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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visits his primary care physician, reporting difficulty watching television. He has a medical history of hypertension, but no other significant issues.
Tests:
Fasting plasma glucose: 6.5 mmol/l
Fundoscopy: Bilateral drusen affecting the fovea
Visual field testing: Bilateral central visual field loss
Fluorescein angiography: Bilateral retinal neovascularisation and exudates present
What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient's symptoms and test results?Your Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy
Correct Answer: Age-related macular degeneration (AMD)
Explanation:Understanding Age-Related Macular Degeneration (AMD)
Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is a common condition among individuals aged 75 years and above. It is characterized by the presence of yellow spots called drusen, which are waste products from the retinal pigment epithelium. Gradual loss of central vision, as well as the presence of foveal drusen on retinal examination, are typical signs of AMD. There are two types of AMD: wet (neovascular) and dry (non-neovascular). Dry AMD progresses slowly and has no known treatment, although stopping smoking can reduce its rate of progression. Wet AMD, on the other hand, arises when there is choroidal neovascularization and can be treated with laser treatment or anti-VEGF intravitreal injections to reduce new vessel formation.
Other eye conditions that may cause vision loss include diabetic maculopathy, proliferative retinopathy (PR), hypertensive retinopathy, diabetic retinopathy, retinitis pigmentosa, and chronic angle closure glaucoma. However, the patient’s symptoms and retinal examination findings suggest that AMD is the most likely diagnosis. It is important to understand the different eye conditions and their respective treatments to provide appropriate care and management for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 52-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen right eye. He complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements, which are quite restricted.
On examination, the visual acuity is 6/18 in the right eye and 6/6 in the left. The periorbital area of the right eye is very swollen and erythematosus. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva was chemosed. Eye movements in the right eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the right.
Vital observations were as follows:
Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
Heart rate 75 bpm
Respiratory rate 18 per minute
Oxygen saturation 98% on air
Temperature 37.9 °C
What is the most important step in your management plan to determine the cause of this patient’s eye problem?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan of the orbit, sinuses, and brain
Explanation:Diagnostic Steps for Orbital Cellulitis: CT Scan of the Orbit, Sinuses, and Brain
Orbital cellulitis is commonly caused by ethmoidal sinusitis and requires prompt diagnosis and management. While blood culture and normal blood tests can be helpful, they are not the most important steps in determining the cause of the infection. Instead, a CT scan of the orbit, sinuses, and brain is the most effective diagnostic tool. This scan can reveal diffuse orbital infiltrate, proptosis, sinus opacity, or even orbital abscesses. Once diagnosed, management often involves ENT assessment for sinus drainage and/or subperiosteal abscess. Intravenous cefuroxime and metronidazole or flucloxacillin are necessary to control the infection, but do not aid in determining the cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old individual who wears contact lenses presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in their left eye. They describe a sensation of having something gritty stuck in their eye. The eye appears red all over and they have difficulty looking at bright lights. Upon examination with a slit-lamp, there is a hypopyon and focal white infiltrates on the cornea. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer: Acanthamoeba
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the likely cause of bacterial keratitis in contact lens wearers. Symptoms include a foreign body sensation, conjunctival injection, and hypopyon on slit-lamp examination. Staphylococci and streptococci are also common causes, but pseudomonas is particularly prevalent in this population. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Acanthamoeba, and herpes simplex are less likely causes.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his optometrist for a check-up. He has hyperopia and his current prescription is +3/+3.25 without any astigmatism or myopia. What is the primary eye condition that this patient is susceptible to with his present eye condition?
Your Answer: Primary open-angle glaucoma
Correct Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Explanation:Hypermetropia is linked to acute angle-closure glaucoma, while myopia is associated with primary open-angle glaucoma. This is because those with hypermetropia have smaller eyes, shallower anterior chambers, and narrower angles. The connection between myopia and primary open-angle glaucoma is not as clear, but it may be due to the optic nerve head being more vulnerable to damage from increased intraocular pressure. Cataracts are commonly linked to aging and severe short-sightedness, while central retinal artery occlusion is associated with aneurysms, arterial disease, and emboli.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache that is most intense in the morning. Despite taking paracetamol, the symptoms have persisted for several weeks. She also experiences vomiting in the mornings and has noticed blurry vision. Upon examination, her pupils are equal and reactive, and there are no abnormalities in her systemic examination. What would you anticipate observing during fundoscopy?
Your Answer: Increased arterial reflex
Correct Answer: Blurring of optic disc margin
Explanation:Papilloedema is characterized by a blurry appearance of the optic disc margin during fundoscopy.
The patient in question is experiencing elevated intracranial pressure, the cause of which is uncertain. Their symptoms, including a morning headache, vision impairment, and vomiting, are indicative of papilloedema. As such, it is expected that their fundoscopy would reveal signs of this condition, such as a blurred optic disc margin.
Other potential indicators of papilloedema include a loss of optic cup and venous pulsation. However, increased arterial reflex is more commonly associated with hypertensive retinopathy, while retinal pigmentation is a hallmark of retinitis pigmentosa.
Understanding Papilloedema: Optic Disc Swelling Caused by Increased Intracranial Pressure
Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition is typically bilateral and can be identified through fundoscopy. During this examination, venous engorgement is usually the first sign observed, followed by loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and the presence of Paton’s lines, which are concentric or radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc.
There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may also be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia, or vitamin A toxicity.
Overall, understanding papilloedema is important for identifying potential underlying conditions and providing appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of facial swelling and pain following a recent upper respiratory tract infection. Upon examination, the right eye is surrounded by erythema and swelling, and there is discomfort when moving the eye. The patient's left eye has a visual acuity of 6/6, while the right eye has a visual acuity of 6/24.
What would be the best course of action in this case?Your Answer: Prescribe high-dose oral steroids and refer urgently to Rheumatology
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for IV antibiotics
Explanation:Patients who exhibit symptoms of orbital cellulitis should be admitted to the hospital for IV antibiotics due to the potential risks of cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial spread. Prescribing high-dose oral steroids and checking thyroid function is not the appropriate course of action, as these symptoms are more indicative of orbital cellulitis resulting from the spread of infection from the upper respiratory tract. Referring to Rheumatology and prescribing high-dose oral steroids is also not recommended, as this would be more appropriate for suspected giant cell arthritis, which is rare in patients under 65 years old. Supportive management and nasal decongestants are not recommended at this stage, as the facial pain and swelling with painful eye movements suggest that the condition has progressed to orbital cellulitis and requires IV antibiotics.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 54-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blurred vision that has been ongoing for 3 days. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is being managed with amlodipine, ramipril, and indapamide, as well as type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
During the examination, his visual acuity is found to be 6/18 in both eyes with a reduction in colour vision. There is no relative afferent pupillary defect. Upon direct fundoscopy, the optic disc margins appear ill-defined and raised in both eyes. Additionally, there are cotton-wool spots scattered around the retina in both eyes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypertensive Retinopathy
Hypertensive retinopathy is a serious condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. In this case, the patient has grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy according to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification. The fundoscopy revealed bilateral optic disc swelling with cotton-wool spots, indicating optic neuropathy secondary to hypertension. Despite being on multiple medications to control hypertension, the patient’s blood pressure is difficult to manage.
While considering the diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy, it is important to rule out other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms. An intracranial space-occupying lesion is not indicated in the patient’s history. Optic neuritis can present with loss of optic nerve function, but it is more commonly unilateral and does not typically involve cotton-wool spots. Pre-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathy are also unlikely given the patient’s well-controlled type II diabetes.
In conclusion, the patient’s presentation is most consistent with hypertensive retinopathy. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and rule them out through further evaluation and testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of pain, redness, and tearing in her right eye for the past two weeks. She also experiences sensitivity to light. The pain is constant and dull, and it can be so intense that it wakes her up at night. The pain sometimes spreads to her jaw, neck, and head. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis.
During the examination, her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/6, while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/9. The eye appears diffusely injected.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:Distinguishing Scleritis from Other Eye Conditions
Scleritis is a condition that causes severe, deep, and boring pain in the eye, often associated with systemic diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, vasculitis, and sarcoidosis. Unlike episcleritis, the pain in scleritis is more intense and may be felt even when the eye moves. The eye appears diffusely red, and the globe is tender to touch. To differentiate between episcleritis and scleritis, topical phenylephrine 2.5-10% can be used, which causes the superficial episcleral vessels to blanch in episcleritis but not the deeper scleral vessels in scleritis.
Other eye conditions can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, for example, presents with sudden, severe pain and a reduction or loss of vision, while central retinal artery occlusion causes painless vision loss. Conjunctivitis, on the other hand, causes milder pain, and episcleritis may cause teary and photophobic symptoms but is usually not associated with systemic diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden visual loss. He reports no eye redness, ocular trauma, or headaches. The loss of vision began from the outside and progressed inward, accompanied by flashes and floaters. He wears corrective glasses and sometimes contact lenses, but he cannot recall his prescription. What characteristic raises the likelihood of this patient developing this condition?
Your Answer: Hypermetropia
Correct Answer: Myopia
Explanation:Myopia increases the likelihood of retinal detachment, which should be suspected if a patient experiences gradual vision loss starting from the periphery and moving towards the centre. This may be accompanied by the sensation of a curtain or veil descending over their vision, preceded by flashes and floaters caused by the vitreous humour tugging at the retina. Myopia elongates the eyeball, stretching the retina and making it more susceptible to tearing and detachment. Astigmatism, a refractive error caused by an irregularly shaped eyeball, does not increase the risk of RD. Contact lens use is not associated with RD but may increase the risk of infection. Hypermetropia, or farsightedness, does not increase the risk of RD but is associated with acute angle-closure glaucoma, which presents with severe ocular pain, visual blurring, a hard and red eye, and systemic symptoms such as nausea and vomiting.
Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. This can cause vision loss, but if detected and treated early, it can be reversible. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma. Symptoms may include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss, and reduced peripheral and central vision. If the macula is involved, visual outcomes can be much worse. Diagnosis is made through fundoscopy, which may show retinal folds or a lost red reflex. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for assessment and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of double vision that occurs when both eyes are open. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus.
During the examination, his visual acuity is measured at 6/9 in both eyes. The patient has complete drooping of his left eyelid. The size of his left pupil is the same as the right. His left eye is turned outward and slightly downward when looking straight ahead. The patient's left eye movements are limited in most directions except for outward movement.
What is the next step in investigating this condition?Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) head with magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
Correct Answer: Blood tests including full blood count (FBC), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C-reactive protein (CRP), lipids and blood glucose
Explanation:Investigations for Third-Nerve Palsy: What to Consider
When presented with a third-nerve palsy, it is important to investigate the potential causes and determine the appropriate course of action. A pupil-sparing complete palsy may suggest a medical cause, such as hypertension or diabetes, which can be assessed through blood tests including FBC, ESR, CRP, lipids, and blood glucose. Once all causes have been investigated and treated, an orthoptic review with Hess charts can help resolve diplopia. CSF testing for oligoclonal bands is not necessary unless a demyelinating cause is suspected. In cases of severe symptoms, an MRI head with MRA is the correct option to rule out a posterior-communicating artery aneurysm. A non-contrast CT head is only necessary if an acute intracranial or subarachnoid bleed is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with complaints of swelling around her left eye. She has been experiencing this for the past 2 days and has also been feeling feverish and lethargic. The patient denies any history of trauma or vision loss.
Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 38.2ºC and is found to have left-sided proptosis. All eye movements are painful and reduced in the affected eye. Fundoscopy is normal, and the patient has a visual acuity of 6/6 in the right eye and 6/12 in the left eye.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Orbital cellulitis
Explanation:Orbital cellulitis is characterized by sudden swelling of one eye, accompanied by proptosis and limited eye movement. Pain and visual changes may also occur depending on the severity of the condition. Diagnosis is usually based on clinical examination, but in severe or resistant cases, microbiology and imaging techniques such as CT may be used. Conjunctivitis and iritis can cause red eyes, but they do not typically result in orbital swelling. Retinoblastoma is a type of cancer that primarily affects children under the age of 5 and is usually detected during routine fundoscopy or due to a decline in vision.
Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.
Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.
To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.
Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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An older man comes in with a severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a painful, red right eye. He has reduced visual acuity in the right eye and normal visual acuity in the left eye. During the examination, he had a stony hard eye with marked pericorneal reddening and a hazy corneal reflex. Tonometry revealed a raised intraocular pressure. The patient reports that he has recently been prescribed a new medication by his general practitioner.
What medication could be responsible for this sudden onset of symptoms?Your Answer: Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: Ipratropium nebuliser
Explanation:Understanding Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma and its Treatment Options
Acute closed angle glaucoma is a serious eye condition that can cause sudden vision loss, severe eye pain, and nausea. It occurs when the angle between the iris and cornea is reduced, leading to a blockage of the aqueous humour flow and increased intraocular pressure. Risk factors include female sex, Asian ethnicity, and hypermetropia.
Certain drugs, such as nebulised ipratropium and tricyclic antidepressants, can induce angle closure due to their antimuscarinic effects. Other antimuscarinic drug side-effects include dry eyes, xerostomia, bronchodilation, decreased gut motility, urinary outflow obstruction, and hallucinations.
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is given intravenously to treat acute closed angle glaucoma. It helps to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent damage to the optic nerve. Bisoprolol is a β-blocker that does not precipitate an episode of acute closed angle glaucoma, while montelukast is used in the long-term management of asthma and does not increase the risk of acute closed angle glaucoma.
Topical pilocarpine is a miotic that is used to treat acute angle closure glaucoma by constricting the pupil and promoting aqueous humour flow. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for acute closed angle glaucoma to prevent vision loss and other serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Mrs Green is a 58-year-old woman who comes to eye casualty with sudden vision loss in her left eye. She reports having observed some dark spots in her vision over the past few days. She is not in any pain and has a medical history of diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. What is the most probable cause of her visual impairment?
Your Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Correct Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage
Explanation:Understanding Vitreous Haemorrhage
Vitreous haemorrhage is a condition where there is bleeding into the vitreous humour, which can cause sudden painless loss of vision. This disruption to vision can range from floaters to complete visual loss. The bleeding can come from any vessel in the retina or extend through the retina from other areas. Once the bleeding stops, the blood is typically cleared from the retina at a rate of approximately 1% per day.
The incidence of spontaneous vitreous haemorrhage is around 7 cases per 100,000 patient-years. The incidence by age and sex varies according to the underlying causes. The most common causes, which collectively account for 90% of cases, include proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment, and ocular trauma (which is the most common cause in children and young adults).
Patients with vitreous haemorrhage typically present with an acute or subacute onset of painless visual loss or haze, a red hue in the vision, or floaters or shadows/dark spots in the vision. Signs of the condition include decreased visual acuity (depending on the location, size, and degree of vitreous haemorrhage) and visual field defects if the haemorrhage is severe.
Investigations for vitreous haemorrhage include dilated fundoscopy, slit-lamp examination, ultrasound (useful to rule out retinal tear/detachment and if haemorrhage obscures the retina), fluorescein angiography (to identify neovascularization), and orbital CT (used if open globe injury is suspected).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes in with a painful red eye. What feature would not indicate a diagnosis of acute angle closure glaucoma?
Your Answer: Patient sees halos around lights
Correct Answer: Small pupil
Explanation:Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female accountant comes to the emergency eye clinic with a painful red eye on the right side. She reports a burning sensation around the eye, sensitivity to light, and excessive tearing. Fluorescein staining reveals a linear, branching epithelial defect. She has no history of wearing contact lenses and no significant medical history. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Oral corticosteroids
Correct Answer: Topical acyclovir
Explanation:Topical acyclovir is the treatment for herpes simplex keratitis, which presents with a painful red eye, photophobia, and abnormal fluorescein staining. Artificial tears are used for dry eyes, while topical chloramphenicol is used for bacterial conjunctivitis.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman has been referred by her optician to the eye clinic. She has been experiencing vision problems and is concerned about her eye health. On examination, her external eye, including the pupil, appears normal.
Investigations:
Slit-lamp: Quiet anterior chamber
Intra-ocular pressure: 30 mmHg
Fundoscopy: Optic disc appears slightly cupped
Visual field testing: Arcuate scotoma
Which of the following diagnoses is most likely based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Correct Answer: Primary open angle glaucoma
Explanation:Differentiating Ophthalmic Conditions: A Guide
Primary Open Angle Glaucoma: This condition is characterized by unnoticed visual loss, which becomes apparent only after impaired vision is demonstrated. Patients with POAG develop a visual field defect due to loss of nerve fibers at the optic disc, resulting in the appearance of ‘cupping’ of the optic disc. Increased intraocular pressures are the most common cause of optic disc fiber damage.
Retinal Detachment: Patients with retinal detachment typically present with a history of flashing lights and floaters in their vision. The three most common causes of retinal detachment are rhegmatogenous, tractional, and exudative. The history and examination findings are not typical of retinal detachment.
Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma: This is an ophthalmology emergency that presents with an acutely painful red eye, usually with associated vomiting. The pupil is fixed and mid-dilated, and there is corneal edema. This condition occurs when the angle between the lens and iris becomes blocked off, causing an acute pressure rise. The high pressure can cause permanent damage to the optic nerve if not treated quickly. Although this patient has a high intraocular pressure, the history is not suggestive of an acute painful attack.
Central Retinal Vein Occlusion: This condition causes sudden painless loss of vision due to reduced blood flow to the retina. The patient in this case gives a history of slow, progressive visual loss, which is not typical of central retinal vein occlusion. This condition is also unlikely to cause a rise in intraocular pressure.
Anterior Uveitis: A quiet anterior chamber indicates that anterior uveitis (iritis) is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Cells in the anterior chamber are a sign of ocular inflammation, which is not present in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painless, firm lump on her right upper eyelid. She mentions that it has been present for approximately two weeks and initially started as a small, tender swelling. There are no indications of infection and her vision remains unaffected.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hordeolum
Correct Answer: Meibomian cyst
Explanation:The patient is experiencing a painless swelling or lump on their eyelid, most likely a meibomian cyst (chalazion). This is caused by a blocked gland and typically appears as a firm, painless swelling away from the margin of the eyelid. While a hordeolum (stye) can present similarly in the initial stages, it is usually painful and self-limiting. Blepharitis, which causes crusting, redness, swelling, and itching of both eyelids, is not present in this case. An epidermal inclusion cyst is a less likely cause given the short history of only two weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old man visits the optician after hearing that individuals over 70 can receive a complimentary eye exam. He has been wearing glasses for his entire adult life due to being long-sighted. His doctor recently informed him that he has pre-diabetes, but he feels fine and hasn't noticed any issues with his vision. During the eye exam, the optometrist discovers that he has high intraocular pressure and advises him to see a specialist for further testing.
What symptom is he most likely to encounter based on the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Intense eye pain
Correct Answer: Reduced peripheral vision
Explanation:The patient’s optic nerve fibers may have suffered irreversible damage, putting her at increased risk of developing glaucoma due to her age, pre-diabetes, and raised intraocular pressure. The optometrist detected this pressure, which is caused by impaired drainage of aqueous fluid within the eye. However, the patient is asymptomatic and therefore unlikely to have closed-angle glaucoma, which causes intense eye pain, redness, headaches, halos around lights, and nausea. Cloudy vision is more likely to be caused by cataracts, but there are no other features to suggest this diagnosis. Open-angle glaucoma can sometimes cause color blindness, but it more commonly affects the visual fields. It does not cause dry eyes, which can be caused by autoimmune conditions such as Sjogren’s syndrome and systemic lupus erythematosus.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision and lacrimation in the left eye. He also feels a foreign body sensation in the affected eye. He had been doing some DIY work at home without wearing any goggles for the past few days prior to the onset of pain.
On examination, his visual acuities are 6/18 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The conjunctiva in the left is red. The cornea is tested with fluorescein and it shows an uptake in the centre of the cornea which looks like a dendrite. On examination of his face, there are some small vesicles at the corner of his mouth as well.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Microbial keratitis
Correct Answer: Viral keratitis
Explanation:Possible Eye Conditions and Diagnosis for a Patient with Corneal Ulcer
Upon examination of a patient with a corneal ulcer, several possible eye conditions can be considered. However, based on the presence of a dendritic ulcer and a history of cold sores, a viral keratitis, specifically herpes simplex keratitis, is likely. A corneal abrasion is unlikely as there is no history of eye injury. A corneal foreign body is also unlikely as there is no visible foreign object on the cornea. Fungal keratitis is unlikely as there are no risk factors present. Microbial keratitis is a possibility, but it typically presents with a round-shaped ulcer. Overall, a viral keratitis diagnosis seems most probable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 20
Correct
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An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a painful, red right eye. She has reduced visual acuity in the right eye and normal visual acuity in the left eye. On examination, she had a stony hard eye with marked pericorneal reddening and a hazy corneal reflex. Tonometry revealed raised intraocular pressure.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Admit for immediate review by on call ophthalmologist. Topical pilocarpine, followed by a single dose of oral acetazolamide (500 mg) if there is a significant delay prior to specialist review
Explanation:Emergency Management of Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma
Acute closed angle glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires urgent ophthalmological review. The condition causes sudden loss of vision, severe eye pain, and marked pericorneal injection. The patient may also experience nausea and vomiting. On examination, the eye is stony hard with a semi-dilated, non-reactive pupil, and tonometry reveals a high intraocular pressure (40–80 mmHg).
The primary treatment for acute closed angle glaucoma is urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. However, if there is a significant delay in specialist review, a single dose of oral acetazolamide (500 mg) can be given to reduce aqueous secretion, and topical pilocarpine can be used to cause pupillary constriction.
It is important to note that topical steroids are not effective in resolving the underlying problems of acute closed angle glaucoma. Urgent referral to a neurologist is also not appropriate for managing this condition. Additionally, topical tropicamide should not be used as it has the opposite effect to pilocarpine and can worsen attacks of glaucoma.
In summary, acute closed angle glaucoma is a medical emergency that requires urgent ophthalmological review. If there is a delay in specialist review, a single dose of oral acetazolamide and topical pilocarpine can be given to manage the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman, a known type 1 diabetic, visited the GP clinic with a complaint of decreased vision. Her left eye has a vision of 6/6, while her right eye has a vision of 6/18.
Your GP placement supervisor requested you to conduct a dilated direct fundoscopy on her eyes. During the examination, you observed exudates forming a ring around a dot haemorrhage near the fovea.
What is the probable diagnosis of the patient's eye condition?Your Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy with maculopathy
Correct Answer: Diabetic maculopathy
Explanation:Understanding the Different Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is caused by damage to the blood vessels in the retina, which can lead to vision loss if left untreated. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.
The first stage is background diabetic retinopathy, which is characterized by microaneurysms, small blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, and occasional cotton-wool spots. The next stage is pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy, which includes intraretinal microvascular abnormalities (IRMA), venous beading or loops, clusters of large blot haemorrhages, and multiple cotton-wool spots.
Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is the most advanced stage and includes all the features of pre-proliferative retinopathy, as well as new vessels at the disc or elsewhere in the retina. Finally, proliferative diabetic retinopathy with maculopathy is when there are any features of diabetic retinopathy but existing at the macula, such as a ring of exudates and a dot haemorrhage near the fovea.
It is important for people with diabetes to have regular eye exams to detect and treat diabetic retinopathy early on. With proper management, vision loss can be prevented or minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old construction worker presents to the emergency department complaining of a foreign body sensation in his left eye. He reports experiencing pain and sensitivity to light on the left side. When asked about eye protection, he states that he wears it 99% of the time. Upon examination, you notice crusty, gold-colored lesions on his face. Using a slit lamp and fluorescein eye stain, you identify a dendritic ulcer in his left eye.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Bacterial keratitis
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex keratitis
Explanation:A dendritic ulcer seen on fluorescein eye stain is indicative of herpes simplex keratitis, which is the likely diagnosis in this case. While mechanics may be at a higher risk for photokeratitis, it typically does not cause a foreign body sensation. While the other options are possible, the presence of a dendritic ulcer is a key diagnostic feature.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the management of conjunctivitis is incorrect?
Your Answer: Chloramphenicol eye drops are given 2-3 hourly initially
Correct Answer: Contact lens may be worn once topical antibiotic treatment has been started
Explanation:It is not advisable to wear contact lenses while experiencing conjunctivitis.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 55-year-old man comes in with redness in his eye, accompanied by mild sensitivity to light and slight tearing. He denies any discomfort or soreness, and his vision remains unaffected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Episcleritis
Explanation:Episcleritis is the only cause of red eye that is typically not accompanied by pain. Other causes listed are associated with pain, as well as blurred or decreased vision. While episcleritis may cause mild tenderness, it is generally not painful and can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatories or steroids if necessary.
Understanding Episcleritis
Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.
One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.
Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to the Eye Casualty with a sudden onset of painful reduction in vision in her left eye. She denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history.
Upon examination, her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 while her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/36 with reduced color vision. Eye movements are normal, but the pain worsens. The swinging torch test reveals left pupil dilation when the torch light swings from the right eye to the left. Dilated fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in her left eye.
What is the recommended first-line treatment for this condition?Your Answer: Oral prednisolone
Correct Answer: Intravenous methylprednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Optic Neuritis in Multiple Sclerosis Patients
Optic neuritis is a common symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS) and can cause vision loss or pain. While the condition may improve on its own, treatment with steroids is often recommended. Intravenous methylprednisolone is the preferred route of administration for this medication, although it can cause side effects such as mood changes and weight gain.
Glatiramer acetate and interferon beta are first-line treatments for MS, but are not typically used for isolated episodes of optic neuritis. Natalizumab is a second-line treatment option for MS, but may not be appropriate for all patients.
It is important to note that oral prednisolone alone is not recommended for optic neuritis in MS patients due to an increased risk of recurrence. Overall, treatment options for optic neuritis in MS patients should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female who is overweight visits her doctor complaining of daily headaches that have been ongoing for two weeks. The headaches are felt on both sides of her forehead, persist throughout the day, and intensify when she bends over. She does not experience any aura with the headaches. During a fundoscopy, the doctor notices blurring of the optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sinus headache
Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation:Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is a possible diagnosis for a young woman with a high BMI, headache, and visual symptoms, as it is associated with papilloedema. Cluster headaches, migraines, and sinus headaches do not account for papilloedema and have different characteristics.
Understanding Papilloedema: Optic Disc Swelling Caused by Increased Intracranial Pressure
Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition is typically bilateral and can be identified through fundoscopy. During this examination, venous engorgement is usually the first sign observed, followed by loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and the presence of Paton’s lines, which are concentric or radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc.
There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may also be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia, or vitamin A toxicity.
Overall, understanding papilloedema is important for identifying potential underlying conditions and providing appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of painful red eye on one side. Upon examination, the GP observes reduced visual acuity, photophobia, eye watering, and a poorly reactive pupil. The patient is suspected to have uveitis. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Urgent (within two weeks) referral to an Ophthalmologist
Correct Answer: Same-day referral to an Ophthalmologist
Explanation:Management of Acutely Painful Red Eye with Suspected Uveitis
Explanation:
When a patient presents with an acutely painful red eye and suspected uveitis, it is crucial to refer them for same-day assessment by an Ophthalmologist. A slit-lamp examination is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, which cannot be performed by a GP. Non-infective anterior uveitis is treated with a combination of steroids and cycloplegics to reduce inflammation and ciliary spasm. In cases of infective uveitis, antimicrobials are also added.Chloramphenicol is used in the treatment of conjunctivitis, but it is not appropriate for uveitis. Conservative management with pain relief alone is not sufficient for this condition. Topical steroids are required to reduce inflammation, along with a cycloplegic such as atropine to reduce ciliary spasm. However, topical steroids should not be initiated in primary care, and patients require urgent assessment in secondary care.
Referral within two weeks is not appropriate for a patient with an acutely painful red eye and suspected uveitis. Any delay in treatment can result in adhesions within the eye and long-term damage. Therefore, same-day referral to an Ophthalmologist is necessary for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 78-year-old man with a history of metastatic lung cancer presents to the oncology clinic for follow-up. Despite multiple rounds of radiotherapy, there has been no improvement in his condition and he is now receiving palliative care. During the visit, he mentions that his daughter has noticed a change in his facial appearance. Upon examination, the physician observes drooping of the right eyelid and a smaller right pupil. What other symptom is indicative of Horner's syndrome?
Your Answer: Ipsilateral loss of sweating of the face
Explanation:The answer is the loss of sweating on the same side of the face as the affected eye. This could indicate Horner’s syndrome, which is often caused by a Pancoast’s tumor. Horner’s syndrome is characterized by a drooping eyelid, a constricted pupil, sunken eyes, and a lack of sweating on one side of the face. Although a tumor that causes damage to the brachial plexus and results in arm nerve function loss may be present, it is not a symptom of Horner’s syndrome.
Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.
Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.
There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen right eye. He complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements, which were quite restricted. He has no past medical history and is allergic to penicillin.
On examination, the visual acuity is 6/18 in the right, 6/6 in the left. The periorbital area of the right eye is very swollen and erythematosus. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the right eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the right. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the right eye. Computed tomography (CT) scan shows diffuse orbital infiltrate and proptosis.
Vital observations are as follows:
Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
Heart rate 75 bpm
Respiratory rate 18 per minute
Oxygen saturation 98% on air
Temperature 37.9 °C
What is first-line management for this patient?Your Answer: Cefuroxime intravenously (IV)
Correct Answer: Clindamycin and ciprofloxacin IV
Explanation:Treatment Options for Penicillin-Allergic Patients with Orbital Cellulitis
When treating a patient with orbital cellulitis who is allergic to penicillin, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. One option is to administer clindamycin and ciprofloxacin intravenously. However, cefuroxime alone is not sufficient and requires the addition of metronidazole. Co-amoxiclav should not be used in penicillin-allergic patients, and Tazocin® is also not recommended. It is important to note that drainage of the orbit is not necessary for the treatment of orbital cellulitis unless there are signs of an abscess. By considering these options, healthcare providers can effectively treat penicillin-allergic patients with orbital cellulitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient is receiving medical treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma and experiences side effects of increased eyelash length, iris, and periocular pigmentation. What medication class is responsible for these effects?
Your Answer: Prostaglandin analogues
Explanation:Prostaglandin analogues can cause hyperaemia, increased eyelash growth, periocular skin pigmentation, and increased iris pigmentation as side effects. On the other hand, beta-blockers have the potential to exacerbate asthma and heart block, unlike the other options mentioned.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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