-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man with chronic kidney disease (CKD) visits his doctor for routine blood tests. The following results are obtained:
Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 135 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 6.4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 130 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 6.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 16 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 11.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 186 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Calcium 1.2 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 4.5 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
Question: Which of the above results indicates a chronic disease course in this patient, rather than an acute one?Your Answer: Phosphate
Correct Answer: Calcium
Explanation:Distinguishing between Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
One of the most effective ways to differentiate between acute kidney injury (AKI) and chronic kidney disease (CKD) is through the use of renal ultrasound. In most cases, patients with CKD will have small kidneys that are bilateral. However, there are some exceptions to this rule, including individuals with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, diabetic nephropathy in its early stages, amyloidosis, and HIV-associated nephropathy.
In addition to renal ultrasound, there are other features that can suggest CKD rather than AKI. For example, individuals with CKD may experience hypocalcaemia due to a lack of vitamin D. By identifying these distinguishing factors, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with kidney disease. Proper diagnosis is crucial, as the treatment and management of AKI and CKD differ significantly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A young man with asthma presented to the ED complaining of shortness of breath. He was unable to speak in complete sentences and his PEFR was 50% of predicted. His heart rate was 90/min and respiratory rate was 24/min. Despite using his regular inhaler, he did not experience any relief. The patient was given nebulised salbutamol, oral prednisolone and ipratropium bromide, and his acute treatment was discontinued 10 hours ago. Currently, his PEFR is 80% of predicted and he has been stable on discharge medication. The doctor's notes indicate that he demonstrated proper inhaler technique. What other criteria must he meet before being discharged?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She needs to be stable on discharge medication for at least 12-24 hours before discharge
Explanation:Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.
Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with his son. The son reports that his father's memory has been declining for the past 8 months and he has been experiencing fluctuations in attention and consciousness. The patient has also reported seeing dogs and children running around in his living room. The patient has a medical history of resting tremors, rigidity, and shuffling gait for the past 10 years. However, there is no history of mood swings or urinary or bowel incontinence. On examination, there are no postural changes in his blood pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parkinson's disease dementia
Explanation:Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) and Parkinson’s disease dementia (PDD) share similar features such as tremors, rigidity, postural instability, fluctuating cognition, and hallucinations. However, they can be differentiated based on the time of onset of dementia compared to motor symptoms. PDD is diagnosed if a patient had a Parkinson’s disease diagnosis for at least 1 year before the emergence of dementia. In contrast, DLB would have dementia occurring first followed by motor symptoms. This patient has had 8 years of preceding motor symptoms before the onset of dementia, making PDD more likely. It is important to distinguish between the two as their management varies significantly. Levodopa is the mainstay of treatment in PDD, whereas rivastigmine is the drug of choice in DLB. Treating this patient as DLB may miss out on important elements of treatment needed in patients with PDD. Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) and multiple system atrophy are not likely diagnoses in this case as they have different clinical features.
Understanding Lewy Body Dementia
Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized as a cause of cognitive impairment, accounting for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions, known as Lewy bodies, in certain areas of the brain. While there is a complicated relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia, with dementia often seen in Parkinson’s disease, the two conditions are distinct. Additionally, up to 40% of patients with Alzheimer’s disease have Lewy bodies.
The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism, but both features usually occur within a year of each other. Unlike other forms of dementia, cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and sometimes delusions and non-visual hallucinations.
Diagnosis of Lewy body dementia is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Management of Lewy body dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s disease. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to carefully consider the use of medication in these patients to avoid worsening their condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which type of neurone has its cell body situated in the central nervous system and is primarily responsible for connecting other neurones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An association neurone (inter-neurone)
Explanation:Association Neurones and neuroglial Cells in the Central Nervous System
Association neurones are present in the central nervous system and their primary function is to connect afferent neurones that bring information into the central nervous system to efferent neurones that carry information away from the central nervous system. Afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory information from peripheral receptors to the central nervous system, while efferent neurones transmit motor information from the central nervous system to effectors such as muscles or glands.
In addition to neurones, the nervous system also contains neuroglial cells. These non-neuronal cells provide support and nutrition to the nervous system. neuroglial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the nervous system and play a crucial role in maintaining the health of neurones.
the role of association neurones and neuroglial cells is essential for comprehending the functioning of the central nervous system. These cells work together to ensure that the nervous system can receive and transmit information effectively. By studying these cells, researchers can gain insights into the mechanisms underlying various neurological disorders and develop new treatments to address them.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A patient in their 60s presents to the emergency department with right-sided hemiplegia, facial weakness, and difficulty with speech. A stroke is suspected. What is the recommended tool for assessing a patient in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ROSIER
Explanation:ROSIER is an acronym for a tool used to assess stroke symptoms in an acute setting.
Assessment and Investigations for Stroke
Whilst diagnosing a stroke may be straightforward in some cases, it can be challenging when symptoms are vague. The FAST screening tool, which stands for Face/Arms/Speech/Time, is a well-known tool used by the general public to identify stroke symptoms. However, medical professionals use a validated tool called the ROSIER score, recommended by the Royal College of Physicians. The ROSIER score assesses for loss of consciousness or syncope, seizure activity, and new, acute onset of asymmetric facial, arm, or leg weakness, speech disturbance, or visual field defect. A score of greater than zero indicates a likely stroke.
When investigating suspected stroke, a non-contrast CT head scan is the first line radiological investigation. The key question to answer is whether the stroke is ischaemic or haemorrhagic, as this determines the appropriate management. Ischaemic strokes may show areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory, while haemorrhagic strokes typically show areas of hyperdense material surrounded by low density. It is important to identify the type of stroke promptly, as thrombolysis and thrombectomy play an increasing role in acute stroke management. In rare cases, a third pathology such as a tumour may also be detected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man visits the sexual health clinic following unprotected sex with a female partner. He reports experiencing coryzal symptoms and myalgia, which began four weeks ago. The patient has a history of asthma, which is managed with salbutamol. The doctor advises him to undergo HIV testing, and he consents. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Order HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody tests
Explanation:The recommended course of action is to order a combination test for HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody. The patient is exhibiting symptoms of HIV seroconversion and had unprotected intercourse 4 weeks ago. Combination tests are now the standard for HIV diagnosis and screening, with p24 antigen tests typically turning positive between 1 and 4 weeks post-exposure and antibody tests turning positive between 4 weeks and 3 months post-exposure. If a patient at risk tests positive, the diagnosis should be confirmed with a repeat test before starting treatment.
Offering post-exposure prophylaxis is not appropriate in this case, as the patient had unprotected intercourse 3 weeks ago. Two NRTIs and an NNRTI should not be prescribed as treatment, as the patient has not yet tested positive. Ordering only a p24 antigen or antibody test alone is also not recommended, as combination tests are now standard practice.
Understanding HIV Seroconversion and Diagnosis
HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies to the HIV virus after being infected. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. Symptoms may include sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis and typically occurs 3-12 weeks after infection.
Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually consists of both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test may be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with difficulty swallowing and blurred vision. He is worried about his slurred speech which started the day before. He has no past medical history or current medications.
Upon examination, the patient appears disheveled and has multiple track marks on both arms with surrounding redness. His vital signs are normal. Cranial nerve examination reveals bilateral ptosis, diplopia, impaired pupil accommodation, and impaired gag reflex. The patient's speech is also slurred. Upper limb examination shows hypotonia and 4/5 power bilaterally, while sensation is intact. Lower limb examination is unremarkable.
What is the most likely causative organism for this patient's presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clostridium botulinum
Explanation:There are various bacterial infections that can cause different diseases. For example, Salmonella can cause food poisoning, while Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of diarrhoea and can also be linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome. Additionally, Clostridium tetani infection can lead to tetanus.
Understanding Botulism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. This gram-positive anaerobic bacillus produces botulinum toxin, a neurotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine, leading to flaccid paralysis and other symptoms. There are seven serotypes of the bacterium, labeled A-G. Botulism can result from eating contaminated food, particularly tinned food, or from intravenous drug use.
The neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum often affects bulbar muscles and the autonomic nervous system, leading to symptoms such as diplopia, ataxia, and bulbar palsy. However, patients are usually fully conscious and do not experience any sensory disturbance.
Treatment for botulism involves administering botulism antitoxin and providing supportive care. It is important to note that the antitoxin is only effective if given early, as once the toxin has bound, its actions cannot be reversed. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
As a Foundation Year 2 doctor on a four month rotation at an Emergency department, you encounter a 54-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis. She presents with a two month history of dry mouth and itchy eyes, as well as a three day history of painful eyes and sensitivity to bright light. Despite her well-controlled rheumatoid arthritis with methotrexate and sulfasalazine, she requires NSAIDs for symptomatic relief. Upon examination, you observe a dry oral cavity and a few corneal abrasions on her right eye, but the sclera is otherwise white. Her pupil is normal and visual acuity tests are unremarkable. A bedside Schirmer's test reveals 3 mm of diffusion on filter paper bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Explanation:Sjögren’s Syndrome and its Ocular Manifestations
Sjögren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects the exocrine glands, leading to decreased production of tears and saliva. This results in dry eyes and dry mouth, which can cause corneal abrasions and even ulceration if left untreated. It is commonly associated with connective tissue diseases, particularly rheumatoid arthritis.
When it comes to ocular manifestations, it is important to differentiate Sjögren’s syndrome from other conditions such as scleritis, episcleritis, uveitis, and ulcerative keratitis. The phenylephrine test can help distinguish between episcleritis and scleritis, while uveitis typically presents with ocular pain, photophobia, and blurred vision. Ulcerative keratitis, on the other hand, has an infectious presentation and requires different treatment approaches depending on the depth of the ulcer.
Overall, the pathophysiology and ocular manifestations of Sjögren’s syndrome is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this autoimmune disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man has visited his doctor complaining of feeling unwell. He has been experiencing flu-like symptoms, nausea, and joint pain for the past 3 weeks. Additionally, he has noticeable yellowing of the skin. The patient recently returned from a trip to Mallorca, a Spanish island, 6 weeks ago. Although he did not engage in unprotected sex, he frequently dined at local seafood restaurants. He has no medical history. Upon examination, the doctor noted an enlargement of the liver and spleen. What is the most likely cause of this patient's hepatosplenomegaly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis A
Explanation:Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes
Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly, with a hard and irregular liver edge. Right heart failure can result in a firm, smooth, and tender liver edge, which may be pulsatile.
Other causes of hepatomegaly include viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hepatomegaly to determine the appropriate treatment and management plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old with type one diabetes is brought to the emergency department due to feeling unwell for the past few days. Upon examination, his blood glucose level is found to be 25.7 mmol/l and his ketone level is 5.8 mmol/l. What is the expected result of the arterial blood gas test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
Explanation:Based on the information provided in the presentation and the patient’s medical history, it can be concluded that the patient is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which results in metabolic acidosis and an elevated anion gap.
Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation Made Easy
Arterial blood gas interpretation can be a daunting task for healthcare professionals. However, the Resuscitation Council (UK) has provided a simple 5-step approach to make it easier. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, which is indicated by a PaO2 level of less than 10 kPa on air. The third step is to check if the patient is academic or alkalaemic, which is determined by the pH level. A pH level of less than 7.35 indicates acidaemia, while a pH level of more than 7.45 indicates alkalaemia.
The fourth step is to assess the respiratory component by checking the PaCO2 level. A PaCO2 level of more than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level of less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth and final step is to evaluate the metabolic component by checking the bicarbonate level or base excess. A bicarbonate level of less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess of less than -2mmol/l indicates metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level of more than 26 mmol/l or a base excess of more than +2mmol/l indicates metabolic alkalosis.
To make it easier to remember, healthcare professionals can use the ROME acronym. Respiratory is opposite, which means that low pH and high PaCO2 indicate acidosis, while high pH and low PaCO2 indicate alkalosis. Metabolic is equal, which means that low pH and low bicarbonate indicate acidosis, while high pH and high bicarbonate indicate alkalosis. By following this simple approach, healthcare professionals can easily interpret arterial blood gas results and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old male presents to the nephrology unit with a complaint of recurrent visible haematuria following upper respiratory tract infections. He denies any abdominal or loin pain. The urine dipstick is unremarkable, and blood tests reveal normal electrolyte levels and kidney function. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:Understanding IgA Nephropathy
IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by the deposition of IgA immune complexes in the mesangium, leading to mesangial hypercellularity and positive immunofluorescence for IgA and C3. The classic presentation is recurrent episodes of macroscopic hematuria in young males following an upper respiratory tract infection. Unlike post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy is not associated with low complement levels and typically does not present with nephrotic range proteinuria or renal failure.
Management of IgA nephropathy depends on the severity of proteinuria and renal function. Isolated hematuria without or minimal proteinuria and normal GFR requires only follow-up to monitor renal function. Persistent proteinuria with normal or slightly reduced GFR can be treated with ACE inhibitors. If there is active disease or failure to respond to ACE inhibitors, immunosuppression with corticosteroids may be necessary. The prognosis of IgA nephropathy varies, with 25% of patients developing ESRF. Factors associated with a poor prognosis include male gender, proteinuria, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidemia, and ACE genotype DD, while frank hematuria is a marker of good prognosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-old man presents to the emergency department with multiple episodes of forceful retching resulting in the expulsion of approximately 3 tablespoons of blood. He reports consuming 24 units of alcohol daily for the past week due to job loss. Although his Glasgow coma score is 15, he complains of dizziness. His vital signs include a blood pressure of 105/68 mmHg, pulse rate of 105 bpm, oxygen saturations of 98%, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and fever.
Currently, blood tests and results are pending. What is the most crucial step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Upper gastrointestinal tract endoscopy within 24 hours
Explanation:Pyriform cortex
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Primary biliary cirrhosis is most characteristically associated with:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:The M rule for primary biliary cholangitis includes the presence of IgM and anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, specifically the M2 subtype, in middle-aged women.
Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder
Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.
This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with constipation, confusion, and fatigue. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and prostate cancer. His blood work shows a significantly elevated calcium level. What is the expected ECG result?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shortening of the QT interval
Explanation:Patients with cancer have a high risk of developing hypercalcemia, which is linked to a shortened QT interval. The QT interval can also be prolonged due to electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypocalcemia, as well as hypothermia, myocardial ischemia, and congenital long QT syndrome. First-degree heart block is characterized by a fixed prolonged PR interval, while hyperkalemia is indicated by tall T waves that may be followed by flattened P waves, PR prolongation, and a sine-wave appearance. S1Q3T3, which refers to an S wave in lead I, a Q wave in lead III, and an inverted T wave in lead III, is a rare finding that is often associated with pulmonary embolism (PE), but it is not a reliable indicator of this condition.
Hypercalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs
Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The symptoms and signs of hypercalcaemia can be remembered by the phrase ‘bones, stones, groans and psychic moans’. This means that patients with hypercalcaemia may experience bone pain, kidney stones, constipation, and changes in mood or behavior. In addition, corneal calcification and a shortened QT interval on an electrocardiogram (ECG) may also be present. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is another common feature of hypercalcaemia. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present, as hypercalcaemia can lead to serious complications if left untreated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient presents with central chest pain and is diagnosed with non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. Aspirin and fondaparinux are administered. What is the mode of action of fondaparinux?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Activates antithrombin III
Explanation:Fondaparinux operates in a comparable manner to low-molecular weight heparin.
Parenteral Anticoagulation: Fondaparinux and Direct Thrombin Inhibitors
Parenteral anticoagulants are used to prevent venous thromboembolism and manage acute coronary syndrome. While unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin are commonly used, fondaparinux and direct thrombin inhibitors are also effective options. Fondaparinux activates antithrombin III, which enhances the inhibition of coagulation factors Xa. It is administered subcutaneously. On the other hand, direct thrombin inhibitors like bivalirudin are typically given intravenously. Dabigatran is a type of direct thrombin inhibitor that can be taken orally and is classified as a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC).
Overall, these parenteral anticoagulants are essential in preventing and managing blood clots. Fondaparinux and direct thrombin inhibitors work by targeting specific factors in the coagulation cascade, making them effective options for patients who cannot tolerate other anticoagulants. It is important to note that these medications require careful monitoring and dosing adjustments to prevent bleeding complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old patient visits his primary care physician complaining of a recent exacerbation of his chronic cough. He reports experiencing similar episodes in the past, during which his typically yellow sputum becomes thicker and slightly tinged with blood. The patient has a history of hypertension and bronchiectasis, and has received multiple courses of antibiotics for these exacerbations. Upon examination, the patient appears relatively healthy but continues to cough. Crackles are heard upon chest auscultation. Given the patient's medical history and likely diagnosis, the physician decides to obtain a sputum sample. What organism is most likely to be observed upon culturing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:The most common organism associated with bronchiectasis is Haemophilus influenzae, making it the correct answer for an acute exacerbation of this condition. While Klebsiella pneumonia is also a possibility, it is less frequently seen and typically associated with pneumonia in patients with alcohol dependence. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an incorrect answer, as it is more commonly found in patients with cystic fibrosis than bronchiectasis. Staphylococcus aureus is also less commonly isolated in bronchiectasis, and is more commonly associated with other infective conditions such as infective endocarditis and skin infections, as well as being a secondary bacterial cause of pneumonia following influenzae.
Managing Bronchiectasis
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency. The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Spacing:
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency.
The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease.
The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old male with non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) presents to the emergency department complaining of fever, chills, and feeling generally unwell. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.6ºC, pulse rate is 116 beats/min, blood pressure is 102/62 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 24 beats/min. Crackles and bronchial breathing are heard in the left upper zone of his chest. A urine dip is negative for leucocytes and blood tests reveal a neutrophil count of 0.4. He received his last cycle of chemotherapy 10 days ago. What is the most appropriate antibiotic treatment to initiate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin)
Explanation:Neutropenic sepsis is a serious condition that requires immediate treatment with antibiotics. Piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) is the preferred antibiotic for this condition, even before neutropenia is confirmed on blood testing. This combination works by breaking down the cell walls of bacteria and preventing bacterial resistance to piperacillin. However, if a patient is unable to tolerate Tazocin, alternative antibiotics should be considered based on local guidelines or microbiology advice.
Amoxicillin with clavulanic acid and gentamicin are other antibiotics that can be used for severe infections, but they are not the best choice for neutropenic sepsis. Aztreonam and vancomycin can be used in combination when Tazocin is not an option, but a third antibiotic may be necessary for additional coverage. It is important to note that gentamicin should be used with caution due to the risk of kidney damage and ototoxicity.
Neutropenic Sepsis: A Common Complication of Cancer Therapy
Neutropenic sepsis is a frequent complication of cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs or symptoms consistent with clinically significant sepsis.
To prevent neutropenic sepsis, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 as a result of their treatment should be offered a fluoroquinolone. In the event of neutropenic sepsis, antibiotics must be initiated immediately, without waiting for the white blood cell count.
According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotic therapy should begin with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) immediately. While some units may add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE does not support this approach. After initial treatment, patients are typically assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they may be able to receive outpatient treatment.
If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) rather than blindly initiating antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may be beneficial.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with his spouse, reporting a chronic cough and swelling in his neck. He has been experiencing these symptoms for several years but only sought medical attention today because his wife urged him to address his bad breath. The man's wife also notes that he makes noise while eating and drinking and occasionally has difficulty swallowing, leading to regurgitation of food. The patient has a history of hospitalization for pneumonia following one of these choking episodes. What is the most suitable course of action for managing his likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgical repair and resection
Explanation:Pharyngeal pouch may lead to dysphagia, aspiration pneumonia, and halitosis.
Understanding Pharyngeal Pouch or Zenker’s Diverticulum
A pharyngeal pouch, also known as Zenker’s diverticulum, is a condition where there is a posteromedial diverticulum through Killian’s dehiscence. This triangular area is found in the wall of the pharynx between the thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles. It is more common in older patients and is five times more common in men.
The symptoms of pharyngeal pouch include dysphagia, regurgitation, aspiration, neck swelling that gurgles on palpation, and halitosis. To diagnose this condition, a barium swallow combined with dynamic video fluoroscopy is usually done.
Surgery is the most common management for pharyngeal pouch. It is important to address this condition promptly to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Understanding the symptoms and seeking medical attention early can help in the proper management of pharyngeal pouch.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
What is the most prevalent form of colorectal cancer that is inherited?
Familial adenomatous polyposis, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, Fanconi syndrome, and Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are all types of inherited colorectal cancer. However, which one is the most common?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma
Explanation:Genetics and Types of Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a type of cancer that affects the colon and rectum. There are three main types of colorectal cancer: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is the most common type, accounting for 95% of cases. It is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumour suppressor genes.
HNPCC, also known as Lynch syndrome, is an autosomal dominant condition that accounts for 5% of cases. It is the most common form of inherited colon cancer and is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most commonly affected genes are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of developing other cancers, such as endometrial cancer.
FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that accounts for less than 1% of cases. It is caused by a mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene (APC), which leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. Patients with FAP inevitably develop carcinoma and are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin.
In conclusion, understanding the genetics behind colorectal cancer is important for diagnosis and treatment. While sporadic colon cancer is the most common type, HNPCC and FAP are inherited conditions that require genetic testing and surveillance for early detection and prevention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the Emergency Department. He appears disheveled, disoriented, and experiences frequent falls. Upon examination, you observe that he has difficulty with balance and coordination, and bilateral lateral rectus palsy with nystagmus. His sensory examination reveals a polyneuropathy, and his pulse is 90 bpm. There is no agitation or tremor noted on examination.
What is the most urgent treatment that should be administered to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pabrinex
Explanation:Understanding Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain and is caused by a deficiency in thiamine. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who abuse alcohol, but it can also be caused by persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, or dietary deficiencies. The classic triad of symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy includes oculomotor dysfunction, gait ataxia, and encephalopathy. Other symptoms may include peripheral sensory neuropathy and confusion.
When left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by antero- and retrograde amnesia and confabulation in addition to the symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
To diagnose Wernicke’s encephalopathy, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a decreased red cell transketolase test and an MRI. Treatment for this condition involves urgent replacement of thiamine. With prompt treatment, individuals with Wernicke’s encephalopathy can recover fully.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with complaints of persistent vomiting, palpitations, and flushing. He has a history of chronic alcohol abuse, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes. The patient reports that these symptoms began a week ago after he visited his dentist for a dental abscess and was prescribed metronidazole 400 mg three times a day. He is currently taking thiamine supplements 100 mg twice daily, atorvastatin 40 mg daily, and metformin 500 mg three times a day. Additionally, he has been taking paracetamol 1 g four times a day for dental pain. The doctor suspects that one of his medications may have interacted with the metronidazole to cause his symptoms. Which medication is most likely to have caused this interaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ethanol
Explanation:Alcohol can affect the way many drugs are metabolized and can alter their bioavailability. Chronic alcohol excess can cause a paradoxical induction in the cytochrome P450 enzyme system, leading to a relative reduction in bioavailability of drugs that utilize this metabolism pathway. Atorvastatin and other drugs of this class can have altered bioavailability when used with alcohol. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when mixed with alcohol. Paracetamol and metformin have few interactions with alcohol but should be closely monitored in alcoholic patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and nausea. She has a distinct 'pear drops' odor on her breath. The medical team admits her and initiates aggressive IV fluid replacement and insulin therapy as per national protocol. Despite being clinically stable after 24 hours, she is unable to eat or drink.
Her vital signs are as follows:
- Heart rate: 110 bpm
- Respiratory rate: 15/min
- Blood pressure: 122/90 mmHg
An arterial blood gas test reveals a pH of 7.28, and her blood results show:
- Plasma glucose: 15.6 mmol/L
- Sodium: 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- Potassium: 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Bicarbonate: 13 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Ketones: 4.5 mmol/L (<3)
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endocrinology review
Explanation:If a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis still has significant ketonaemia and acidosis after 24 hours, it is recommended to seek a review from a senior endocrinologist. This is important to consider other potential diagnoses and advise on further treatment. Treatment should aim to reduce blood ketones by approximately 1 mmol/hr and glucose by around 3mmol/hr. By 24 hours, the patient should be eating and drinking normally and can be switched to subcutaneous insulin.
Admission to ICU is not necessary at this point as the patient is relatively stable. The priority is to continue treatment and determine why the current treatment is not working, which can be best achieved with a senior review.
Continuing the current fluid replacement would be inappropriate as patients with DKA should see resolution of their condition after 24 hours of normal treatment. If the patient remains in DKA after this point, a senior review is needed.
Increasing insulin rate, as well as increasing the rate of IV fluids, should not be done without consulting a senior endocrinologist as it may lead to hypoglycaemia or dilutional hyponatraemia, respectively, which could worsen the patient’s condition.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman with a history of sickle cell disease visits her GP complaining of sudden fatigue, palpitations, and shortness of breath during physical activity. She has always been healthy before this. However, her daughter has been sick with a fever, fatigue, and a rash on her face for the past few days.
The patient's blood test results from three months ago showed a hemoglobin level of 116 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L), platelets at 178 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), and a white blood cell count of 6.3 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L).
Today's blood test results show a significant drop in hemoglobin levels to 71 g/L, platelets at 110 * 109/L, and a white blood cell count of 4.1 * 109/L. The reticulocyte count is also low at 0.1% (normal range: 0.5-1.5%).
What is the most likely complication that has arisen in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aplastic crisis
Explanation:A sudden decrease in haemoglobin is linked to aplastic crises in sickle cell disease. This condition is characterized by symptoms of anaemia and is often triggered by exposure to parvovirus B-19. The low reticulocyte count indicates acute bone marrow failure.
Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crisis, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.
Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.
Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being submerged. Upon arrival, the patient is found to be in ventricular fibrillation (VF) on ECG and has a temperature of 26 degrees centigrade. You have already administered three defibrillation shocks and initiated active and passive rewarming, but the patient remains in VF. What should be your next steps in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue chest compressions but withhold shocks until patient's temperature >30 degrees
Explanation:When hypothermia leads to cardiac arrest, defibrillation is not as effective and should be limited to three shocks before the patient is warmed up to 30 degrees Celsius. Pacing is also ineffective until the patient reaches normal body temperature. Medications should be held off until the patient reaches 30 degrees Celsius, and then administered at double the usual intervals until the patient achieves normal body temperature or experiences the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
Hypothermia is a condition where the core body temperature drops below normal levels, often caused by exposure to cold environments. It is most common in the winter and the elderly are particularly susceptible. Signs include shivering, cold and pale skin, slurred speech, and confusion. Treatment involves removing the patient from the cold environment, warming the body with blankets, securing the airway, and monitoring breathing. Rapid re-warming should be avoided as it can lead to peripheral vasodilation and shock. Certain actions, such as putting the person in a hot bath or giving them alcohol, should be avoided.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old woman presents with symptoms of fatigue. Routine blood tests reveal Hb of 105 g/L, MCV of 104 fL, platelets of 305 * 109/L, and WBC of 9.3 * 109/L. Further tests reveal positive intrinsic factor antibodies. During the discussion of the diagnosis with the patient, the potential serious complications are brought up. What is one serious complication that can arise from this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric cancer
Explanation:The presence of pernicious anaemia, as indicated by the patient’s macrocytic anaemia and positive intrinsic factor antibodies, can increase the risk of developing gastric carcinoma. Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune disease that impairs the production of intrinsic factor, leading to low levels of vitamin B12 and anaemia. While chronic lymphocytic leukaemia and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma are not strongly linked to pernicious anaemia, they may be associated with genetic mutations acquired over time. Gastritis, which is not a serious complication, is more commonly associated with conditions such as Helicobacter pylori infection.
Understanding Pernicious Anaemia
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in vitamin B12 deficiency due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious means causing harm in a gradual or subtle way, and this is reflected in the often subtle symptoms and delayed diagnosis of the condition. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition.
The pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia involves antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells. These antibodies can bind to intrinsic factor, blocking the vitamin B12 binding site, or reduce acid production and cause atrophic gastritis. This leads to reduced intrinsic factor production and reduced vitamin B12 absorption, which can result in megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Risk factors for pernicious anaemia include being female, middle to old age, and having other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid arthritis, and vitiligo. It is also more common in individuals with blood group A.
Symptoms of pernicious anaemia include anaemia features such as lethargy, pallor, and dyspnoea, as well as neurological features such as peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Neuropsychiatric features such as memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, and irritability may also be present, along with mild jaundice and glossitis.
Diagnosis of pernicious anaemia involves a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and testing for antibodies such as anti intrinsic factor antibodies and anti gastric parietal cell antibodies. Treatment involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly, and folic acid supplementation may also be required. Complications of pernicious anaemia include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about sudden weight gain. Despite following a balanced diet and exercising, she has gained 10 kilograms in the past month. She also reports an increase in body hair and new acne on her face. During the examination, the doctor observes central adiposity. The patient has been taking regular oral corticosteroids for adhesive capsulitis of the shoulder. Based on the likely diagnosis, what acid-base imbalance would be anticipated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, which is a common feature of Cushing’s syndrome. This condition is caused by an excess of corticosteroids, which can be exacerbated by corticosteroid therapy. The patient’s symptoms, such as central adiposity, stretch marks, bruising, hirsutism, and acne, are all indicative of Cushing’s syndrome.
Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis occurs when cortisol levels are high, allowing cortisol to bind to mineralocorticoid receptors. This leads to an increase in water and sodium retention, increased potassium excretion, and increased hydrogen ion excretion. The resulting decrease in hydrogen ions causes alkalosis, while the decrease in potassium causes hypokalemia.
Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis, on the other hand, is caused by bicarbonate loss, usually due to diarrhea. The patient does not report any gastrointestinal symptoms, so this is unlikely to be the cause. Hyperkalaemic metabolic acidosis is associated with type 4 renal tubular acidosis and hypoaldosteronism, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Hyperkalaemic metabolic alkalosis is also unlikely, as a decrease in hydrogen ions would lead to a decrease in potassium ions. Finally, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis is most commonly caused by vomiting, which the patient did not report.
Investigations for Cushing’s Syndrome
Cushing’s syndrome is a condition caused by excessive cortisol production in the body. There are various causes of Cushing’s syndrome, including iatrogenic, ACTH-dependent, and ACTH-independent causes. To diagnose Cushing’s syndrome, doctors typically perform tests to confirm the condition and determine its underlying cause.
General lab findings consistent with Cushing’s syndrome include hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis and impaired glucose tolerance. Ectopic ACTH secretion, which is often associated with small cell lung cancer, is characterized by very low potassium levels.
The two most commonly used tests to confirm Cushing’s syndrome are the overnight dexamethasone suppression test and the 24-hour urinary free cortisol test. The overnight dexamethasone suppression test is the most sensitive test and is used first-line to test for Cushing’s syndrome. Patients with Cushing’s syndrome do not have their morning cortisol spike suppressed. The 24-hour urinary free cortisol test measures the amount of cortisol in the urine over a 24-hour period.
To localize the cause of Cushing’s syndrome, doctors may perform additional tests such as high-dose dexamethasone suppression test, CRH stimulation, and petrosal sinus sampling of ACTH. An insulin stress test may also be used to differentiate between true Cushing’s and pseudo-Cushing’s. Overall, a combination of these tests can help diagnose Cushing’s syndrome and determine its underlying cause.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
John is a 44-year-old man who presented to you a month ago with a 6-week history of upper abdominal pain, heartburn, and occasional reflux. His medical history is unremarkable, and you both agreed on a plan for a 1-month trial of omeprazole 20 mg daily.
John returns for a follow-up appointment after completing the course of omeprazole. Unfortunately, his symptoms have only slightly improved and are still causing him distress.
What would be the most suitable course of action to manage John's persistent symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Test for Helicobacter pylori infection in 2 weeks and treat if positive
Explanation:If initial treatment for dyspepsia with either a PPI or ‘test and treat’ approach fails, the other approach should be tried next. NICE guidelines recommend prescribing a full-dose PPI for 1 month or testing for H. pylori infection and prescribing eradication therapy if positive. If symptoms persist, switch to the alternative strategy. Referral for routine upper GI endoscopy is not indicated at this stage.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.
For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a rash and fever that have been present for three days. He has a maculopapular rash on his trunk and palms, along with palpable lymph nodes in his groin and axilla. Additionally, he has mouth ulcers and flat white wart-like lesions around his anus. What is the recommended treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intramuscular benzathine penicillin
Explanation:The first-line treatment for syphilis is intramuscular benzathine penicillin, which is the correct management for the most likely diagnosis based on the patient’s symptoms of rash, lymphadenopathy, buccal ulcers, and condylomata, indicating secondary syphilis. The presence of a palmar rash is highly indicative of syphilis, although HIV should also be tested for as it can coexist with syphilis and present with similar symptoms. Cryotherapy is a treatment option for genital warts, but the flat white appearance of the wart-like lesions described here suggests they are more likely to be condylomata lata. The suggestion of no specific treatment except hydration and rest is incorrect, as this would only be appropriate for self-limiting viral illnesses such as Epstein-Barr virus, which is a potential differential diagnosis but less likely given the characteristic rash and history of the patient.
Management of Syphilis
Syphilis can be effectively managed with intramuscular benzathine penicillin as the first-line treatment. In cases where penicillin cannot be used, doxycycline may be used as an alternative. After treatment, nontreponemal titres such as rapid plasma reagin (RPR) or Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) should be monitored to assess the response. A fourfold decline in titres is often considered an adequate response to treatment.
It is important to note that the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur following treatment. This reaction is characterized by fever, rash, and tachycardia after the first dose of antibiotic. Unlike anaphylaxis, there is no wheezing or hypotension. The reaction is thought to be due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment. However, no treatment is needed other than antipyretics if required.
In summary, the management of syphilis involves the use of intramuscular benzathine penicillin or doxycycline as an alternative. Nontreponemal titres should be monitored after treatment, and the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur but does not require treatment unless symptomatic.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man presents for a health check and his thyroid function tests (TFTs) from three months ago showed elevated TSH levels and normal Free T4 levels. His recent TFTs show similar results and he reports feeling more tired and cold than usual. He denies any other symptoms and has no past medical history, but his mother has a history of autoimmune thyroiditis. What is the next step in managing his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe levothyroxine for 6 months and repeat thyroid function tests
Explanation:For patients under 65 years old with subclinical hypothyroidism and a TSH level between 5.5-10mU/L, a 6-month trial of thyroxine should be offered if they have hypothyroidism symptoms and their TSH remains elevated on two separate occasions 3 months apart. This is because subclinical hypothyroidism increases the risk of cardiovascular disease and progression to overt hypothyroidism, and treatment with levothyroxine generally resolves symptoms. Repeat thyroid autoantibody tests and thyroid function testing after 3 months are unnecessary if the patient has already had negative autoantibody results and two elevated TSH levels 3 months apart. Prescribing levothyroxine only if further symptoms develop is not recommended as it delays treatment and increases the risk of negative impacts on the patient’s quality of life.
Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism
Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men, with a 2-5% chance per year. This risk is further increased if thyroid autoantibodies are present.
Not all patients with subclinical hypothyroidism require treatment, and guidelines have been produced by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS) to help determine when treatment is necessary. If the TSH level is above 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, levothyroxine may be offered. If the TSH level is between 5.5 – 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be considered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms of hypothyroidism. For older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients may simply have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.
In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and consideration of treatment options based on individual patient factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old man visits his GP complaining of watery diarrhoea that has persisted for a few days. The patient had received IM ceftriaxone for gonorrhoeae treatment the previous week. He has not traveled recently and has maintained his regular diet. This is the first time the patient has encountered diarrhoea in his life. The GP conducted some tests and found that the patient is positive for C.difficile toxin. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral vancomycin
Explanation:The recommended first-line antibiotic for patients with C. difficile infection is oral vancomycin. This is the appropriate treatment for the patient in question, who has tested positive for C. difficile toxin in their stool while taking IM ceftriaxone. As this is their first episode of C. difficile, oral vancomycin should be prescribed. Prescribing oral fidaxomicin would be incorrect, as it is typically reserved for recurrent episodes of C. difficile within 12 weeks of symptom resolution. Oral metronidazole is an alternative but less effective option for non-severe cases, and should only be used if vancomycin is not available or contraindicated. Prescribing a combination of oral vancomycin and intravenous metronidazole would only be necessary in cases of life-threatening C. difficile infection, which is not the case for this patient.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)