-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 4-week old infant comes in with excessive vomiting and constipation. The mother reports that the baby has vomited several times, but has been content during feedings. The baby appears visibly dehydrated and a small lump is detected in the abdominal area during examination. What arterial blood gas results would you anticipate?
Your Answer: Low bicarbonate, hypochloraemia, hypokalaemia
Correct Answer: Elevated bicarbonate, hypochloraemia, hypokalaemia
Explanation:The typical result of pyloric stenosis is the development of alkalosis with low levels of chloride and potassium.
Understanding Pyloric Stenosis
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.
The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.
Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
What is the initial indication of puberty in males?
Your Answer: Height spurt
Correct Answer: Increase in testicular volume
Explanation:Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females
Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adulthood. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. A testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for males occurs at the age of 14.
For females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which typically occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for females reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, the onset of menstruation, typically occurs at the age of 13.
Following menarche, there is only a small increase of about 4% in height. It is important to note that normal changes in puberty may include gynaecomastia in boys, asymmetrical breast growth in girls, and diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland. These changes are a natural part of the process and should not cause alarm. Understanding the normal changes that occur during puberty can help individuals navigate this important stage of development with confidence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 16-year-old girl with short stature visits her GP due to delayed onset of menstruation. During the physical examination, the GP observes a broad neck and detects a systolic murmur in the chest. What condition is most likely causing these symptoms, and with which of the following options is it associated?
Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Aortic coarctation, a congenital cardiac abnormality characterized by the narrowing of a section of the aorta, is commonly associated with Turner’s syndrome. This condition results in an increase in afterload, which can be detected as a systolic murmur. The patient’s amenorrhea further supports a diagnosis of Turner’s syndrome over other possibilities. Mitral regurgitation, mitral stenosis, and mitral valve prolapse are unlikely to be associated with Turner’s syndrome.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 4-month-old is brought to the emergency department with a suspected UTI and responds well to antibiotics within 48 hours. An ultrasound may be necessary to determine if this is a typical or atypical UTI. What is the most common indicator of an atypical UTI?
Your Answer: Abdominal pain
Correct Answer: Poor urine flow
Explanation:If an infant under 6 months shows signs of an atypical UTI, it is important to schedule an ultrasound scan during their acute admission. Atypical UTI may be indicated by symptoms such as poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to appropriate antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms. However, raised white blood cells alone do not necessarily indicate septicaemia, and abdominal pain is a common symptom of UTI but does not necessarily indicate an atypical UTI.
Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A mother gives birth to her first baby. The baby begins vomiting persistently during the fourth week of life. The paediatrician performs a physical examination of the baby and feels a small mass about the size of an olive in the epigastrium.
Which of the following is this child likely to exhibit?Your Answer: Duodenal atresia
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Pediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders: Pyloric Stenosis, Pancreas Divisum, Biliary Stenosis, and Duodenal Atresia
Pyloric Stenosis: A newborn presenting with non-bilious vomiting during the third week of life and an ‘olive’ in the epigastrum on physical examination is indicative of pyloric stenosis. This condition occurs when the pylorus, the region of the stomach that serves as the junction between the stomach and the duodenum, becomes obstructed, preventing duodenal material from traveling to more proximal structures.
Pancreas Divisum: Pancreas divisum is a condition in which the ventral and dorsal anlage of the pancreas fail to fuse during embryology, leading to pancreatitis and pancreatic insufficiency. This occurs because the pancreatic duct fails to form, forcing pancreatic secretions through two smaller dorsal and ventral ducts that cannot support the required flow of secretions. Pancreatic juices accumulate and dilate the smaller ducts, leading to pancreatitis.
Biliary Stenosis: Biliary stenosis can lead to digestion problems, as the narrow biliary tree prevents bile from reaching the duodenum. Patients with this condition may experience cramping pain when ingesting fatty foods, and fat-soluble vitamin deficiency can develop.
Duodenal Atresia: Duodenal atresia refers to a blind-ended duodenum, which causes bilious vomiting shortly after beginning to feed. This condition is associated with trisomy 21, but there is no evidence of trisomy 21 in this scenario, and the vomiting has begun after the third week of life.
Overall, these pediatric gastrointestinal disorders have distinct presentations and require different diagnostic approaches. It is important for healthcare providers to consider all possible conditions when evaluating a patient with gastrointestinal symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old mother, gravida 4, arrives in labor without any prenatal care. During delivery, the infant is born with the intestines protruding from the abdomen, but there is a peritoneal covering safeguarding it. What is the best approach to managing the protruding bowel?
Your Answer: Immediate surgical correction
Correct Answer: Staged closure starting immediately with completion at 6-12 months
Explanation:Exomphalos and gastroschisis are two types of abdominal wall defects. Exomphalos, also known as omphalocele, is usually detected before birth, but some cases may go unnoticed. On the other hand, gastroschisis requires urgent correction as it involves abdominal contents being outside the body without a peritoneal covering. To protect the bowel, cling-film is used until the surgery can be performed. After the operation, the child may require TPN for a few weeks as the intestinal function normalizes.
When it comes to repairing omphalocele, a gradual approach is often preferred, especially for larger defects. This is because returning the abdominal contents too quickly can cause respiratory complications or an inability to close the abdomen, which can be fatal. Therefore, a staged repair allows the pulmonary system to adapt to the increased abdominal contents over a period of 6-12 months. Unlike gastroschisis, there is no need for cling-film covering in omphalocele as the peritoneum already protects the bowel.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy is brought to you by his parents due to his three-year history of nocturnal enuresis. Despite attempts at toileting, reducing fluid intake before bed, and implementing a reward system, there has been little improvement. The use of an enuresis alarm for the past six months has also been unsuccessful, with the boy still experiencing four to five wet nights per week. Both the parents and you agree that pharmacological intervention is necessary, in addition to the other measures. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment option from the following list?
Your Answer: Tolterodine
Correct Answer: Desmopressin
Explanation:Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old girl has been brought to the GP with a 2-day history of fever, malaise, and sore throat. She also has some facial redness that started yesterday evening. On examination, there is flushing of the cheeks and a fine, blanching, erythematosus rash that feels like sandpaper on the anterior aspect of the neck. There is erythema of the tonsils and tongue, without exudate. The GP also notices some erythematosus, non-tender lines in the creases of the elbows. The GP decides to prescribe a 10-day course of antibiotics.
What advice should the mother be given regarding her child's return to school?Your Answer: They can return immediately
Correct Answer: They can return to school 24 hours after taking the first dose of antibiotics
Explanation:If a child has scarlet fever, they can go back to school after 24 hours of taking antibiotics. The symptoms of tonsillopharyngitis (red tonsils and a tongue that looks like a strawberry) and maculopapular exanthem (a rash that feels like sandpaper and lines on the elbows) suggest that the child has scarlet fever. The GP does not need to see the child again because antibiotics should help them recover. However, the child should not go back to school right away because they may still be contagious. The antibiotics will last for 10 days, but the child only needs to wait for 1 day before returning to school. Alternatively, after 7 days, the child will no longer be contagious and can go back to school as usual.
Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamination occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with complaints of hip and knee pain following a minor fall from her bike. Upon examination, her knee appears normal but there is limited range of motion at the hip joint. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Perthes disease
Correct Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Explanation:Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis: Symptoms and Risk Factors
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that commonly affects obese adolescent boys with a positive family history. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head from the femoral neck, which can lead to a range of symptoms.
The most common symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include an externally rotated hip and antalgic gait, decreased internal rotation, thigh atrophy (depending on the chronicity of symptoms), and hip, thigh, and knee pain.
It is important to note that 25% of cases are bilateral, meaning that both hips may be affected. This condition can be particularly debilitating for young people, as it can limit their mobility and cause significant discomfort.
Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis, as early diagnosis and treatment can help to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 9-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with a three day history of limping. She has been experiencing illness recently. Upon examination, she has no fever and shows discomfort when moving her hip. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Correct Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Transient Synovitis in Childhood: the Causes and Diagnosis
Transient synovitis is a prevalent cause of hip pain in children, but it is crucial to rule out other more severe causes before diagnosing it. The exact cause of this condition is still unknown, but it is believed to be associated with viral infections, allergic reactions, or trauma.
Transient synovitis is a self-limiting condition that typically resolves within a few days to weeks. However, it is essential to differentiate it from other conditions that may require urgent medical attention, such as septic arthritis or Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Therefore, a thorough medical history, physical examination, and imaging studies are necessary to make an accurate diagnosis.
In conclusion, transient synovitis is a common cause of hip pain in childhood, but it is crucial to exclude other more serious conditions before diagnosing it. Parents should seek medical attention if their child experiences hip pain, limping, or difficulty walking to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
The parents of a 7-year-old boy seek your consultation regarding their son's lifelong bed wetting problem. They are worried that the issue is not improving despite his age. The boy has never had any daytime accidents and has regular bowel movements. He was potty-trained at the age of 3 and has no relevant family history except for hay fever. Physical examination shows no abnormalities, and urinalysis is normal. The parents are particularly concerned as their son is going on a camping trip with his friend's parents in 2 weeks, and they do not want him to wet the bed. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Give general advice on enuresis, reassure the parents that he is almost certain to grow out of the problem and prescribe desmopressin to be taken during the camping trip to prevent bedwetting
Explanation:Managing Primary Enuresis in Children: Advice and Treatment Options
Primary enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common condition affecting 15-20% of children. It is characterized by nocturnal enuresis without daytime symptoms and is thought to be caused by bladder dysfunction. However, parents can be reassured that most children will grow out of the problem by the age of 15, with only 1% continuing to have symptoms into adulthood.
The first-line treatment for primary enuresis without daytime symptoms is an enuresis alarm combined with a reward system. Fluid should not be restricted, and the child should be involved in the management plan. However, if short-term control is required, a prescription of desmopressin can be given to children over 5 years of age.
It is important to refer children to a pediatric urologist if they have primary enuresis with daytime symptoms or if two complete courses of either an enuresis alarm or desmopressin have failed to resolve the child’s symptoms.
Overall, while there may be little that can be done to cure the problem prior to a camping trip, there are still treatment options available to manage primary enuresis in children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
You are requested to assess a neonate who is 6 hours old and has been experiencing intermittent grunting and occasional nasal flaring. The baby was delivered this morning through an elective Caesarean section at 41 weeks gestation. The respiratory rate and oxygen saturation of the baby are both normal. The mother is worried as her previous child, who was also born through Caesarean section, had a similar presentation. What guidance would you provide to the mother?
Your Answer: The baby needs urgent intravenous antibiotics
Correct Answer: No further treatment or investigation is currently required
Explanation:The primary treatment for uncomplicated transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) involves observation and supportive care, along with the possible use of oxygen. This condition is frequently observed in babies delivered via Caesarean section, but in most cases, no additional treatment or testing is necessary if the baby is healthy. TTN typically resolves on its own, and parents should be reassured accordingly. Antibiotics, supplemental oxygen, and chest imaging are not typically required unless symptoms worsen. Additionally, TTN is not linked to any genetic predisposition or cause.
Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
An 18-year-old girl visits her GP with worries about not having started her menstrual cycle yet. Apart from that, she feels healthy. During the examination, she appears to be of average height and has developed breasts, but has minimal pubic hair growth. The doctor can feel two lumps in her groin area upon examination of her abdomen. Her external genitalia seem normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s presentation is consistent with androgen insensitivity, which is a genetic condition where individuals with XY chromosomes have female physical characteristics due to a lack of testosterone receptors in their tissues. This disorder is X-linked and often results in undescended testes. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is unlikely as it typically causes early puberty and virilization, while Kallmann syndrome does not explain the presence of groin masses. Polycystic ovarian syndrome usually results in secondary amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea and is accompanied by other symptoms such as acne and hirsutism. Turner’s syndrome, which causes primary amenorrhea, is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, heart defects, and abnormal breast development, and does not involve undescended testes.
Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of LH and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this disorder often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia and have an increased risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.
Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallmann syndrome, is another cause of delayed puberty. It is typically inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with Kallmann syndrome may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, and anosmia. Sex hormone levels are low, and LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects may also be present.
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46XY) having a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this disorder may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46XY genotype. Management includes counseling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy due to an increased risk of testicular cancer from undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth before goes into spontaneous labour and you are assisting in the vaginal delivery of a baby girl weighing 3.2 kg. To assess the newborn's health, you use the Apgar score. Can you provide the correct components of the Apgar score?
Your Answer: Pulse, respiratory effort, O2 saturation, muscle tone, colour
Correct Answer: Pulse, respiratory effort, colour, muscle tone, reflex irritability
Explanation:To evaluate the well-being of a newborn, medical professionals use the Apgar scoring system. This system takes into account the infant’s pulse, respiratory function, skin color, muscle tone, and reflex response.
The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
What are the possible causes of cyanosis in a newborn?
Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:Common Heart Conditions and Their Characteristics
Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a heart condition where there is a hole in the wall that separates the two lower chambers of the heart. This results in a left to right shunt, which means that oxygen-rich blood from the left side of the heart flows into the right side of the heart and mixes with oxygen-poor blood. This can lead to symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and poor growth in infants.
Coarctation is another heart condition where there is a narrowing of the aortic arch, which is the main blood vessel that carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body. This narrowing can cause high blood pressure in the arms and head, while the lower body receives less blood flow. Symptoms may include headaches, dizziness, and leg cramps.
Hyperbilirubinaemia, on the other hand, is not associated with cyanosis, which is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood. Hyperbilirubinaemia is a condition where there is an excess of bilirubin in the blood, which can cause yellowing of the skin and eyes.
Lastly, Eisenmenger syndrome is a rare but serious complication that can develop much later in life following a left to right shunt, such as in VSD. This occurs when the shunt reverses and becomes a right to left shunt, leading to low oxygen levels in the blood and cyanosis. Symptoms may include shortness of breath, fatigue, and heart palpitations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Sarah is a 19-year-old woman who was admitted with a fever and disseminated rash. She had not been previously vaccinated and was in contact with her 2-year-old cousin who had developed a fever and disseminated blisters and vesicles containing clear fluid. After 2 weeks, she began to have a fever and flu-like symptoms. Similar clear-fluid filled vesicles and blisters developed 3 days later and she was admitted for further observation.
After 3 days of observation, Sarah noticed that one of the lesions on her thigh appeared to be red and becoming hot to touch. An area of skin approximately 3x3cm was erythematosus. The skin was marked and she was commenced on IV flucloxacillin. Over the coming 12 hours, the erythema around this lesion continued to spread. The pain around her leg increased in intensity, requiring morphine to take the edge off the pain. A blueish discolouration began to develop around the rash.
What is the likely organism that has caused the complication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: β- haemolytic Group A Streptococcus
Explanation:Chickenpox and Necrotizing Fasciitis
Chickenpox can increase the risk of developing invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections, including necrotizing fasciitis. Symptoms of chickenpox include the development of fevers, blisters, and vesicles, which can be milder in children but cause significant morbidity in adults. If a rapidly evolving rash with significant pain out of proportion to the rash is observed, along with blueish discoloration of the skin, it could be indicative of necrotizing fasciitis. In such cases, immediate surgical review should be sought.
Invasive group A Streptococcus is a β-haemolytic Streptococcus that is often the cause of necrotizing fasciitis in patients with chickenpox. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are initially used, with the choices tailored to bacterial sensitivities when known. Staphylococcus aureus can also cause necrotizing fasciitis, but it is more commonly associated with patients who have other underlying medical conditions like diabetes. Enterococcus faecalis is not known to cause skin infections and is often associated with infections like endocarditis. Streptococcus bovis is a gamma-haemolytic Streptococcus that is most often associated with colorectal cancer-associated endocarditis and is not associated with skin infections. Clostridium perfringens can cause necrotizing fasciitis and presents as gas gangrene, which is characterized by crepitus under the skin, a symptom not seen in chickenpox-related necrotizing fasciitis.
Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.
Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.
Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia
Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency department with symptoms of malaise, rash, vomiting and fever. The mother reports that the child has not been eating well for the past day and has been running a low-grade temperature. Additionally, the mother points out a partial thickness burn on the child's arm that has been treated with dressings by their GP. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toxic shock syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for an unwell child with an unhealed burn
When a child with an unhealed burn appears acutely unwell, several life-threatening conditions must be considered and ruled out promptly. Among them, toxic shock syndrome and meningococcal septicaemia are particularly concerning and require urgent management in the intensive care unit. Anaphylaxis, although a rare possibility, should also be considered and treated promptly with intramuscular adrenaline. Haemophilus influenzae and Salmonella are less likely causes, as they typically present with respiratory or gastrointestinal symptoms, respectively, which are not evident in this case. A thorough assessment and appropriate interventions are crucial to ensure the best possible outcome for the child.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a 6-day history of fever and irritability, with red eyes and reduced eating for the last 24 hours. On examination, she was noted to have dry and cracked lips, mild conjunctivitis and cervical lymphadenopathy.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most important investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Kawasaki Disease: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Monitoring
Kawasaki disease is a febrile vasculitis affecting small to medium-sized arteries in children under the age of 5 years. Diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, including fever lasting for >5 days and at least four or five of the following: bilateral conjunctivitis, changes in the lips and oral mucosal cavities, lymphadenopathy, polymorphous rash, and changes in the extremities. Atypical cases may present with fewer symptoms. An echocardiogram is essential on admission to assess cardiac function and for the presence of aneurysms. Treatment involves inpatient care, intravenous immunoglobulins (IVIG), antipyretics, and monitoring of cardiovascular function. Corticosteroids may be used as an adjunct to IVIG. Aspirin is indicated for Kawasaki disease. Serial echocardiography is advised to monitor for any changes/worsening. If recognised early and treated appropriately, the prognosis is very good. If not, it carries a high morbidity as it is associated with the formation of arterial aneurysms and development of congestive heart disease. Other tests, such as ESR, throat swab, ASOT, and chest X-ray, may be performed but are not critical for the care and management of the patient.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Monitoring
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 9-month-old infant is presented to the emergency department by his parents due to several hours of profuse vomiting. The vomit is thick and green in colour, and the infant has not had any wet nappies in the past 24 hours. Upon examination, the infant appears distressed and is crying. An abdominal examination reveals a distended abdomen and absent bowel sounds. The infant has no significant medical history, and the pregnancy and delivery were uneventful. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intestinal malrotation
Explanation:The likely diagnosis for an infant presenting with bilious vomiting and signs of obstruction is intestinal malrotation. This condition occurs when the bowel fails to loop efficiently during development, leading to an increased risk of volvulus and obstruction. The green color of the vomit is caused by conditions that cause intestinal obstruction distal to the ampulla of Vater. Biliary atresia, intussusception, and oesophageal atresia are other pediatric conditions that may cause vomiting, but they present with different symptoms and are not associated with bilious vomiting and obstruction.
Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders
Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.
Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.
Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.
Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.
Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.
Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A paediatrician is conducting a ward round and comes across a 20-hour-old neonate without apparent issues. During the round, the mother expresses concern about her child's hearing, citing her own deafness as a potential risk factor. Which screening tool would be most suitable for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Otoacoustic emission test
Explanation:The otoacoustic emission test is commonly used for screening hearing problems in newborns. In the UK, it is a routine test and if a newborn fails, they are referred for impedance audiometry testing. However, there is no 6-month speech and language assessment as babies are not yet talking at this stage. Impedance audiometry testing is not routine and is only done if a newborn fails the otoacoustic emission test. It would not be appropriate to ask if the patient failed this test before determining if they had it or not. Pure tone audiometry is an adult hearing test and is only done when necessary. Weber’s and Rinne’s tests are screening tools used by clinicians to assess hearing loss in adults, but they may not be suitable for children who may not comply with the test.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 10-week-old baby is brought to the Emergency department by her mother. She has been extremely fussy for the past day, crying loudly and not feeding well. During the examination, her temperature is found to be 38.2C and her left tympanic membrane is red and inflamed. The diagnosis is acute otitis media without effusion. What is the most suitable course of action in the emergency department?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for immediate paediatric assessment
Explanation:The management of an acutely unwell child requires the ability to identify whether the situation is low, medium, or high risk. The child in this scenario has one medium risk factor (poor feeding) and two high risk factors (high pitched cry and temperature greater than 38C in an infant under 3 months old). As per the guidelines, any child with a high risk factor should be urgently referred to the paediatric team for assessment. However, in some cases, a child may have a high risk factor but the diagnosis suggests a less serious outcome. In such situations, clinical judgement can determine the next step in management while still following the guidelines. Despite the child in this scenario having acute otitis media without an effusion, she is very young with multiple risk factors, and therefore, a paediatric referral would be the best course of action.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
You assess a 6-year-old girl with cerebral palsy who is experiencing persistent spasticity in her legs resulting in contractures and pain. After discussing with her mother, you discover that she is receiving regular physiotherapy, utilizing appropriate orthoses, and has previously attempted oral diazepam. What treatment option could be presented to potentially enhance her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Baclofen
Explanation:Understanding Cerebral Palsy
Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.
Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.
Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
You are requested to assess a 35-year-old man who has presented to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath, fever, and unusual breathing sounds for the past twelve hours. He reports having a sore throat for the past few days, which has rapidly worsened. He has no significant medical history.
Upon examination, his vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 30/min, pulse 120 bpm, oxygen saturation 96%, temperature 39.0ºC, blood pressure 110/60 mmHg. From the end of the bed, you can observe that he is visibly struggling to breathe, has a hoarse voice, and is drooling into a container. You can hear a high-pitched wheeze during inspiration.
What would be the most appropriate course of action at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Call the on-call anaesthetist to assess the patient for intubation
Explanation:In cases of acute epiglottitis, protecting the airway is crucial and may require endotracheal intubation. Symptoms such as high fever, sore throat, dyspnoea, change in voice, and inspiratory stridor indicate a potential airway emergency. While other treatments may be necessary, securing the airway should be the top priority, following the ABCDE management steps. IV dexamethasone can help reduce laryngeal oedema, but an anaesthetic assessment should be arranged before administering any medication. Nebulised salbutamol is ineffective in treating laryngeal narrowing caused by epiglottitis. X-rays of the neck may be used, but they can take time to organise and delay urgent airway management. Attempting to visualise the larynx without appropriate senior support and intubation capabilities is dangerous in cases of acute epiglottitis. Flexible nasendoscopy should only be performed with the presence of trained personnel who can secure the airway if necessary.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his father with a 2-week history of cough. His father reports that he had a few days of cold symptoms about 3 weeks ago, just before the cough started. He says that his son coughs frequently, sometimes leading to vomiting, and has noticed a 'whooping' sound when he inhales after a coughing episode. All vital signs are normal.
What is the recommended treatment for the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral clarithromycin
Explanation:If a patient presents with whooping cough within 21 days of the onset of cough, they should be prescribed either azithromycin or clarithromycin. In this case, the correct option is to prescribe oral clarithromycin. Hospital admission for IV antibiotics is not necessary as the patient is stable. If the patient had presented after three weeks, advice would be the appropriate course of action. Oral co-amoxiclav and oral doxycycline are not recommended treatments for whooping cough.
Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.
Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.
Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.
To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.
Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.
Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 16-week-old infant is brought to the GP by their mother due to regurgitation and vomiting after most feeds, ongoing diarrhea with significant amounts of mucous, and difficulty settling. The mother also reports that the infant often pulls their legs up to their chest during crying episodes. The infant was born at full term, had a healthy weight at birth, and is formula-fed. They have a history of eczema managed with emollients. What is the recommended next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of extensively hydrolysed formula
Explanation:In case of mild-moderate cow’s milk protein intolerance in a baby who is fed with formula, it is recommended to switch to an extensively hydrolyzed formula.
Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.
Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.
The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother for an asthma review. She was diagnosed with asthma eight months ago. Since then, she has been using a low-dose clenil (beclomethasone 100 μg BD) inhaler and salbutamol inhaler as needed, both inhaled via a spacer. She has been experiencing a nocturnal cough and has been using her salbutamol inhaler 3–4 times per day due to the cold weather, with good results. On examination, there are no signs of respiratory distress, her oxygen saturation is 98%, and her chest is clear.
What would be the next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add montelukast
Explanation:Treatment Approach for Suspected Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old
When a child under five years old is suspected to have asthma, the diagnosis can be challenging as they cannot perform objective lung function tests. Therefore, a low threshold for referral is recommended if treatment fails to control symptoms.
The first step in treatment is a trial of a moderate-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) for eight weeks. If symptoms persist, adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. However, if the asthma is still poorly controlled, referral to a paediatrician is advised.
It is not appropriate to change the short-acting beta agonist (SABA) inhaler, but increasing the dose of the ICS should only be done under specialist advice. If the child needs to use a SABA inhaler regularly, the ICS should be stopped for four weeks, and if symptoms recur, the inhaler should be restarted at a low dose.
In summary, a stepwise approach is recommended for treating suspected asthma in children under five years old, with a low threshold for referral to a specialist if treatment fails to control symptoms.
Treatment Approach for Suspected Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 9-year-old girl presents to a general practice appointment with her mother complaining of right-sided hip pain and occasional limp for the past month. The patient is feeling well, has no fever, and is in the 90th percentile for weight. She was born via spontaneous vertex vaginal delivery at term and had a normal newborn physical examination. On examination, there is limited range of motion in her right hip. A frog-leg hip x-ray is ordered, which reveals sclerosis of the right upper femoral epiphysis and moderate resorption of the femoral head. What is the most accurate diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The condition is 5 times more common in boys
Explanation:Perthes disease is a condition that primarily affects one hip, with only a minority of patients experiencing it in both hips. It is not associated with obesity, unlike slipped capital femoral epiphysis which is more common in overweight children. The management of Perthes disease typically involves conservative measures such as casting or bracing, although surgery may be necessary for older children or those with significant damage to the hip socket. The use of a Pavlik harness is not appropriate for treating Perthes disease, as it is typically used for developmental dysplasia of the hip.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
In a 6-year-old boy, what could be a possible association with an uncomplicated ventricular septal defect (VSD)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A pansystolic murmur of grade 4/6 in intensity
Explanation:Characteristics of Congenital Heart Disease
A collapsing pulse can be a sign of aortic incompetence, while clubbing is a common feature of cyanotic congenital heart disease. A holosystolic murmur of varying intensity is also a characteristic of this condition. However, splenomegaly is not typically associated with congenital heart disease. In an uncomplicated ventricular septal defect, the S2 splits normally and P2 is normal. These are important characteristics to be aware of when diagnosing and treating congenital heart disease. Proper identification and management of these symptoms can greatly improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A baby boy born 3 weeks ago has been experiencing persistent jaundice since 72 hours after birth. His parents have observed that he is hesitant to breastfeed and his urine appears dark. During your examination, you confirm that the infant is jaundiced and has an enlarged liver. Upon reviewing his blood work, you find that he has conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. His serum alpha-1 antitrypsin levels and electrophoresis are normal, and the neonatal heel prick test conducted at birth was negative. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early surgical treatment
Explanation:Biliary atresia is the primary cause of prolonged jaundice in this infant, which occurs due to an obstruction in the flow of bile within the extrahepatic biliary system. To confirm the diagnosis, bilirubin levels, liver function tests, and abdominal ultrasound are performed, while alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency and cystic fibrosis are excluded as differential diagnoses. The Kasai procedure, a surgical intervention, is the preferred treatment option to restore bile flow and prevent further hepatic damage. Postoperative management may involve IV antibiotics to manage complications such as ascending cholangitis, while ursodeoxycholic acid may be used to augment weight gain and decrease episodes of cholangitis. Optimizing feeds is also important, but not the primary management option in this case, as the heel prick test has excluded CF. Infusion of alpha-1 antitrypsin is not necessary, as the infant’s serum levels are normal.
Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children
Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.
To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.
Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
At what age is precocious puberty in males defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics occurring before?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 9 years of age
Explanation:Understanding Precocious Puberty
Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a fever, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing that started yesterday and has gotten worse. During the examination, he appears anxious and leans forward with his hands on his knees, drooling. His temperature is 38ºC, oxygen saturation is 96% on air, heart rate is 100 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg.
Despite receiving intravenous dexamethasone and inhaled budesonide, the child's condition continues to deteriorate. He now has audible stridor, and the on-call anaesthetist is paged. What intervention should be considered next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endotracheal intubation
Explanation:Oxygen that has been humidified
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
A 3-month-old baby was brought to the emergency department three days ago with a purpuric rash, fever, vomiting, and reduced wet nappies. During the assessment, the baby had a seizure which resolved on its own. The baby was admitted and tested for meningitis. A lumbar puncture was done and the laboratory results showed elevated protein levels, increased white cells, and a gram-positive organism. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this infant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV amoxicillin and IV cefotaxime
Explanation:In the case of suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis in children under 3 months old, corticosteroids should not be used. For an infant with lumbar puncture results indicating bacterial meningitis, a combination of IV amoxicillin and IV cefotaxime is the appropriate antibiotic choice to cover both gram positive and gram negative bacteria until a specific pathogen is identified. Prescribing only amoxicillin would not provide sufficient coverage. It is crucial to administer antibiotics in this situation and not withhold treatment.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
You assess an 11-year-old girl who has been experiencing worsening constipation for the past 3 years, despite previously having regular bowel movements. All other aspects of her medical history and physical examination are unremarkable. She is not currently taking any medications.
What would be the appropriate next course of action in managing her constipation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osmotic laxative
Explanation:Constipation at this age is most likely caused by dietary factors. Therefore, it is important to offer dietary guidance, such as increasing fiber and fluid consumption. Additionally, advising the individual to increase their activity level may be beneficial. As the constipation is getting worse, a laxative would be helpful. An osmotic laxative is recommended initially, as the stool is expected to be hard. A stimulant laxative may be necessary once the stool has softened.
Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.
If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.
In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
Beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-hCG) and alfa-fetoprotein (AFP)
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Biliary atresia is a condition that usually manifests within the first few weeks of a newborn’s life, characterized by jaundice, poor appetite, and growth issues. It is a common cause of prolonged neonatal jaundice that appears after two weeks. Other symptoms include an enlarged liver and spleen, abnormal growth, and heart murmurs if there are associated cardiac abnormalities. Conjugated bilirubin levels are abnormally high, while bile acids and aminotransferases are also typically elevated, but cannot be used to distinguish between biliary atresia and other causes of neonatal cholestasis. Although bile duct stenosis may present similarly, it is less frequent.
Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children
Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.
To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.
Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 4-month-old baby boy is found to have developmental dysplasia of the right hip during an ultrasound scan. The hip was noted to be abnormal during clinical examination at birth. What is the probable treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pavlik harness (dynamic flexion-abduction orthosis)
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 5-day-old boy who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome and born at 39 weeks gestation is brought to the hospital with complaints of bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. He has not passed meconium yet.
What is the probable diagnosis for this infant?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease
Explanation:Delayed passage or failure to pass meconium is a typical indication of Hirschsprung’s disease, which often manifests shortly after birth. Other symptoms include a swollen belly, vomiting of bile, fatigue, and dehydration. This condition is more prevalent in males and is linked to Down’s syndrome.
Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.
Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.
In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A mother brings her four-month-old baby to the GP, concerned about episodes of vomiting and crying which she believes may be due to a tummy ache. The mother reports that her baby vomits after most feeds and cries constantly, even when laid down. The vomiting is non-projectile and non-bilious. The baby was born at 39 weeks via vaginal delivery, and the pregnancy was uncomplicated. The baby lives with both parents. On examination, the baby's weight is appropriate for their growth chart. Their heart rate is 140 bpm, O2 saturation is 97%, respiratory rate is 42/min, and temperature is 37.6ºC. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for an infant under 8 weeks old who is experiencing milky vomits after feeds, especially when laid flat, and excessive crying is gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD). This is because the symptoms are typical of GORD, with non-projectile and non-bilious vomits and normal observations. Cow’s milk protein intolerance is a possible differential, but there is no history of stool changes or rashes, and it usually presents earlier in life. Duodenal atresia is unlikely as it typically presents with projectile and bilious vomiting and earlier in life. Gastroenteritis is also less likely as it is commonly caused by a viral infection with associated fever and tachycardia, and there is no mention of stool changes in the history.
Understanding Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux in Children
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not being overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless the child is experiencing unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Ranitidine, previously used as an alternative to PPIs, has been withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of carcinogens in some products. Prokinetic agents should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. In severe cases where medical treatment is ineffective, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for parents and caregivers to understand the symptoms and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in children to ensure the best possible outcomes for their little ones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy is seen in the paediatric clinic for a follow-up appointment. His standing height is below the 0.4th centile, while his sitting height is on the 9th centile. These measurements have been consistent with their respective centiles for the past three years. What genetic diagnosis is most probable for this boy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Achondroplasia
Explanation:Achondroplasia and Other Causes of Short Stature
Achondroplasia is a genetic condition that affects bone growth, resulting in disproportionately short limbs and a greater sitting height compared to standing height. This is because the condition impairs the growth of cartilaginous bone, leading to much shorter arms and legs than the spine. Measuring sitting height can help estimate axial skeleton growth compared to standing height, which includes the limbs.
Other causes of short stature include Down’s syndrome and Noonan’s syndrome, which result in proportionate short stature and a similar standing and sitting centile. However, Fragile X syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome typically do not cause short stature. It is important to understand the underlying causes of short stature in order to provide appropriate medical care and support for individuals affected by these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 2-year-old boy is admitted to the ward with difficulty breathing. His mother reports a 3-day illness with cough and cold symptoms, low-grade fever and increasing difficulty breathing this morning. He has had no similar episodes. The family are all non-smokers and there is no history of atopy. His immunisations are up-to-date and he is otherwise growing and developing normally.
In the Emergency Department, he was given burst therapy and is now on one-hourly salbutamol inhalers. On examination, he is alert and playing. Heart rate (HR) 150 bpm, respiratory rate (RR) 40 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 94% on air. There is mild subcostal recession, and his chest shows good air entry bilaterally, with mild wheeze throughout.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stretch to 2-hourly salbutamol and add 10 mg soluble prednisone for 3 days
Explanation:Management of Viral-Induced Wheeze in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations
Viral-induced wheeze is a common presentation of wheeze in preschool children, typically associated with a viral infection. Inhaled b2 agonists are the first line of treatment, given hourly during acute episodes. However, for children with mild symptoms and maintaining saturations above 92%, reducing the frequency of salbutamol to 2-hourly and gradually weaning off may be appropriate. Steroid tablet therapy is recommended for use in hospital settings and early management of asthma symptoms in this age group. It is important to establish a personal and family history of atopy, as a wheeze is more likely to be induced by asthma if it occurs when the child is otherwise well. Oxygen via nasal cannulae is not necessary for mild symptoms. Prednisolone may be added for 3 days with a strong history of atopy, while montelukast is given for 5 days to settle inflammation in children without atopy. Atrovent® nebulisers are not typically used in the treatment of viral-induced wheeze but may be useful in children with atopy history where salbutamol fails to reduce symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 6-hour-old neonate born at 38 weeks gestation is being evaluated on the postnatal ward. The midwives have observed that the baby is jittery and has irregular breathing. The mother had gestational diabetes. At 6 hours old, a heel prick blood glucose measurement was taken and showed the following result:
Glucose 1.2 mmol/L (1.5 – 6)
Apart from these symptoms, the baby appears to be healthy without other complications. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this newborn?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to neonatal unit and give IV 10% dextrose
Explanation:To manage a newborn with symptomatic hypoglycaemia, the appropriate course of action is to administer a bolus of dextrose to prevent further neurological symptoms such as seizures, coma or apnoea. Admitting the infant to the neonatal unit is recommended to ensure proper care is provided, but breastfeeding alone is not sufficient to correct the hypoglycaemia quickly enough to prevent potential complications. Keeping the infant on the postnatal ward and encouraging breastfeeding is inappropriate, as this setting is not equipped to manage a potentially severely unwell infant. Repeating the heel prick glucose measurement in one hour is unnecessary, as one measurement is enough to initiate treatment without waiting for a second confirmatory test. Obtaining a venous sample for laboratory glucose testing is also unnecessary, as a heel prick test is accurate enough to confirm the hypoglycaemia and treatment should not be delayed while awaiting laboratory confirmation.
Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.
Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of a fever and a rash.
What symptom might indicate the need for the GP to administer IM benzylpenicillin during the appointment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coalescent purpura over the arms
Explanation:Common Paediatric Presentations and their Management
Fever with rash is a common presentation in paediatric patients, with viral infections being the most common cause. However, it is important to rule out meningococcal septicaemia, which can present with purpuric lesions and requires immediate management with IM or IV benzylpenicillin and hospital transfer. The causative agent is Neisseria meningitidis, and the features can be divided into meningitis and septic. Meningitic features include vomiting, neck stiffness, photophobia, Kernig sign, Brudzinski sign, focal neurology, and opisthotonus. Septic features include systemic illness, pyrexia, anorexia, and reduced tone.
Bilateral pustular eruptions on the fauces indicate bacterial tonsillitis, which is treated with amoxicillin. Measles can present with a maculopapular rash and white oral lesions known as Koplik spots. Varicella zoster virus infection causing chickenpox can present with pruritic vesicular eruptions over the trunk, which is treated symptomatically in immunocompetent children. A strawberry tongue is a sign of oral mucositis and can be found in scarlet fever or Kawasaki disease.
In summary, fever with rash in paediatric patients can have a wide differential diagnosis, and it is important to consider serious conditions such as meningococcal septicaemia. Proper management and treatment depend on identifying the underlying cause of the presentation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
A 2-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of rectal bleeding. Her parents report seeing fresh blood in her nappies mixed with her stool. Upon examination, she appears alert, active, afebrile, and hemodynamically stable. She has non-specific abdominal tenderness without guarding, and there is no active bleeding. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, which shows no abnormalities. Meckel's diverticulum is suspected. What is the most appropriate next step in investigating this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Technetium scan
Explanation:When investigating stable children with suspected Meckel’s diverticulum, a technetium scan is the preferred method.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.
In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.
To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.
Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
The consultant requests your assessment of a 4-week-old girl in the neonatal ward who was born prematurely at 28 weeks gestation. The infant is thriving, gaining weight appropriately, and appears pink and warm. Oxygen saturation is within normal limits, and lung sounds are clear. During cardiac auscultation, you note a continuous machinery murmur heard over the upper left sternal edge that does not vary with position or radiation. What is the most likely cause of this murmur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation:The child in question has an asymptomatic murmur that is not an innocent murmur since it does not vary with position. The continuous machinery murmur heard at the upper left sternal edge is indicative of patent ductus arteriosus, a condition that is most common in premature babies like this one. In utero, the ductus arteriosus is a connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta that allows blood to bypass the lungs. Normally, it closes within two days after birth.
It’s worth noting that other conditions present differently. For example, pulmonary stenosis is characterized by an ejection systolic murmur over the left upper sternal edge, while coarctation of the aorta presents with a systolic murmur under the left scapula and in the left infraclavicular area.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old girl is seen by the General Practitioner (GP). She has been unwell with coryzal symptoms for two days and has fever. She has been eating a little less than usual but drinking plenty of fluids and having her normal amount of wet nappies. Her mother reports that she had an episode of being unresponsive and her limbs were jerking while in the waiting room that lasted about 30 seconds. On examination, following the episode, she is alert, without signs of focal neurology. Her temperature is 38.9 °C, heart rate 120 bpm and capillary refill time < 2 seconds. She has moist mucous membranes. There is no sign of increased work of breathing. Her chest is clear. She has cervical lymphadenopathy; her throat is red, but no exudate is present on her tonsils. She has clear, thick nasal discharge, and both her tympanic membranes are inflamed, but not bulging. Which of the following is most likely to indicate that the child can be managed safely at home?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seizure/convulsion lasted for < 5 minutes
Explanation:When to Seek Urgent Medical Attention for Febrile Convulsions in Children
Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in response to a high body temperature in children aged between six months and three years. While most febrile convulsions are harmless and do not require urgent medical attention, there are certain red flag features that parents should be aware of. If any of the following features are present, urgent hospital admission is necessary:
– Children aged less than 18 months
– Diagnostic uncertainty
– Convulsion lasting longer than 5 minutes
– Focal features during the seizure
– Recurrence of convulsion during the same illness or in the last 24 hours
– Incomplete recovery one hour after the convulsion
– No focus of infection identified
– Examination findings suggesting a serious cause for fever such as pneumonia
– Child currently taking antibiotics, with a clear bacterial focus of infectionIt is important to note that a first febrile convulsion in a child is also an indication for urgent hospital admission. If a child less than six months or over three years experiences a seizure not associated with fever, it may be due to an underlying neurological condition and require further specialist investigation. Parents should be aware of these red flag features and seek medical attention promptly if they are present.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old pregnant woman is worried about her fetus after a routine ultrasound showed a large patent ductus arteriosus. She has read about indomethacin as a treatment option and wants to know more about the drug. What information will you provide her regarding the administration of indomethacin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is given to the newborn if the echocardiogram shows patent ductus arteriosus one week after delivery
Explanation:Indomethacin is the preferred treatment for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in newborns, administered postnatally rather than antenatally to the mother. PDA is a congenital heart condition characterized by a left-right shunt where blood flows from the aorta to the pulmonary vessel through the patent ductus arteriosus. Although newborns with PDA may appear normal, a continuous machine-like murmur can be detected upon auscultation. Premature babies are more likely to have PDA, which may spontaneously close in asymptomatic patients. Symptomatic babies undergo an echocardiogram a few days after birth to determine whether medical or surgical management is necessary. Medical management involves administering indomethacin or ibuprofen to the newborn, while prophylactic treatment immediately after delivery or administering medication to the mother has no role in PDA closure. Prostaglandin analogues can maintain ductus arteriosus patency after birth and are useful in managing certain congenital heart diseases.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old boy visited his doctor last week due to recurring nosebleeds and bruises on his sides. Upon examination, his clotting was found to be prolonged. The following are his test results, along with the normal ranges for a 5-year-old:
- Hemoglobin: 80g/l (115-135)
- Platelets: 100 * 109/l (150-450)
- White blood cells: 10.0 * 109/l (5.0-17.0)
- Neutrophils: 1.0 * 109/l (1.5-8.5)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:Leukaemia is the most probable diagnosis given the presence of epistaxis and bruising, along with anaemia and low platelets. The prolonged prothrombin time and low platelets suggest disseminated intravascular coagulation, which is consistent with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Acute myeloid leukaemia is unlikely due to the patient’s age. The normal white blood cell count rules out a chronic infection. Aplastic anaemia and myelodysplasia would not account for the symptoms of epistaxis and bruising.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
A father brings his 7-year-old daughter to the GP. The father reports that he has been struggling to manage his daughter's behaviour. He describes instances of her not following instructions, arguing frequently, and even getting into physical altercations. The GP refers the daughter to a paediatrician who may consider starting her on methylphenidate. What is a potential side effect of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stunted growth
Explanation:Methylphenidate may cause stunted growth as a side effect.
A small percentage of patients taking methylphenidate may experience restricted growth, which is believed to be caused by a decrease in appetite. It is recommended that patients under the age of 10 have their weight and height monitored regularly. Other potential side effects of this medication include insomnia, weight loss, anxiety, nausea, and pain.
In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.
As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
Liam, a 13-year-old with learning difficulties, visits his GP clinic. Following a practice meeting, it is concluded that Liam does not possess the capacity to make decisions regarding his medical treatment. What principles should be prioritized when making decisions for Liam?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Consent may be given by one parent for the treatment that is in her best interests
Explanation:The GMC provides comprehensive guidance on obtaining consent from children. In cases where a child is incapable of giving consent, the agreement of one parent is adequate for treatment to be administered, provided it is in the child’s best interests. It is also crucial to involve Dawn in the decision-making process, despite her incapacity.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Between fifth and ninth day of life
Explanation:Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: Identifying Potential Health Risks in Newborns
Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a routine procedure performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. The test involves collecting a small sample of blood from the baby’s heel and analyzing it for potential health risks. Currently, there are nine conditions that are screened for, including congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
Which of the following features is not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisferiens pulse
Explanation:A collapsing pulse is linked to PDA.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
A three-week-old preterm baby boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by his mother due to concerns of increasing lethargy and refusal to feed over the past 3 days. On examination, the baby's respiratory rate is 66 breaths/min, oxygen saturations are 95% on air, heart rate is 178 bpm, blood pressure is 64/48 mmHg, and temperature is 36.5ºC. The only notable findings are lethargy and signs of dehydration. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neonatal sepsis
Explanation:Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
A 2-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father due to concerns about her breathing. The father reports that she has had a fever, cough, and runny nose for the past three days, and has been wheezing for the past 24 hours. On examination, the child has a temperature of 37.9ºC, a heart rate of 126/min, a respiratory rate of 42/min, and bilateral expiratory wheezing is noted. The pediatrician prescribes a salbutamol inhaler with a spacer. However, two days later, the father returns with the child, stating that the inhaler has not improved her wheezing. The child's clinical findings are similar, but her temperature is now 37.4ºC. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:Child has viral-induced wheeze, treat with short-acting bronchodilator. If not successful, try oral montelukast or inhaled corticosteroids.
Understanding and Managing preschool Wheeze in Children
Wheeze is a common occurrence in preschool children, with around 25% experiencing it before they reach 18 months old. Viral-induced wheeze is now one of the most frequently diagnosed conditions in paediatric wards. However, there is still ongoing debate about how to classify wheeze in this age group and the most effective management strategies.
The European Respiratory Society Task Force has proposed a classification system for preschool wheeze, dividing children into two groups: episodic viral wheeze and multiple trigger wheeze. Episodic viral wheeze occurs only during a viral upper respiratory tract infection and is symptom-free in between episodes. Multiple trigger wheeze, on the other hand, can be triggered by various factors, such as exercise, allergens, and cigarette smoke. While episodic viral wheeze is not associated with an increased risk of asthma in later life, some children with multiple trigger wheeze may develop asthma.
To manage preschool wheeze, parents who smoke should be strongly encouraged to quit. For episodic viral wheeze, treatment is symptomatic, with short-acting beta 2 agonists or anticholinergic via a spacer as the first-line treatment. If symptoms persist, a trial of intermittent leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast), intermittent inhaled corticosteroids, or both may be recommended. Oral prednisolone is no longer considered necessary for children who do not require hospital treatment. For multiple trigger wheeze, a trial of inhaled corticosteroids or a leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast) for 4-8 weeks may be recommended.
Overall, understanding the classification and management of preschool wheeze can help parents and healthcare professionals provide appropriate care for children experiencing this common condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
A 5-day-old infant presents with feeding difficulties for the past day. The baby was born at 38 weeks, induced 48 hours after pre-labor spontaneous rupture of membranes. Following observation, there were no concerns and the baby was discharged. The infant is breastfed every 1-2 hours, but over the past 24 hours, has been less interested in feeding, occurring every 3-4 hours, sometimes being woken to feed. The baby appears uncomfortable during feeding and frequently pulls away. The mother also reports an unusual grunting sound after the baby exhales. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neonatal sepsis
Explanation:Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
A father brings his 5-year-old child for a routine general practice (GP) appointment. During the consultation, the father mentions that the child recently started playing soccer and has been enjoying it. You observe that the child has a short stature, upslanting palpebral fissures, a flat occiput and a single palmar crease.
What should be the GP's primary concern for this 5-year-old child with short stature, upslanting palpebral fissures, a flat occiput, and a single palmar crease who recently started playing soccer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atlantoaxial instability
Explanation:Individuals with Down syndrome who engage in sports that have a higher risk of neck dislocation, such as gymnastics, boxing, diving, horse riding, rugby, and trampolining, should be screened for Atlantoaxial instability. This complication of Down syndrome can increase the likelihood of sudden neck dislocation, and while the child in this scenario does not exhibit any immediate concerns related to hypothyroidism, dementia, leukaemia, or seizures, it is important to prioritize screening for Atlantoaxial instability.
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.
Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
A premature infant is born at 30 weeks gestation through a spontaneous vaginal delivery. The amniotic fluid did not show any signs of meconium staining. However, the baby develops sternal recession, tachypnea, grunting, and cyanosis shortly after birth. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
Explanation:When answering questions about respiratory issues in newborns, it is important to consider the risk factors involved. Prematurity is the primary risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS), while caesarean section increases the risk of tachypnea of the newborn (TTN). Meconium staining is a significant risk factor for aspiration pneumonia.
Symptoms of NRDS typically include respiratory distress that worsens over the first few days after birth. TTN, on the other hand, is characterized by rapid breathing shortly after birth, which often resolves within the first day of life. A chest X-ray can be helpful in diagnosing these conditions. NRDS is typically indicated by a diffuse ground glass appearance in the lungs, low lung volumes, and a bell-shaped thorax. TTN, on the other hand, may show a pattern similar to heart failure on the X-ray, with interstitial edema and pleural effusions, but with a normal heart size and rapid resolution of the pattern within a few days.
Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants
Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.
The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.
Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician complaining of a dry cough that has been bothering him for the past three days. The child has been experiencing intense coughing spells that make him turn blue and vomit. He had previously suffered from a cold with fever, sore throat, and a runny nose. The doctor diagnoses him with pertussis and prescribes a course of clarithromycin.
What guidance should be provided regarding the child's return to school?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exclusion from school for 48 hours
Explanation:If a child has whooping cough, they must stay away from school for 48 hours after starting antibiotics. This is because whooping cough is contagious, and it is important to prevent the spread of the disease. Additionally, during this time, the child should avoid contact with infants who have not been vaccinated.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenzae requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 9-month-old baby is presented to the emergency department due to vomiting and diarrhoea that has been going on for 2 days. The vomit and stools are unremarkable, but the father reports that the baby has been lethargic and unsettled for the past 3 days. Additionally, the baby has had 6 episodes of uncontrollable crying where he draws his legs up to his chest for a few minutes at a time. The baby has no fever. During the examination, the baby appears pale and lethargic, and a small mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant. To investigate further, a plain abdominal x-ray is performed, which shows no signs of obstruction, and an ultrasound scan reveals a target sign. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:This question pertains to gastrointestinal disorders in children, specifically focusing on the symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea. While there can be various reasons for these symptoms, the child in this scenario displays indications of Intussusception. One of the classic signs is the child crying intermittently and pulling their legs towards their chest. Additionally, the presence of a small mass in the right upper quadrant and a target sign on ultrasound further support this diagnosis, along with the vomiting, diarrhea, and pain.
The vomit and stool do not show any significant abnormalities, and the absence of a fever suggests that it is not an infectious episode. Pyloric stenosis is unlikely to present in this manner. However, before an abdominal ultrasound x-ray is conducted, it is not possible to rule out a small bowel obstruction. Nevertheless, there are no indications of obstruction on the x-ray.
Understanding Intussusception
Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.
To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.
In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
A General Practitioner (GP) sees a 28-month-old girl who is failing to thrive. The GP carries out some tests and discovers antibody to tissue transglutaminase in the girl’s plasma.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Comparison of Conditions Causing Malabsorption and Failure to Thrive
Coeliac Disease, Cystic Fibrosis, Ulcerative Colitis, Crohn’s, and Phenylketonuria are all conditions that can cause malabsorption and failure to thrive. However, they differ in their causes and associated autoantibodies.
Coeliac Disease is an autoimmune disease of the small intestine that can occur at any age. It is characterized by the presence of antibodies to α-gliadin, tissue transglutaminase, and anti-endomysial. Duodenal biopsy confirms the diagnosis.
Cystic Fibrosis is a genetic condition that can cause malabsorption and failure to thrive, but it is not associated with autoantibodies.
Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s are inflammatory bowel diseases that can cause malabsorption and weight loss. However, they typically present at 15-30 years and are not associated with the autoantibodies found in Coeliac Disease.
Phenylketonuria is another genetic condition that can cause failure to thrive but is not associated with autoantibodies. It is caused by absent phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme activity, leading to the accumulation of phenylalanine and production of neurotoxic byproducts.
In summary, while these conditions share some similarities in their presentation, they differ in their underlying causes and associated autoantibodies. Proper diagnosis and management are crucial for improving patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
A five-month-old girl arrives at the emergency department with a 10-hour history of fever, vomiting, and irritability. During examination, a bulging anterior fontanelle and reduced tone in all four limbs are observed. The patient's vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate: 40/min, heart rate: 150/min, blood pressure: 75/45 mmHg, and temperature: 39.8ºC. What would be the most suitable initial medication to prescribe for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone
Explanation:The appropriate initial treatment for meningitis in patients over 3 months of age is intravenous administration of a 3rd generation cephalosporin, specifically ceftriaxone. This is important to consider in patients with non-specific symptoms but concerning observations and examination findings. Intramuscular or oral benzylpenicillin is not the correct choice for initial empirical therapy, as it is reserved for use in the community before transfer to the hospital. Intravenous cephalexin is also not appropriate, as it is a first-generation cephalosporin and is administered orally rather than intravenously.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
After an emergency Caesarian-section for foetal distress, the consultant obstetrician hands the paediatrician a normal term female infant. You observe that the infant is apnoeic, floppy and blue in colour.
What would be your initial step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dry the neonate
Explanation:According to UK resuscitation guidelines, the first step in neonatal resuscitation is to dry the baby, remove any wet towels, and note the time. Within 30 seconds, an Apgar assessment should be conducted to evaluate the baby’s tone, breathing, and heart rate. If the baby is gasping or not breathing, the airway should be opened, and 5 inflation breaths should be given within 60 seconds. If there is no increase in heart rate, chest movement should be checked. If the chest is not moving, the head position should be rechecked, and other airway maneuvers should be considered. Inflation breaths should be repeated, and a response should be looked for. If there is still no increase in heart rate, chest compressions should be started with 3 compressions to each breath. The heart rate should be reassessed every 30 seconds. If the heart rate is still slow or undetectable, venous access and drugs should be considered. Atropine and intubation are later steps in the management.
The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)