes that he has a constant tan and lacks energy. He also reports experiencing hand pains. What investigation is most likely to uncover the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ferritin
Explanation:To screen for haemochromatosis in the general population, a transferrin saturation level higher than ferritin is used. For family members, HFE genetic testing is recommended. It is important to note that while the patient in question is experiencing symptoms associated with haemochromatosis, diabetes mellitus alone would not typically result in decreased libido.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. He is being treated with radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
What is the most important factor influencing this patient's prognosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Response to treatment
Explanation:Hodgkin’s lymphoma can be cured in the majority of patients, especially those who respond well to treatment. A prompt and complete response to chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy is the most important factor in predicting a patient’s prognosis. Residual masses may not always indicate persisting disease, as fibrosis can persist after effective therapy. Patients who relapse after initial successful treatment can sometimes be treated with further chemotherapy, stem cell transplantation, and/or radiotherapy. The duration of initial remission is a factor in the success of retreatment. Bulky disease, a high ESR, male gender, and stage IV disease are associated with a poorer prognosis. Other adverse prognostic factors include age ≥ 45 years, low haemoglobin, low lymphocyte count, low albumin, high WCC, mixed-cellularity or lymphocyte-depleted histology, and B symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl who works in a daycare center comes in for evaluation. She reports experiencing joint pain, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramps. Additionally, she has a purplish rash on her legs and around her waistline. Upon urine testing, she shows signs of microscopic hematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts. What is the most probable cause? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a common vasculitis that affects children and young adults, typically between the ages of 4 and 15. The condition is characterized by palpable purpura on dependent areas of the body, such as the lower limbs, and areas exposed to skin pressure. Other symptoms may include subcutaneous edema, joint pain, and gastrointestinal issues. Skin biopsy can reveal a leukocytoclastic vasculitis, and elevated levels of immunoglobulin A (IgA) are present in about half of patients. In some cases, Henoch-Schönlein purpura may follow a respiratory tract infection. Glomerulonephritis may also be present, which can be identified by microscopic hematuria, proteinuria, and red-cell casts. While renal involvement occurs in up to 40% of older children, it is serious in only about 10% of patients. Treatment may involve prednisolone for severe cases, with the addition of azathioprine if glomerulonephritis is present and associated with deteriorating renal function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of nonspecific fatigue and has undergone blood tests. She schedules an appointment with you to discuss the results. She denies any sensory loss, weakness, headache, palpitations, or visual disturbance. She reports having a well-balanced diet. Upon examination, including neurological examination, everything appears normal. Her BMI is within the normal range. The following are the results:
- Hb 104 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
- Platelets 230 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 4.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- MCV 109 fl (80-100)
- Ferritin 76 ng/mL (20 - 230)
- Vitamin B12 130 ng/L (200 - 900)
- Folate 12.3 nmol/L (> 3.0)
- Intrinsic factor antibodies Positive
What would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe intramuscular (IM) hydroxocobalamin
Explanation:The usual management for Vitamin B12 deficiency involves intramuscular B12 replacement, with a loading regime followed by injections every 2-3 months. In the case of a woman with macrocytic anaemia and low serum B12 levels, the presence of intrinsic factor antibodies (IFAB) suggests pernicious anaemia, which requires lifelong hydroxocobalamin injections at 2-3 monthly intervals. While most patients with B12 deficiency are treated with IM replacement, NICE guidelines during the COVID pandemic recommend oral cyanocobalamin where possible, but this is not appropriate for this patient. Ferrous sulphate is a suitable treatment for iron deficiency anaemia. A haematology referral may be necessary if initial treatment is unsuccessful.
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old university student comes to your clinic with a complaint of back pain that has been bothering her for the past six months. She denies any bladder or bowel dysfunction. She reports experiencing severe pain in her left shoulder that radiates down her left arm whenever she drinks alcohol.
Upon examination, there is no kyphosis or scoliosis, and palpation of the spine and lumbar area is unremarkable. Sensation in her legs is normal, and her reflexes are intact.
What condition is indicated by the symptom of pain during or after alcohol consumption?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma
Explanation:Alcohol-Associated Pain in Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Pain during or after drinking alcohol has been linked to Hodgkin’s lymphoma since the 1950s. This pain typically occurs in affected lymph nodes and can be sharp or dull, with a radiating distribution. While it only occurs in 2-3% of people with HL, it is considered pathognomonic due to its high specificity. Alcohol-associated pain has also been noted in other conditions such as TB lymphadenitis, cervical carcinoma, and bronchial adenocarcinoma. In some cases, HL may present with nonspecific back pain. If a patient reports alcohol-associated pain, a full history and examination should be conducted to look for other symptoms of HL, including lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 60-year-old woman who presents to her GP with painless swelling of lymph nodes in her left armpit. On further questioning, she admits to feeling hot at night and says she has lost some weight. She has a background of rheumatoid arthritis and is on methotrexate. On examination, you can feel a 3 cm rubbery lump in her left axilla. There are no other palpable lumps anywhere else. Her observations are normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymphoma
Explanation:Patients who have been diagnosed with Sjogren’s syndrome are at a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancies. Therefore, the presence of weight loss, night sweats, and painless swelling may indicate the possibility of lymphoma.
Given that the patient is male and there is no evidence of a breast lump, breast cancer is an unlikely diagnosis.
Tuberculosis of the lymph glands typically affects the cervical chains or supraclavicular fossa and is usually bilateral.
While Hidradenitis suppurativa can cause painful abscesses in the axilla, it is improbable as a diagnosis since the lumps in this case are painless.
Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome
Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The condition is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with Sjogren’s syndrome have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely than the general population.
The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, as well as check for the presence of rheumatoid factor, ANA, anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and anti-La (SSB) antibodies.
Management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears, as well as medications like pilocarpine to stimulate saliva production. It is important for patients with Sjogren’s syndrome to receive regular medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Multiple myeloma is a monoclonal gammopathy that is characterised by proliferation of a single clone of plasma cells that produce a homogeneous M protein (paraprotein).
Select from the list the single correct statement relating to M protein in individuals over the age of 60.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It produces a distinctive spike on electrophoresis
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Clonal Disorder of Plasma Cells
Multiple myeloma is a rare but serious type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin, which can be detected through serum electrophoresis. Patients with multiple myeloma often experience painful bone lesions, recurrent infections, weakness, renal failure, and hypercalcemia.
Plasma cells produce heavy and light chains separately, and an excess of free light chains can enter the bloodstream and be filtered by the kidneys. In cases of multiple myeloma, the amount of monoclonal free light chains can become too high for the kidneys to reabsorb, leading to the presence of Bence Jones protein in the urine.
While monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance can also cause a spike-like peak in the γ-globulin zone, the levels of antibody are lower and there are no other features of myeloma. Some cases of myeloma may secrete only light chains or no detectable immunoglobulin at all.
The amount of M protein present can be used to assess the amount of myeloma at diagnosis and track the disease throughout treatment. Understanding the characteristics and detection of multiple myeloma is crucial for effective management and care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy who has been unwell over the preceding two months is brought in by his father.
The father tells you that recently the child has been overly tired and complaining of generalised aches and pains. He has been brought in today with a sore throat. Looking at his record he has been back and forth with recurrent episodes of sore throat.
On examination, the child looks pale and has enlarged lymph nodes in the neck. You also note a few small petechiae on the child's abdomen.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check a full blood count (FBC)
Explanation:Suspected Leukaemia in a Young Girl
This young girl is showing signs that suggest she may have leukaemia. Her lymphadenopathy, petechial rash, and recurrent unwellness, combined with her pale appearance, should raise concerns and prompt an urgent FBC.
Performing a urine dipstick test would not be appropriate as she doesn’t have any specific renal or urinary symptoms that suggest Henoch-Schönlein purpura. Prescribing antibiotics would also be inadequate as it would neglect the serious underlying disorder present.
Symptomatic advice and monitoring would not be enough as the red flag features present require immediate action. A throat swab would also fail to address the bigger picture and detect the underlying problem.
It is crucial to recognize the potential severity of this situation and take appropriate measures to diagnose and treat the suspected leukaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Following NICE guidance, which one of the following patients should undergo screening for hereditary thrombophilia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 54-year-old woman with an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis. Her sister was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism three years ago
Explanation:The probability of an underlying hereditary thrombophilia is high in the 54-year-old woman who has an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis and a first-degree relative with the same condition.
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.
If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).
The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.
All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male comes to his doctor with a complaint of cough, shortness of breath, and purulent sputum for the past week. He has a medical history of G6PD deficiency, COPD, and gallstones. The lab report shows that his sputum sample is positive for Streptococcus pneumoniae. What class of medications could potentially cause a severe adverse reaction in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulpha-containing drugs
Explanation:Sulphur-containing drugs such as sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, and sulfonylureas can cause haemolysis in individuals with G6PD deficiency. On the other hand, penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides, and tetracyclines are considered safe for use in individuals with G6PD deficiency.
Understanding G6PD Deficiency
G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.
Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old Vietnamese woman has been feeling unwell for a few days with a sore throat. She visits her general practitioner who conducts a full blood count and finds the following results:
Haemoglobin
125 g/l (normal 115–155 g/l)
White blood cell count (WCC)
19 × 109/l (normal 4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
Neutrophil
14 × 109/l (normal 2.5–7.5 × 109/l)
Platelets
498 × 109/l (normal 150–400 × 109/l)
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute bacterial infection
Explanation:Understanding Neutrophilia: Causes and Differential Diagnosis
Neutrophilia, an increase in absolute neutrophil count, can be acute or chronic and is often seen as an accompanying feature of various medical conditions. Acute bacterial infections, inflammatory response to shock, gout, vasculitis, and malignancies are some of the common causes of neutrophilia. Additionally, certain drugs, activities, pregnancy, myeloproliferative states, and splenectomy can also increase the neutrophil count.
However, it is important to note that neutrophilia alone cannot provide a definitive diagnosis. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, symptoms, and other laboratory tests is necessary to determine the underlying cause. For instance, in the case of a sore throat, acute bacterial infection is a likely cause of neutrophilia.
On the other hand, conditions such as cytomegalovirus infection, chronic myeloid leukaemia, pregnancy, and tuberculosis are unlikely to cause neutrophilia as a primary symptom. Instead, they may present with other characteristic features such as atypical lymphocytosis, raised WCC with granulocytes, elevated IgM antibodies, or normocytic anaemia and lymphopenia.
In summary, understanding the various causes and differential diagnosis of neutrophilia is crucial in providing accurate and timely medical care to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man visits the Practice Nurse for his international normalised ratio (INR) test. He is anticoagulated for atrial fibrillation and his INR has historically been unstable (recommended range 2–3). His last INR, 14 days ago, was 2.5. He is taking 4 mg of warfarin daily. The point-of-care INR reads 5.8. He has no active bleeding.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Withhold warfarin for 48 hours, then restart at 4 mg daily
Explanation:Managing High INR Levels in Patients on Warfarin: Choosing the Right Course of Action
When a patient on warfarin presents with a high international normalised ratio (INR), prompt management is crucial to prevent haemorrhage. The appropriate course of action depends on the severity of the INR elevation and whether the patient is bleeding.
If the patient has no active bleeding and their INR is between 5-8, warfarin should be withheld for 24-48 hours and restarted at a reduced dose. The INR should be rechecked 2-3 days later, and the cause investigated.
If the patient is bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and intravenous vitamin K administered. It can be restarted once the INR is below 5.
For an INR greater than 8 in a patient with no bleeding, the correct management is to stop warfarin, give vitamin K orally, and repeat the INR in 24 hours.
Dose reduction alone is not sufficient for an INR greater than 5, and warfarin should also be withheld for 1-2 days, with rechecking sooner (3-4 days).
While a confirmatory laboratory sample may be reasonable, it should not delay action being taken. Point-of-care testing is comparable in accuracy to laboratory samples, and management should reflect this.
In summary, managing high INR levels in patients on warfarin requires careful consideration of the severity of the INR elevation and whether the patient is bleeding. Prompt action and appropriate monitoring can prevent haemorrhage and ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman presents with fatigue over the past two weeks. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. She has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and ischemic heart disease. After conducting screening blood tests, the full blood count results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 129 g/l
- Platelets (Plt): 158 * 109/l
- White blood cells (WBC): 19.0 * 109/l
- Neutrophils (Neuts): 4.2 * 109/l
- Lymphocytes (Lymphs): 14.1 * 109/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Explanation:It is highly probable that chronic lymphocytic leukemia is the cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly patient. Neutrophilia is typically caused by steroids. An elderly person experiencing a significant lymphocytosis due to a viral illness would be uncommon.
Understanding Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is caused by the abnormal growth of B-cells, a type of white blood cell. CLL is the most common form of leukaemia in adults and is often asymptomatic, meaning it may be discovered incidentally during routine blood tests. However, some patients may experience symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, bleeding, infections, and lymphadenopathy.
To diagnose CLL, doctors typically perform a full blood count to check for lymphocytosis, a condition where there is an abnormally high number of lymphocytes in the blood. Patients may also have anaemia or thrombocytopenia, which can occur due to bone marrow replacement or autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. A blood film may also be taken to look for smudge cells, which are abnormal lymphocytes that appear broken or fragmented.
The key investigation for CLL diagnosis is immunophenotyping, which involves using a panel of antibodies specific for CD5, CD19, CD20, and CD23. This test helps to identify the type of lymphocyte involved in the cancer and can confirm the diagnosis of CLL. With early detection and proper treatment, patients with CLL can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old Greek man is found to have a mild microcytic anaemia on routine screening. His red cells have low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH). Serum ferritin is normal. He has no symptoms.
What is the most appropriate next management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Explanation:Haemoglobin Electrophoresis: Diagnosis of Thalassaemia Minor
Thalassaemia is an autosomal-recessive inherited disorder that affects globin chain production, resulting in decreased or absent α or β chains of the normal adult haemoglobin molecule. Homozygous states result in thalassaemia major, which can be fatal. Inheritance of only one affected gene results in a carrier state, called thalassaemia minor or a thalassaemia trait.
A patient’s ethnic origin and blood picture can help diagnose thalassaemia minor, which is characterized by mild or absent anaemia, hypochromic and microcytic red cells with low MCV and MCH, and normal serum ferritin. Haemoglobin electrophoresis is a useful diagnostic tool that reveals haemoglobin types and their amounts. In people with β-thalassemia, there is reduced or absent production of β-globin chains, resulting in reduced or absent HbA, elevated levels of HbA2, and increased HbF (fetal haemoglobin).
Other diagnostic tests, such as a barium enema, iron therapy, labelled red-cell scan, and upper and/or lower gastrointestinal endoscopy, are not indicated for thalassaemia minor unless there are coexisting conditions. Haemoglobin electrophoresis remains the gold standard for diagnosing thalassaemia minor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female presents with a purpuric rash on the back of her legs, frequent nosebleeds, and menorrhagia. She is currently taking Microgynon 30 as her only regular medication. A full blood count is ordered and the results are as follows: Hb 11.7 g/dl, platelets 62 * 109/l, WCC 5.3 * 109/l. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation:A diagnosis of ITP is suggested by the presence of isolated thrombocytopenia in a healthy patient. Blood dyscrasias are not typically caused by the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks platelets, leading to a reduction in their count. This condition is more common in older females and tends to be chronic in adults. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation. ITP is usually detected incidentally during routine blood tests.
Diagnosis of ITP is based on a full blood count, which shows isolated thrombocytopenia, and a blood film. A bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, and antiplatelet antibody testing has poor sensitivity and doesn’t affect clinical management.
The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, which is effective in most cases. Pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used, especially if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. IVIG raises the platelet count quicker than steroids. Splenectomy, which used to be a common treatment for ITP, is now less commonly used.
In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), a condition known as Evan’s syndrome. In such cases, treatment may involve addressing both conditions simultaneously.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Who among these women needs anti-D prophylaxis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rhesus positive woman with an antepartum bleed
Explanation:Rhesus Negative Pregnancy and Anti-D Prophylaxis
A rhesus negative pregnant woman should receive anti-D prophylaxis after any sensitising event during pregnancy to prevent the production of antibodies that could cause rhesus haemolytic disease in the baby. Sensitisation can occur if RhD-positive blood cells enter the bloodstream of a RhD-negative woman, which can happen during an antepartum bleed, an invasive procedure, an abdominal injury, or at delivery. Rhesus disease can be avoided if sensitisation is prevented.
Rhesus disease affects the baby by causing haemolysis of red blood cells and anaemia. It occurs when a pregnant mother is RhD negative, the baby is RhD positive, and sensitisation has previously occurred. An injection of anti-D immunoglobulin can prevent sensitisation in a RhD-negative woman by neutralising any fetal RhD-positive antigens that have entered her blood.
A rhesus negative woman with a rhesus negative partner cannot have a rhesus positive baby and is not at risk. A rhesus negative baby will not introduce rhesus positive antigens into the mother’s blood, so anti-D is not required in this case.
Routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis (RAADP) is administered during the third trimester of pregnancy to prevent sensitisation. This can be a single dose at 28-30 weeks or a two-dose treatment at 28 and 34 weeks. If RAADP is not given, the woman will be offered an injection of anti-D immunoglobulin within 72 hours of giving birth if the baby is RhD positive. This significantly decreases the risk of her next baby having rhesus disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment. He recently had his yearly medication review and blood tests were conducted as part of the review. The results of his full blood count show a microcytic anaemia with a haemoglobin level of 100 g/L.
Further blood tests confirm that he has iron deficiency anaemia with a low ferritin level. However, his B12, folate, anti-TTG, and haemoglobin electrophoresis blood tests are all normal. He reports feeling well, with no changes in weight or gastrointestinal symptoms. His bowel movements are regular, and he has not experienced any rectal bleeding or mucous per rectum. Upon review of his systems, there is no indication of blood loss, and he has no history of haematuria, haemoptysis, or haematemesis.
Upon clinical examination, there are no notable findings. His abdomen is soft with no palpable masses, his chest is clear, and his urine dipstick test is normal. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to a lower gastrointestinal specialist
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Unexplained Iron Deficiency Anaemia in Men Over 60
According to NICE guidelines, men over 60 with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of 120 g/L or less should be urgently referred to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for further assessment. In this case, the patient has been confirmed to have iron deficiency anaemia with a haemoglobin level below 120 g/L, despite being otherwise well with no other focal signs or symptoms, including gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, based solely on the unexplained nature and level of the iron deficiency anaemia, urgent referral is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old Asian lady presents to you through her midwife. She is currently in her second trimester of her first pregnancy and has been found to be anaemic through recent blood tests. Despite being on iron supplements for the past eight weeks, her full blood count has not improved. Upon reviewing her most recent full blood count, the following results were found:
- Haemoglobin (HB) 94 g/L (115-160)
- Mean cell volume (MCV) 66.1 fL (80-100)
- Red blood cell count 5.7 ×1012/L (3.5-5.0)
What investigations would confirm the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Explanation:Thalassaemia Trait and Microcytic Anaemia
Patients with microcytic anaemia may have beta-thalassaemia trait, also known as beta-thalassaemia minor. This condition is typically mild and well-tolerated, with a low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of less than 75. However, the anaemia may worsen during pregnancy. A diagnosis can be confirmed through haemoglobin electrophoresis, which will reveal an increased HbA2. It is important to consider the patient’s ethnicity, as thalassaemia trait is more commonly seen in individuals from the Indian sub-continent, Africa, the Mediterranean, and the far East. Although rare, cases can occur in British Caucasians.
Other conditions that can cause microcytic anaemia include B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, and haemolytic anaemia, all of which lead to a raised MCV. Serum immunoglobulin electrophoresis is used in the diagnosis of myeloma, which is not suggested by the given clinical information. Anaemia with microcytosis should prompt consideration of iron deficiency, and thalassaemia trait should also be borne in mind. An additional piece of information that can be useful is the red blood cell count. Values less than 5 ×1012/L suggest iron deficiency, whereas values greater than 5 ×1012/L may indicate thalassaemia trait. In this case, the red blood cell count is greater than 5 ×1012/L.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl develops widespread purpuric spots and is presented to the General Practitioner by her parents. She has recently been unwell with a sore throat, which resolved without antibiotics. She is otherwise well but is found to have a platelet count of 20 × 109/l (normal range 150–400 × 109/l). The rest of her full blood count is normal, as is her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monitor symptoms and avoid contact sports
Explanation:Management of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a self-limiting disorder that commonly occurs in children following an infection or immunization. Treatment is based on clinical symptoms rather than platelet count alone. In children with severe thrombocytopenia, who are often asymptomatic, avoiding antiplatelets and non-contact sports and reporting any change in symptoms urgently is recommended. Splenectomy is rarely indicated and only used in life-threatening bleeding or severe symptoms present for 12-24 months. High-dose dexamethasone is a second-line treatment used when first-line treatments, such as prednisolone, have failed. Platelet transfusions are rarely used in emergency management. Prednisolone is the first-line management if significant symptoms or a clinical need to raise the platelet count are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy has sickle cell disease.
Which of the following complications of sickle cell disease in a boy of this age most likely to experience?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Priapism
Explanation:Sickle cell disease can cause priapism, a painful and persistent erection that occurs without sexual stimulation. This is due to vaso-occlusive obstruction of the venous drainage of the penis and is most common in males with sickle cell disease under the age of 20. Priapism can be classified as prolonged or stuttering, with prolonged episodes requiring urgent medical intervention and both types potentially leading to impotence. Sickle cell disease also increases susceptibility to infection, particularly from Streptococcus pneumoniae, and can cause hand-foot syndrome in infants due to vaso-occlusion. Acute stroke is a serious complication of sickle cell disease, with a prevalence of 10% by age 50, and regular blood transfusions may be necessary for those with abnormal findings on transcranial Doppler ultrasonography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs is not associated with thrombocytopenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia
Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This condition is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that have been associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, and anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate. Heparin, a commonly used blood thinner, is also known to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerning symptoms arise. Proper management and monitoring of drug-induced thrombocytopenia can help prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A teenager with enlarged lymph nodes is a common situation faced by doctors. Which of the following descriptions of palpable lymph nodes is most suggestive of the cause being a simple adolescent viral infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small, discrete, mobile, non-tender and bilateral nodes
Explanation:Understanding Lymphadenopathy in Children: Characteristics to Look Out For
Lymphadenopathy is a common condition in children, often caused by viral infections. However, it is important to be aware of certain characteristics that may indicate more serious underlying pathology.
Small, discrete, mobile, non-tender and bilateral nodes are typical of hyperplastic lymph nodes in response to viral infections. Generalised lymphadenopathy, on the other hand, should raise concern for significant pathology such as haematological malignancies or HIV.
While lymph nodes up to 1.5 cm in the inguinal region and 2 cm in the cervical region are often normal in children, lymphadenopathy larger than this increases the risk of malignancy.
Localised unilateral lymphadenopathy is usually caused by local infections and is associated with painful, tender lymph nodes. In contrast, lymphadenopathy associated with malignancy is typically firm or rubbery, discrete, non-tender, and fixed to the skin or underlying structures.
By understanding these characteristics, healthcare professionals can better identify and manage lymphadenopathy in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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