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Question 1
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is seen with a markedly painful left leg. He is holding it immobile and is reluctant to walk. His parents report that over the last 48 hours he has not been himself, the pain in the leg has become more prominent and the child has had a temperature.
On examination, the child has a temperature of 37.9°C and there is a slight swelling with extreme tenderness over the proximal left tibia. The area is warm to touch and any movement of the child's leg cause severe pain. The knee joint itself appears normal with no effusion; and the hip and ankle joints also appear normal.
What is the likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteomyelitis
Explanation:Osteomyelitis in Children
Osteomyelitis is a common infection in children that affects the metaphysis of long bones, particularly the proximal tibia and distal femur. The condition presents with a painful, pseudoparetic limb associated with an acute febrile illness. Swelling, extreme tenderness, and warmth to the touch can be observed at the site of the infection, with visible erythema. Movement of the affected limb causes marked pain. In infants, the onset can be more insidious.
This 6-year-old child has a typical presentation of osteomyelitis, with no history of injury and the presence of fever and recent onset pointing towards an acute infective aetiology. Tibial fracture would be unlikely in this age group. The normal clinical examination of the knee, hip, and ankle joints rules out septic arthritis. Although juvenile idiopathic arthritis (or Juvenile chronic arthritis) can cause an acute febrile illness, it typically causes arthritis and a characteristic salmon-pink rash, which is not reported in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Correct
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You have a phone consultation scheduled with Mrs. Smith, a 26-year-old woman. She has received a letter inviting her for his first routine cervical screening test. She says that from what she understands from news coverage about the HPV vaccine, cervical cancer is caused by HPV, so she is wondering if she needs to be screened as she has never had sexual intercourse. She says she is willing to come if you still advise it. You take some further history and confirm she has never engaged in any sexual activity.
What would be your advice to her?Your Answer: Her risk is very low so it would be reasonable to opt-out, but she can still attend if she wishes
Explanation:Women who have never had sex have a very low risk of cervical cancer and can opt out of screening, but remain eligible if they choose to do so. Screening is not recommended unless the woman develops symptoms, and the age range for screening is 25-64.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK
Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.
The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.
In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.
While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 3
Incorrect
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The observation that symptoms which are severe on initial assessment are likely to have improved on subsequent assessments is known as what?
Your Answer: Expectancy effect
Correct Answer: Regression to the mean
Explanation:When a variable is measured to be extreme initially, it is likely to move closer to the average on subsequent measurements, which is known as regression to the mean.
Understanding the Placebo Effect
The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.
It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.
The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.
Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 4
Correct
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A week ago you started an elderly patient with urge incontinence on immediate release oxybutynin tablets.
She says she had to stop taking them because of side effects.
What side effect is commonly found in elderly women taking oxybutynin?Your Answer: Dry mouth
Explanation:Understanding the Side Effects of Oxybutynin
Oxybutynin is a medication that belongs to the antimuscarinic class of drugs. It is commonly used to treat urinary incontinence and overactive bladder. However, it can cause several side effects such as dry mouth, constipation, dry eyes, and decreased sweating. If the immediate release formulation of oxybutynin is not well-tolerated, a sustained release formulation may be considered.
It is important to note that a recent clinical review published in the BMJ has highlighted the potential cognitive side effects of medications with a high anticholinergic burden, including oxybutynin. This can lead to cognitive impairment, which can worsen the symptoms of dementia or even lead to false positive diagnoses. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential side effects of oxybutynin and to discuss any concerns with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 5
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents with restlessness and drowsiness. He is known to drink in excess of fifty units of alcohol per week.
On examination he has a broad-based gait. There is nystagmus and bilateral lateral rectus muscle palsy.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Serious Condition Linked to Alcoholism and Malnutrition
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological condition characterized by confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. It is commonly seen in patients with a history of alcohol excess, malnutrition, and can even occur during pregnancy. The condition is caused by a deficiency of thiamine, a vital nutrient for the brain.
If left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to irreversible Korsakoff’s syndrome. Therefore, it is crucial to recognize and treat this condition as an emergency with thiamine replacement. The therapeutic window for treatment is short-lived, making early diagnosis and intervention essential.
In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that can have devastating consequences if left untreated. It is important to consider this diagnosis in confused patients, especially those with a history of alcoholism or malnutrition. Early recognition and treatment with thiamine replacement can prevent irreversible damage to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents with complaints of excessive thirst and frequent urination. Her fasting glucose levels are consistently elevated at 10 mmol/l and 9.5 mmol/l on two separate occasions, indicating a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. It is known that secondary diabetes mellitus can be caused by an underlying endocrine disorder. Which of the following conditions, if present, is least likely to be associated with secondary diabetes mellitus? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: A bitemporal visual-field defect
Correct Answer: Maculopathy
Explanation:Endocrine Conditions and Associated Symptoms
Endocrine conditions can lead to various symptoms depending on the hormones involved. Diabetes secondary to other endocrine conditions is caused by excess hormones that have antagonistic actions to insulin. Growth hormone and cortisol are two such hormones that can cause diabetes. Maculopathy is a common symptom of diabetes of long duration and is related to poor glycaemic control. It can also be present in patients with secondary diabetes if they have gone undiagnosed for some time. However, maculopathy is not related to any of the hormone excesses seen in these conditions.
Hypertension can be a feature of both acromegaly and Cushing syndrome. A bitemporal visual-field defect can also be a feature of both conditions due to the pressure effect of a pituitary adenoma. Long-lasting stimulation of the follicular epithelium by growth hormone and insulin-like growth factor 1 can cause disorders in thyroid function, an increase in its mass and the development of goitre. Patients with acromegaly most frequently present with non-toxic multinodular goitre.
Cushing syndrome can cause multiple striae and bruises due to deficient collagen synthesis, resulting in thin and fragile skin. It is important to recognize these symptoms and seek medical attention for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 7
Correct
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Samantha, a 48-year-old woman, visits you for her annual medication review.
Samantha has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Her current medications include lisinopril 10 mg, hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg, and atorvastatin 40 mg. She has no known drug allergies.
During the review, Samantha expresses her concern about her persistent headaches and occasional dizziness. Upon further questioning, she reveals that she has been experiencing stress at work and difficulty sleeping due to worrying about her job security.
You diagnose mild anxiety and discuss starting an anxiolytic. Samantha agrees, and you prescribe lorazepam 0.5mg as needed.
What other step is important in managing Samantha's condition at this point?Your Answer: Prescribe lansoprazole
Explanation:When prescribing medication to a patient who is already taking an NSAID, such as aspirin, it is important to assess their risk for gastrointestinal bleeding. According to NICE guidelines, patients with 1-2 risk factors are considered moderate risk and should either be prescribed a COX-2 inhibitor alone or a PPI. One risk factor is taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), so in this case, the patient should be prescribed lansoprazole along with citalopram.
It is important to note that taking both citalopram and amitriptyline can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome. While co-codamol may be helpful for the patient’s back pain, it would be best to assess the pain before prescribing pain relief.
Gabapentin is not necessary in this situation, and Z drugs like zopiclone should not be the first choice for managing sleep difficulties associated with depression.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman in the third trimester of her first pregnancy presents with pruritus and a few blisters on her abdomen, including around her umbilicus and upper thighs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Pemphigoid gestationis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions During Pregnancy
Pregnancy can bring about various changes in a woman’s body, including changes in the skin. Here are some common skin conditions that may occur during pregnancy:
1. Pemphigoid Gestationis (Herpes Gestationis)
This rare bullous disorder is caused by circulating immunoglobulin G (IgG) autoantibodies similar to those found in bullous pemphigoid. It usually appears in the second trimester but can occur at any stage and may even worsen postpartum. Symptoms include extremely itchy urticarial papules and blisters on the abdomen and trunk, which may become generalized.2. Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy (Pruritic Urticarial Papules and Plaques of Pregnancy)
This benign dermatosis typically arises late in the third trimester of a first pregnancy or in multiple pregnancies. Itchy erythematous papules and plaques first appear on abdominal striae and then spread to the trunk and proximal limbs. The umbilicus is usually spared.3. Pregnancy Prurigo
Prurigo of pregnancy presents as scattered, itchy/scratched papules at any stage of pregnancy. It is often mistaken for scabies but doesn’t respond to antiscabetic agents. Emollients and topical corticosteroids may help.4. Pruritus (Cholestatic) of Pregnancy
Cholestatic pruritis appears as unexplained pruritus during the second and third trimesters, with raised blood levels of bile acids and/or liver enzymes. It typically starts in the soles of the feet and palms of the hands and progresses to the trunk and face.5. Scabies
Although rare, bullous lesions have been reported in scabies. However, this is not the most common cause of this presentation.It is important to consult a healthcare provider if any skin changes or symptoms occur during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presented to A&E with malaise and fever. She was given advice about managing her symptoms and sent home. Unfortunately, the girl's condition deteriorated whilst at home and she had a cardiac arrest. Despite attempts by her family to resuscitate her, she sadly died.
You later discover that she had pneumococcal meningitis. Her past medical history reveals that she should have been immunised against pneumococcus.
As per the NHS vaccination programme, which of the following patient populations should receive the pneumococcus vaccine?Your Answer: Coeliac Disease
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Vaccination Recommendations for Specific Patient Groups
According to The Green Book, certain patient groups have specific vaccination recommendations. For example, individuals with coeliac disease and absent or dysfunctional spleens should be fully vaccinated according to the national schedule, with a particular emphasis on vaccination against pneumococcal infection and annual influenza vaccine. Patients with immune suppression due to infections such as HIV, those receiving chemotherapy or oral steroids, and those with cochlear implants may also have increased risks of contracting bacterial infections and should be vaccinated accordingly. However, patients with thyroid disease alone or those who have received a contraceptive implant are not listed on the NHS vaccination schedule. Pregnant patients are advised to wait until after giving birth to receive the pneumococcal vaccine, unless the benefits outweigh the risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these recommendations for routine immunisation and to consider them in the context of specific patient populations. This knowledge can also be useful for conducting audits in practice, such as assessing the pneumococcal vaccination rates among patients with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A father contacts the clinic regarding his 3-year-old daughter who was recently diagnosed with strep throat and prescribed antibiotics. He neglected to inquire about the duration of time she should stay home from preschool. What guidance should be provided?
Your Answer: 48 hours after commencing antibiotics
Explanation:After starting antibiotics, children with whooping cough can go back to school or nursery within 48 hours, typically with a macrolide.
A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Dr. Patel, a family physician, receives a Ted Baker wallet from a patient during the holiday season. The wallet is priced at £80 online. Dr. Patel had been extensively involved in the care of the patient who was suffering from osteoarthritis of the left shoulder. The patient required several joint injections and consultations to discuss oral analgesia. What should Dr. Patel do regarding the gift?
Your Answer: Call up the patient and kindly refuse the gift
Correct Answer: Call up the patient to thank them, accept the gift and not place the gift on the practice gift register
Explanation:According to the NHS General Medical Services Contracts Regulations 2004, GPs are required to maintain a register of gifts worth £100 or more from patients or their relatives. The register should contain details such as the name and address of the patient, the nature and estimated value of the gift, and the name of the recipient. The register must be made available to NHS England upon request. However, if the GP believes that the gift is unrelated to the services provided or is unaware of the gift, it need not be included in the register.
The GMC’s Good Medical Practice guidelines provide guidance on accepting gifts from patients. It states that doctors should not accept any gift or hospitality that may influence or appear to influence their treatment, prescription, referral, or commissioning of services for patients. Doctors should also not encourage patients to offer gifts that may benefit them directly or indirectly. However, gifts may be accepted if they do not affect the doctor’s professional judgment and if the patient or their relatives have not been pressured or influenced to offer the gift.
In this scenario, it would not be appropriate to decline the gift as it may offend the patient who is expressing gratitude for their care. It would also be unfair to ask the patient to provide cash instead of the gift. Offering longer appointment times as an advantage to patients who provide gifts would be considered unethical and unfair to other patients.
As a doctor, it is important to adhere to the guidelines set forth by the GMC. One such guideline states that doctors should not accept any gifts, inducements, or hospitality from patients, colleagues, or others that could potentially influence or be perceived to influence their treatment, prescription, referral, or commissioning of services for patients. It is crucial to maintain a professional and ethical relationship with patients, and accepting gifts can compromise this relationship. Therefore, doctors should always be mindful of the GMC’s guidance and avoid accepting any gifts that could potentially affect their judgment or decision-making.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has had intermittent heartburn and acid regurgitation over the past 10 years. He has previously had an H2 receptor antagonist and a proton pump inhibitor with good effect. He occasionally has bought preparations from the pharmacy with good effect. His body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m2 and he smokes 15 cigarettes per day. His symptoms have been worse recently and are waking him at night.
Select from the list the single management option that is likely to be most effective in bringing about a QUICK resolution of his symptoms.Your Answer: Lifestyle advice
Correct Answer: Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)
Explanation:Management of Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease-Like Symptoms
Explanation:
When a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), it is recommended to manage it as uninvestigated dyspepsia, according to NICE guidelines. This is because an endoscopy has not been carried out, and there are no red flag symptoms that require immediate referral for endoscopy.
The first step in managing GORD-like symptoms is to advise the patient on lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, dietary changes, smoking cessation, and alcohol reduction. These changes may lead to a reduction in symptoms.
In the short term, a full dose of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for one month is the most effective treatment to bring about a quick resolution of symptoms. If the patient has responded well to PPI in the past, it is likely to be effective again. Testing for H. pylori may also be an option if it has not been done previously.
After the initial treatment, a low-dose PPI as required may be appropriate for the patient. Other drugs such as H2 receptor antagonists, antacids, and prokinetics can also be used in the management of uninvestigated dyspepsia. However, they are not the first choice according to the guidelines and are less likely to be as effective as a PPI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man seeks guidance on Universal Credit benefits. He had to quit his job as an engineer due to a motorcycle accident that resulted in a fractured femur. His orthopaedic surgeon predicts that his recovery will take several months. Currently, he works part-time as a freelance web developer, earning less than £200 per month.
He resides in the UK with his wife and two young children. They have a combined savings of £30,000, and his wife is currently unemployed, taking care of their children.
What advice would you offer him regarding his eligibility for Universal Credit?Your Answer: He is eligible for Universal Credit
Correct Answer: He is not eligible for Universal Credit owing to his collective savings
Explanation:To be eligible for Universal Credit, an individual must have savings below £16,000. However, in the case of co-habiting couples, the partner’s income and savings will also be taken into consideration. It is important to note that intentionally transferring or reducing savings to increase the amount of Universal Credit received is considered deprivation of capital and will be investigated by the Department of Work and Pensions. Employment doesn’t disqualify an individual from receiving Universal Credit, as long as their earnings do not exceed the administrative earnings threshold of £338 per individual or £541 for a household. Age and marital status also do not affect eligibility for Universal Credit.
Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies
Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.
The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.
Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.
Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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Question 14
Correct
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A 41-year-old man presents to the surgery for the second time in the past month complaining of a severe sore throat. He has been prescribed a course of co-amoxiclav by your partner for suspected tonsillitis, but tells you this has had no impact on his symptoms. According to his records he has always had large tonsils and has been seen at the surgery for a number of episodes of tonsillitis over the past few years.
On examination his temperature is 37.7°C, pulse is 70 bpm and regular, BP is 122/82 mmHg. There is some cervical lymphadenopathy. There is a large erythematous nodule on the right hand side of the tonsillar bed.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Non-urgent referral for tonsillectomy
Explanation:Unilateral Tonsillar Enlargement: A Red Flag for Tonsillar Lymphoma
Unilateral tonsillar enlargement is a concerning symptom that may indicate tonsillar lymphoma. Delaying referral to an ENT specialist for biopsy can be detrimental to the patient’s health. Antibiotic therapy may not be effective in treating malignancy, and failure to respond to antibiotics may indicate underlying cancer. Patients with a history of smoking and alcohol consumption are at higher risk of tonsillar cancer, while those with recurrent tonsillitis may be more prone to tonsillar lymphoma.
Other diagnostic options, such as full blood count and viscosity, may not be abnormal in early lymphoma, and non-urgent referral can cause a delay of several weeks before review by an ENT specialist. Therefore, it is crucial to promptly refer patients with unilateral tonsillar enlargement to an ENT specialist for further evaluation.
The British Journal of General Practice (BJGP) published an article in November 2014 that provides a helpful table outlining the differences between acute tonsillitis and oropharyngeal carcinoma. This information can aid in the accurate diagnosis of tonsillar enlargement and prevent misdiagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is worried about the development of his breasts and suspects that one of his medications may be responsible.
Which of the following drugs is linked to gynaecomastia?Your Answer: Ketoconazole
Correct Answer: SSRIs
Explanation:Medications and their Side Effects
Galactorrhoea is a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), according to the British National Formulary (BNF). On the other hand, gynaecomastia is not listed as a side effect of SSRIs. Tricyclics, however, are known to cause gynaecomastia by stimulating prolactin. Another medication that can cause gynaecomastia is anabolic steroids, which are not catabolic. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerns arise. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or alleviate these side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 45-year-old man returns after he was found to have abnormal liver biochemistry. Investigations showed he had an alanine aminotransferase (ALT) of 98 iu/l and was Hep B surface-antigen positive.
Select from the list the single statement that is true of chronic hepatitis due to the hepatitis B virus.Your Answer: It carries an increased risk of subsequent hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Hepatitis B Infection
Chronic hepatitis B infection occurs in up to 10% of adults who contract the virus. This means that the virus remains in the body long-term, with the surface antigen (HBsAg) persisting in the serum. However, up to two-thirds of people in the chronic phase remain well and do not experience any liver damage or other issues. This is known as the carrier state or chronic inactive hepatitis B, where HBeAg is absent, anti-HBe is present, and HBV DNA levels are low or undetectable. While carriers can still transmit the virus, their infectivity is lower than those with chronic active hepatitis.
Around 20% of carriers will eventually clear the virus naturally, but this can take several years. However, some carriers may experience spontaneous reactivation of hepatitis B due to the emergence of the HBeAg-negative strain of the virus. The remaining individuals with chronic hepatitis B experience persistent liver inflammation, also known as chronic active hepatitis B. Symptoms can include muscle aches, fatigue, nausea, lack of appetite, intolerance to alcohol, liver pain, jaundice, and depression. HBeAg is usually still present, and the virus is still replicating, with raised HBV DNA levels and high infectivity. Transaminase levels may be elevated, but not always significantly.
If left untreated, chronic active hepatitis B can lead to cirrhosis and even hepatocellular carcinoma. It’s important to note that hepatitis D is a separate virus that only infects individuals who are already infected with hepatitis B. Understanding the different phases and potential outcomes of chronic hepatitis B infection is crucial for proper management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl has coarctation of the aorta. She was diagnosed six weeks ago. She needs to have a dental filling.
Which one of the following is correct?Your Answer: Antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Antibiotic Prophylaxis for High-Risk Patients
NICE has released new guidance regarding the use of antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients. The guidance acknowledges that patients with pre-existing cardiac lesions are at risk of developing bacterial endocarditis (IE). However, NICE has concluded that clinical and cost-effectiveness evidence supports the recommendation that at-risk patients undergoing interventional procedures should no longer be given antibiotic prophylaxis against IE.
It is important to note that antibiotic therapy is still necessary to treat active or potential infections. The current antibiotic prophylaxis regimens may even result in a net loss of life. Therefore, it is crucial to identify patient groups who may be most at risk of developing bacterial endocarditis so that prompt investigation and treatment can be undertaken. However, offering antibiotic prophylaxis for these patients during dental procedures is not considered effective. This new guidance marks a paradigm shift from current accepted practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What was the prescribing error that occurred most frequently according to the PRACtICe study published by the GMC in May 2012?
Your Answer: Generic/brand name error
Correct Answer: Contraindication error
Explanation:Key Findings from the PRACtICe Study on Prescribing Errors in General Practice
The PRACtICe study, commissioned by the GMC, has revealed important insights into prescribing errors in general practice. It is highly recommended that AKT candidates familiarize themselves with the study’s main conclusions, as it not only serves as a good source of revision for the examination but also highlights common causes of drug prescribing errors. By being aware of these errors, healthcare professionals can avoid making similar mistakes in their day-to-day practice.
The study, which runs over 250 pages, found that incomplete information on prescription errors was the most common error, occurring in 30% of cases. Contraindication errors were the second most frequent, occurring in 4.9% of cases, followed by interaction errors at 3.6%. Allergy errors occurred in 1.2% of cases, while generic/brand name errors were the least frequent, occurring in only 0.4% of cases.
Overall, the PRACtICe study provides valuable insights into prescribing errors in general practice and highlights the need for healthcare professionals to be vigilant and thorough when prescribing medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 19
Correct
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A 16-year-old female presents with a sore throat. Upon examination, she has enlarged tonsils on both sides and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. Her medical history shows that she has had six episodes of tonsillitis in the past year and has missed several days of school due to her sore throat. With a Centor score of 3/4, you decide to prescribe penicillin V. What other treatment options should be considered?
Your Answer: Refer to ENT for consideration of a tonsillectomy
Explanation:The frequency of tonsillectomies has significantly decreased in recent years due to increased recognition of the possible risks and limited advantages. Nevertheless, the patient meets the referral standards outlined by NICE.
Tonsillitis and Tonsillectomy: Complications and Indications
Tonsillitis is a condition that can lead to various complications, including otitis media, peritonsillar abscess, and, in rare cases, rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. Tonsillectomy, the surgical removal of the tonsils, is a controversial procedure that should only be considered if the person meets specific criteria. According to NICE, surgery should only be considered if the person experiences sore throats due to tonsillitis, has five or more episodes of sore throat per year, has been experiencing symptoms for at least a year, and the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning. Other established indications for a tonsillectomy include recurrent febrile convulsions, obstructive sleep apnoea, stridor, dysphagia, and peritonsillar abscess if unresponsive to standard treatment.
Despite the benefits of tonsillectomy, the procedure also carries some risks. Primary complications, which occur within 24 hours of the surgery, include haemorrhage and pain. Secondary complications, which occur between 24 hours to 10 days after the surgery, include haemorrhage (most commonly due to infection) and pain. Therefore, it is essential to weigh the benefits and risks of tonsillectomy before deciding to undergo the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient comes to you seeking advice on contraception. She has a medical history of obesity and migraines without aura. The patient is currently taking orlistat and loratadine. During her visit to your clinic, her body mass index is measured to be 27kg/m² and her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. What advice would you give her?
Your Answer: Orlistat may reduce the effectiveness of the contraceptive transdermal patch
Correct Answer: Orlistat may reduce effectiveness of oral contraception
Explanation:The effectiveness of oral contraception may be reduced by medication that causes diarrhoea or vomiting, such as orlistat or laxatives. However, loratadine doesn’t have an impact on the effectiveness of either the combined oral contraceptive pill or the progesterone-only pill. It’s worth noting that orlistat only affects oral contraception and will not reduce the effectiveness of the contraceptive transdermal patch or injection.
Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on various aspects. This includes the potential benefits and harms of the COC, such as its high effectiveness rate of over 99% when taken correctly, but also the small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, strokes, and increased risk of breast and cervical cancer. Additionally, advice on taking the pill should be provided, such as starting it within the first 5 days of the cycle to avoid the need for additional contraception, taking it at the same time every day, and considering tailored regimens that eliminate the pill-free interval. It is also important to discuss situations where efficacy may be reduced, such as vomiting or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. Finally, counselling should include information on STIs and the use of concurrent antibiotics, which may no longer require extra precautions except for enzyme-inducing antibiotics like rifampicin.
Overall, women should receive comprehensive counselling on the COC to make informed decisions about their reproductive health. This includes discussing the potential benefits and harms, advice on taking the pill, and situations where efficacy may be reduced. By providing this information, women can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and reduce the risk of unintended pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 21
Correct
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A 29-year-old man contacts his GP seeking advice for his seasonal allergic rhinitis. He has been managing his symptoms with intranasal decongestants, but lately, he has noticed that they are only partially effective. He experiences a runny nose and occasional sneezing, but there are no red flag symptoms such as unilateral obstruction or cacosmia. He has already taken the maximum dose of over-the-counter decongestants and is wondering if the GP can prescribe a higher dose.
Your Answer: Stop the intranasal decongestant
Explanation:Prolonged use of intranasal decongestants like oxymetazoline should be avoided due to the development of tachyphylaxis, where increasing doses are needed to achieve the same effect. Additionally, stopping the medication can lead to rebound symptoms known as rhinitis medicamentosa. Therefore, it is best to encourage patients to discontinue the decongestant rather than prescribing a higher dose. Oral decongestants like pseudoephedrine are not commonly prescribed due to limited evidence supporting their effectiveness. For patients with allergic rhinitis, short-term use of oral corticosteroids may be recommended for severe symptoms, but intranasal corticosteroids and antihistamines are more practical options. Patients should also be advised on self-help strategies like allergen avoidance. Referral to an ENT specialist is not necessary for most cases of allergic rhinitis, except for those with red flags, suspected structural abnormalities, diagnostic uncertainty, or persisting symptoms despite optimal primary care management.
Understanding Allergic Rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.
The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.
In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of shoulder aches that have been bothering her for several months. She finds it challenging to get up in the morning, but the pain seems to improve as the day progresses. She has also lost some weight recently, but she is otherwise healthy. She is not taking any regular medications and has no visual symptoms. On examination, there is no wasting or rash.
What is the most suitable initial management for this patient?Your Answer: Arrange a course of physiotherapy
Correct Answer: Send blood for erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), then review
Explanation:Management of Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a chronic inflammatory condition that affects elderly individuals. It presents with proximal myalgia of the hip and shoulder girdles and morning stiffness. Here are some management options for PMR:
1. Send blood for erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), then review: Inflammatory markers are characteristically raised in PMR. If the ESR is raised, it would be diagnostic of the condition and guide future management options.
2. Arrange a course of physiotherapy: Physiotherapy may be useful for this patient once the cause of her symptoms has been established and inflammatory causes of shoulder pain have been excluded.
3. Inject both shoulders with medroxyprogesterone acetate and review if no better: Medroxyprogesterone acetate is a steroid used to treat localised inflammation in joints, but would not treat the systemic disease. A blood test for ESR should be carried out to confirm this diagnosis before oral steroids are commenced for this patient.
4. Refer to rheumatology outpatients: This condition can be initially managed in general practice, with referral to rheumatology indicated if she doesn’t respond to steroid therapy.
5. Treat with oral prednisolone 60 mg od for one week, then review: Corticosteroids (ie prednisolone) are the treatment of choice for PMR. The suggested regimen is prompt relief of symptoms should occur within 24–72 hours. Gastro protection with a proton pump inhibitor and prophylactic bisphosphonates should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 23
Correct
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An 80-year-old gentleman presents with an infective exacerbation of his bronchiectasis. Following clinical assessment you decide to treat him with a course of antibiotics. He has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation for which he takes lifelong warfarin. His notes state he is penicillin allergic and the patient confirms a history of a true allergy.
You decide to prescribe a course of doxycycline, 200 mg on day 1 then 100 mg daily to complete a 14 day course.
You can see his INR is very well managed and is consistently between 2.0 and 3.0 and he has been taking 3 mg and 4 mg on alternate days for the last six months without the need for any dose changes.
What is the most appropriate management of his warfarin therapy during the treatment of this acute exacerbation?Your Answer: Check his INR three to five days after starting the doxycycline
Explanation:Managing Warfarin Patients on Antibiotics
When a patient on warfarin requires antibiotics, it is a common clinical scenario that requires careful management. While there is no need to stop warfarin or switch to aspirin, it is important to monitor the patient’s INR levels closely. Typically, extra INR monitoring should be performed three to five days after starting the antibiotics to check for any potential impact on the INR. If necessary, a dosing change for warfarin may be needed.
According to the British Committee for Standards in Haematology Guidelines for oral anticoagulation with warfarin (2011), it is important to follow specific recommendations for INR testing when a potential drug interaction occurs. By carefully monitoring INR levels and adjusting warfarin dosing as needed, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and efficacy of treatment for patients on warfarin who require antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman has been experiencing a shift in her eyesight in recent weeks. She is unable to read small text, even with her regular reading glasses. There is a constant slight blurriness in the center, and lines always appear distorted instead of straight.
Which retinal indication is most likely linked to this condition? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Drusen
Explanation:Common Retinal Abnormalities and Their Characteristics
Retinal abnormalities can cause vision problems and may be indicative of underlying health conditions. Here are some common retinal abnormalities and their characteristics:
Drusen: These are yellow or white accumulations of extracellular material that accumulate in the retina. Large numbers of drusen are a sign of age-related macular degeneration.
Disc swelling: Unilateral swelling may be due to demyelinating optic neuritis, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy, retinal vein occlusion, or diabetic papillopathy. Bilateral swelling may be due to papilloedema, toxic optic neuropathy, or malignant hypertension.
Cotton-wool spots: These appear as fluffy white patches on the retina and are caused by poor axonal metabolism due to ischaemia. Diabetes and hypertension are the two most common diseases that cause these spots.
Flame haemorrhages: These are intraretinal haemorrhages that may be ‘dot’ or ‘blot’ shaped or flame-shaped, depending on their depth within the retina. They are most commonly due to hypertension, retinal vein occlusion, and diabetes.
Vitreous haemorrhage: This occurs when blood is seen as a cloud in the vitreous. It may be an early sign of retinal tears and detachment but is most commonly seen in patients with proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
Understanding these common retinal abnormalities and their characteristics can help with early detection and treatment of underlying health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner, complaining of long-standing back pain, with no red flags. On examination, he has tenderness bilaterally in the lower lumbar area and reduced lumbar spine range of movement. He is found to be positive for human leukocyte antigen B27 (HLA-B27) antigen and an X-ray of his sacroiliac joints shows bilateral erosions.
Which single feature most supports a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis (AS) above another cause of back pain?Your Answer: Limited lumbar spine motion on physical examination
Correct Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray
Explanation:Understanding Ankylosing Spondylitis: Diagnostic Indicators and Symptoms
Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a type of inflammatory arthritis that primarily affects the spine and other joints. It is more commonly diagnosed in men aged 20-30 years. Symptoms of AS may take up to 8-10 years to become evident on an X-ray film, but when present, they are diagnostic. However, earlier in the disease course, indirect evidence of sacroiliitis and spondylitis may be detected, including sacroiliac joint tenderness and limited spinal movement, which are nonspecific. Advanced-stage AS is characterized by stiffness of the spine, kyphosis, and a stooped posture. This article discusses the diagnostic indicators and symptoms of AS, including back stiffness, limited lumbar spine motion, presence of HLA-B27 antigen, and tenderness in the lower lumbar area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is diagnosed with chronic stable angina at his Cardiology Clinic appointment. He has normal left ventricular function on echocardiogram. He presents to his General Practitioner to discuss treatment options. He has no significant medical history or regular medication but is an ex-smoker who quit 20 years ago. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/76 mmHg and his heart rate is 70 bpm.
Which of the following medications is the single most appropriate first therapy for symptom control?Your Answer: Nicardipine
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Chronic Angina Pectoris
Beta-blockers are the primary pharmacological treatment for chronic angina pectoris. They are effective in reducing the frequency and duration of anginal episodes, improving exercise tolerance, and preventing some arrhythmias. Beta-blockers work by inhibiting the effects of catecholamines on the beta-adrenergic receptor, which reduces heart rate and improves coronary perfusion. Simvastatin and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are important for secondary prevention in patients with atherosclerosis, but they do not control angina symptoms. Long-acting nitrates and rate-limiting calcium channel blockers are used for symptom control if beta-blockers are contraindicated or ineffective. However, they are typically added later in treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has been visiting the clinic multiple times in the past six months due to a persistent skin rash. She is referred to a Dermatologist, who diagnoses mycosis fungoides after conducting a biopsy of the affected area.
What is the most probable skin symptom that the patient is experiencing during the initial stages of the disease?Your Answer: Chronic patches of dermatitis
Explanation:Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma is a group of lymphoproliferative disorders that involve neoplastic T lymphocytes localizing to the skin. The most common form is mycosis fungoides, which presents as patches, plaques, or tumors on the skin. The disease can progress slowly over years or decades, mimicking benign dermatoses in its early stages. Patches may appear as erythematous pink-brown flat areas with atrophy and fine scaling, and may be non-diagnostic on biopsy. As the disease progresses, patches may become infiltrative and evolve into palpable plaques, and eventually into tumors. Sézary syndrome is a variant of T-cell lymphoma that affects the skin of the entire body, causing erythroderma. This variant has a poor prognosis, with a median survival of two to four years. Late-stage mycosis fungoides may present with ulcerated tumors and lymph node infiltration, and can spread to affect distant organs. Psoriatic-like plaques are a less likely presentation in the early stages of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 60-year-old man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and hip pain. His blood tests are shown in the table below. Other liver function tests are normal. He also complains of difficulty in hearing.
Investigation Result Normal value
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 1000 IU/l 30–150 IU/l
Adjusted calcium 2.25 mmol/l 2.12–2.65 mmol/l
Phosphate 1.2 mmol/l 0.8–1.45 mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease of Bone: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Paget’s disease of bone is a disorder of bone remodeling that typically affects individuals over the age of 40. It is often asymptomatic and is discovered through incidental findings of elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels or characteristic abnormalities on X-rays. However, classic symptoms include bone pain, deformity, deafness, and pathological fractures. Diagnosis is established by finding a raised serum alkaline phosphatase level, but normal liver function tests. Differential diagnoses include multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnoses of Paget’s disease of bone is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A middle-aged couple visits the clinic. The wife reports that her spouse has been displaying unusual behavior, specifically, constantly checking on their son throughout the day and even at night. On average, he would check around ten to twenty times. When questioned, he explains that a few months ago, he had a frightening experience where he lost his son in a crowded mall, and he keeps replaying the incident in his head. The husband avoids going to crowded places, experiences anxiety, and has trouble sleeping. There is no significant medical or psychiatric history.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
Correct Answer: Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Explanation:Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.
Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman complains of bothersome hot flashes and night sweats. She had her last menstrual period 10 months ago and has no significant medical history. Which of the following treatment options is not recommended for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Paroxetine (oral)
Correct Answer: Oestrogen (oral)
Explanation:Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, HRT, and Non-HRT Options
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for several years. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage symptoms such as hot flashes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended.
HRT is an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, but it is not suitable for everyone. Women with current or past breast cancer, any oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia should not take HRT. HRT brings certain risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer.
Non-HRT options include fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturisers for vaginal dryness, self-help groups, cognitive behaviour therapy, or antidepressants for psychological symptoms, and vaginal oestrogen for urogenital symptoms.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence in the short term. Women should be referred to secondary care if treatment has been ineffective, if there are ongoing side effects, or if there is unexplained bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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You are conducting an annual COPD review for Mrs. Patel. You quickly refer to the latest NICE guidelines.
Which of the following factors in her medical history would warrant the prescription of prophylactic antibiotics?Your Answer: He has never been referred for pulmonary rehabilitation
Correct Answer: He has had 5 exacerbations in the past year
Explanation:Patients with COPD who experience frequent exacerbations and meet specific criteria are recommended to undergo azithromycin prophylaxis. According to NICE guidelines, this treatment should be considered for non-smokers, patients who have already undergone pulmonary rehabilitation and are on the maximum inhaled therapy, and those who have had more than four exacerbations resulting in hospitalization with sputum production. Before starting the antibiotics, patients should undergo a CT scan to eliminate other lung pathologies.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A mother comes to see you about her 16-year-old daughter. She has been diagnosed with major depression and is due to see a specialist the next day.
You discuss both medical and non-medical therapies.
It is anticipated that she will need medical therapy. Which of the following drugs, if required, is most likely to be prescribed for her?Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Fluoxetine as the Only Effective Medication for Treating Depression in Children and Adolescents
According to the British National Formulary (BNF), fluoxetine is the only medication that has been proven effective in clinical trials for treating depressive illness in children and adolescents. It is important to note that medication is not typically prescribed by non-specialists in this age group. However, as a healthcare provider, it is important to have a general understanding of any specialist-initiated treatments and investigations to be able to discuss them with patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 33
Correct
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A 26-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of retrosternal burning after eating. He has no regular medication and is generally healthy. He has never smoked, but drinks 80 units of alcohol per week. Based on these factors, which is the most likely indication that he is dependent on alcohol?
Your Answer: Feels he needs more alcohol to have the same effect as it would have had last year
Explanation:Identifying Problem Drinking: Symptoms and Screening Tools
Problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and daily life. Here are some common symptoms of alcohol dependence and screening tools that can help identify problem drinking:
– Tolerance: Needing more alcohol to achieve the same effect as before.
– Craving: Strong desire to drink.
– Loss of control: Inability to stop drinking once started.
– Withdrawal symptoms: Physical symptoms when not drinking.
– AUDIT questionnaire: Comprehensive screening tool for problem drinking.
– AUDIT-C: Shortened form of AUDIT questionnaire consisting of three questions.
– CAGE questionnaire: Screening tool for problem drinking with a score of 2 or more indicating high likelihood of problem drinking.
– Excessive alcohol consumption linked to over 200 medical conditions.
– Types of alcohol consumed do not impact dependence.
– Inability to fulfill responsibilities due to alcohol consumption is a feature of problem drinking.It is important to recognize the symptoms of problem drinking and utilize screening tools to identify and address the issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 34
Correct
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You are reviewing the recent results for a 23-year-old patient in your general practice. A vaginal swab has come back positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. The patient has a history of asthma and is allergic to penicillin. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant. You have contacted the genitourinary clinic for contact tracing and treatment for her partner. What is the most suitable prescription for her treatment?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:In the case of treating Chlamydia during pregnancy, erythromycin would be the most appropriate option among the listed antibiotics. Amoxicillin, azithromycin, or erythromycin can be used to treat Chlamydia during pregnancy. However, since the patient is allergic to penicillin, amoxicillin is not suitable. Doxycycline, which is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated Chlamydia in non-pregnant individuals, is not recommended during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. Co-amoxiclav is also not appropriate for treating Chlamydia and is contraindicated in this patient due to their penicillin allergy.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 35
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents to you with a foot ulcer. He mentions that he is not fond of doctors and upon reviewing his medical history, it appears that he rarely visits the clinic. The ulcer has been present for a few months and has been gradually worsening. His wife convinced him to come to you for a check-up. He suspects that the ulcer may have developed after stepping on something at home.
Upon examination, you observe a deep, punched-out, painless ulcer on the plantar aspect of his right foot over the metatarsal heads. His foot feels warm and his dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are palpable. The skin of his feet is somewhat dry.
What is your diagnosis?Your Answer: Neuropathic ulcer
Explanation:Understanding Neuropathic Ulcers
Neuropathic ulcers are a type of ulcer that typically occur on the underside of the foot at a bony prominence such as the metatarsal heads. They are often painless and can be described as a punched-out ulcer that occurs on a pressure area. A history of trauma is often elicited, and the foot is usually well perfused with peripheral pulses that are palpable.
The most common cause of neuropathic ulceration is diabetes, and it is important to check for fasting glucose levels. Clinicians should also formally test for sensory deficit in the foot using a 10 g monofilament and tuning fork.
Arterial ulcers, on the other hand, are due to poor arterial blood supply and are not typically described as painless with warm feet and palpable pulses. Venous ulceration is largely due to chronic venous insufficiency that causes venous hypertension and most commonly occurs around the medial malleolus. The typical ulcer edge is irregular and sloping.
It is important to differentiate neuropathic ulcers from other types of ulcers, such as Marjolin’s ulcer, which is a squamous cell carcinoma that occurs in a chronic ulcer or scar, and rodent ulcer or basal cell carcinoma (BCC), which typically occurs in sun-exposed sites such as the face. Nodulocystic BCCs show ulceration and are pearlescent with rolled edges and overlying telangiectasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 36
Incorrect
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You are considering implementing electronic protocol based care pathways at your clinic for some common conditions. You plan to introduce them for patients of all ages.
Which of the following statements is true about electronic protocol based care pathways?Your Answer: Good protocols should define the exact circumstance in which they should be used
Correct Answer: Protocols inevitably lead to the dumbing down of medicine
Explanation:The Benefits of Using Protocols in Healthcare
Good protocols are essential in healthcare as they define the exact circumstances in which they should be used. They can be helpful regardless of the grade of the staff using them and do not necessarily lead to dumbing down. In fact, clinicians who actively follow protocols may improve their knowledge and the level of care they provide. It is important to note that not all aspects of care can be recorded or controlled by protocols, but they can still be a valuable tool in enhancing confidence and career development. The course of a condition doesn’t have to be entirely predictable before a protocol can be used. By using protocols, standards, policies, and guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide consistent and effective care to their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 37
Correct
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A visit is requested for a 49-year-old man with Huntington’s dementia who is unwell, with a 3-month history of progressive weight loss, lethargy and cough. The patient made an advance decision to refuse treatment (ADRT) nine years ago when he was diagnosed with Huntington’s, refusing hospital treatment. Chest X-rays and intravenous antibiotics are included as treatments he would refuse in his ADRT. He is now uncommunicative, but his sister who is his next of kin is present and says that the advance directive is not valid as he was depressed and emotional when he made it and begs for acute admission as she feels her brother is uncomfortable and should not be left like this.
What is the most appropriate course of action to take?Your Answer: Refer the patient to the community palliative care team
Explanation:Understanding the Importance of Advanced Decisions in Medical Care
When a patient loses capacity to make decisions about their medical care, it is important to have a plan in place to guide decision-making. One such plan is an Advanced Decision to Refuse Treatment (ADRT), which is a legal document that sets out a patient’s wishes for medical treatment in the event that they are unable to make decisions for themselves.
It is important to note that an ADRT is legally binding and cannot be overruled. This means that healthcare professionals must respect the patient’s wishes as set out in the ADRT, even if family members or others disagree with those wishes.
In cases where there is doubt over the validity of an ADRT or where there is conflict between family members, it may be helpful to seek advice from a medical defence union or an Independent Medical Capacity Advocate (IMCA). However, ultimately, the patient’s wishes as set out in the ADRT must be the guiding principle in decision-making.
By understanding the importance of advanced decisions in medical care, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive the care they want and deserve, even when they are no longer able to make decisions for themselves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old girl presents with diarrhoea and vomiting. She has vomited twice and had about four diarrhoea stools in the previous 24 h. There is no obvious sign of dehydration. She was born at 37 weeks’ gestation with a low birthweight but has gained weight adequately since then.
What is the most appropriate next management choice?Your Answer: Breastfeeding should cease
Correct Answer: Oral rehydration salt solution should be given
Explanation:Managing Gastroenteritis in Children: Importance of Oral Rehydration Salt Solution
Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, which can lead to dehydration if not managed properly. While most children do not show signs of dehydration, those at increased risk should be given oral rehydration salt solution as supplemental fluid. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), children at increased risk include infants younger than one year, those who have passed more than five loose stools or vomited more than twice in the previous 24 hours, and those with signs of malnutrition.
It is important to note that feeding with formula or breast milk should continue if the child can tolerate it. Solid food should not be given, and fruit juices or carbonated drinks should be avoided due to their high osmolarity. While extra fluid intake should generally be encouraged, it may not be enough for children with multiple risk factors for dehydration. Therefore, oral rehydration salt solution should be given as recommended by healthcare professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A young female patient in her early twenties comes to see you in surgery and you notice that she is taking the oral contraceptive pill.
In which one of the following conditions, occurring in isolation, would you consider stopping her pill immediately?Your Answer: Blood pressure 120 diastolic
Correct Answer: Body mass index of 30 kg/m2
Explanation:Understanding Contraception Cautions and Reasons for Stopping the Pill
Contraception questions are common in the MRCGP exam, but candidates often make mistakes by not carefully reading the question. To answer these questions correctly, it is important to understand the reasons for immediately stopping the pill and paying attention to specific details in the options.
For instance, a blood pressure reading of over 160/100 would be a reason to stop taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. However, age 35, family history of arterial disease, and migraine controlled as above are cautions and would not be a reason alone to stop the pill. It is only necessary to stop the pill if more than one caution applies.
Additionally, a cough would only be relevant if the patient is coughing blood-stained sputum, in which case she should stop taking the pill. By understanding these cautions and reasons for stopping the pill, candidates can improve their chances of answering contraception questions correctly on the MRCGP exam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 40
Incorrect
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You are treating a group of teenagers for head lice after a live head louse is found in one of them. You are giving some general advice. Which of the following is appropriate advice to give?
Your Answer: Head lice have a preference for dirty hair so wash hair daily
Correct Answer: Children who are being treated for head lice can still attend school
Explanation:Understanding Head Lice: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Head lice, also known as pediculosis capitis or ‘nits’, is a common condition in children caused by a parasitic insect called Pediculus capitis. These small insects live only on humans and feed on our blood. The eggs, which are grey or brown and about the size of a pinhead, are glued to the hair close to the scalp and hatch in 7 to 10 days. Nits, on the other hand, are the empty egg shells and are white and shiny. They are found further along the hair shaft as they grow out.
Head lice are spread by direct head-to-head contact and tend to be more common in children who play closely together. It is important to note that head lice cannot jump, fly, or swim. When newly infected, cases have no symptoms, but itching and scratching on the scalp occur 2 to 3 weeks after infection. There is no incubation period.
To diagnose head lice, fine-toothed combing of wet or dry hair is necessary. Treatment is only indicated if living lice are found. A choice of treatments should be offered, including malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate, and cyclomethicone. Household contacts of patients with head lice do not need to be treated unless they are also affected. It is important to note that school exclusion is not advised for children with head lice.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of head lice is crucial in preventing its spread. By taking the necessary precautions and seeking appropriate treatment, we can effectively manage this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has two sons, the youngest of whom has Down syndrome. During a consultation for a different issue, she brings up that her eldest son is considering having children and she is concerned about the possibility of passing on Down syndrome. What is the most frequent genotypic abnormality observed in Down syndrome?
Your Answer: Mosaicism
Correct Answer: Extra chromosome
Explanation:Understanding the Genetic Basis of Down Syndrome
Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 700 births. The majority of cases (over 90%) are caused by trisomy 21, which occurs when there is an extra copy of chromosome 21. This is due to a mistake in cell division during the formation of the egg or sperm cell that leads to the zygote having three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two.
Contrary to popular belief, Down syndrome is not caused by an abnormal gene. Rather, it is a chromosomal disorder that is not inherited in the traditional sense. However, in rare cases (about 3.5%), Down syndrome can be caused by a translocation of chromosome 21, where a piece of the chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome. This can be inherited from a parent who is a balanced translocation carrier, meaning they have no extra chromosome 21 themselves but have a piece of it attached to another chromosome.
Another rare form of Down syndrome is mosaic trisomy 21, which occurs when nondisjunction (the failure of chromosomes to separate properly) happens after fertilization during early cell division. This results in some cells having the normal number of chromosomes while others have an extra chromosome 21. People with mosaic Down syndrome may have milder disabilities and less obvious physical features.
Understanding the genetic basis of Down syndrome is important for families and healthcare providers to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Which of the following does NHS offer routine screening for?
Your Answer: Ovarian cancer
Correct Answer: Abdominal aortic aneurysm
Explanation:The NHS operates various screening programs, with all men being offered an ultrasound scan to screen for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) in the year they turn 65. The UK National Screening Committee evaluates evidence to determine which conditions should be screened for. Some conditions, such as prostate cancer, glaucoma, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia, are currently under review but are not yet part of routine screening. It is important to note that the NHS recommends a Prostate cancer ‘risk management’ program rather than a screening program. Men can request screening with a PSA test after receiving counseling, but they are not routinely invited for screening.
Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms
Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins in the extracellular matrix fail, causing the arterial wall to dilate. This is typically caused by degenerative disease and can be identified by a diameter of 3 cm or greater. The development of aneurysms is complex and involves the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration.
Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. It is important to understand the underlying causes and risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms in order to prevent and treat this potentially life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman, who works as a croupier and is typically in good health, woke up 3 weeks ago with weakness in her left hand. She experienced numbness at the base of the thumb on the dorsum of the hand. She takes the oral contraceptive pill. She drinks alcohol in binges, one of which occurred the night before her symptoms started, and smokes 15 cigarettes per day. She has a normal general examination, normal cranial nerves and normal muscle tone, but mild weakness of the left brachioradialis and moderate weakness of wrist and finger extension. She has full power in her other arm muscles, including elbow extension. Reflexes are normal.
What is the most likely lesion causing her symptoms?Your Answer: Ulnar nerve
Correct Answer: Radial nerve at the spiral groove
Explanation:Understanding Saturday Night Palsy: Causes, Symptoms, and Differential Diagnosis
Saturday night palsy is a condition that occurs when the radial nerve is compressed at the spiral groove of the humerus, usually due to falling asleep with one’s arm hanging over the armrest of a chair. This compression causes weakness in radial-innervated muscles distal to the site of the lesion and sensory loss due to conduction block in the radial nerve. While not all radial-innervated muscles may be affected, a history of abnormal sleeping or stupor the night before is often reported.
When diagnosing Saturday night palsy, it’s important to consider other potential causes of weakness and sensory disturbance. A cerebral infarction is a possible differential, but the focal pattern of weakness and sensory disturbance and normal reflex pattern make this less likely. The ulnar nerve supplies different muscles and sensory territory, while a posterior interosseous nerve lesion is unlikely due to involvement of muscles outside its territory. A C7 radiculopathy is also unlikely because the triceps was not involved and the brachioradialis (C5, 6) was affected.
In summary, understanding the causes, symptoms, and differential diagnosis of Saturday night palsy is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the DS1600 form is correct?
Your Answer: Must be completed by the patient's General Practitioner (or another doctor at the same surgery)
Correct Answer: Contains a question about whether the patient is aware of their diagnosis
Explanation:Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.
Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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Question 45
Correct
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A 25-year-old university student comes to the GP clinic complaining of right eye pain, photophobia, and reduced visual acuity that started a day ago. During the examination, fluorescein staining showed a dendritic ulcer on the cornea. The patient wears contact lenses every day but has not been able to since the symptoms began.
What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?Your Answer: Immediate referral to an ophthalmologist
Explanation:If there is suspicion of herpes simplex keratitis, an immediate referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary. This is especially important if there is a dendritic corneal ulcer present. While topical acyclovir is the treatment for herpes simplex keratitis, the urgent specialist referral should be the next step in management. Chloramphenicol and itraconazole are not effective treatments for this condition. Eye lubricants and analgesia alone are not sufficient management options.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that primarily affects the cornea and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis.
One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A patient in their 20s presents with alcohol problems.
This is long standing and they have struggled for many years. They have an allocated worker but feel they need something different. They ask about AA (Alcoholics Anonymous) and about drinking in the long term.
Which one of the following best represents AA advice regarding future alcohol consumption?Your Answer: The AA advocate Lifelong total abstinence from alcohol
Correct Answer: Alcoholics Anonymous suggests that once in 'recovery' the alcoholic can resume social drinking
Explanation:Alcoholics Anonymous: A Global Organisation for Abstinence
Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is a non-governmental organisation that is solely funded by its own membership. Its message is one of total abstinence from alcohol, and it has a worldwide presence. Members meet regularly, sometimes daily, to share their experiences and support each other in their journey towards sobriety. The only requirement for membership is a desire to stop drinking alcohol.
AA’s 12-step recovery programme is based on self-reliance and has been emulated by other organisations such as Narcotics Anonymous (NA). It can be highly effective for individuals struggling with addiction. However, AA doesn’t advocate for a return to social or moderate drinking after recovery from alcoholism.
Overall, Alcoholics Anonymous provides a supportive community for individuals seeking to overcome their addiction to alcohol and maintain sobriety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Samantha is an 85-year-old with colorectal cancer receiving palliative care. She contacts the surgery seeking guidance on the DS1500 form. What benefits does this form provide for Samantha?
Your Answer: Entitled to high rate of attendance allowance following means testing
Correct Answer: Entitlement to high rate of attendance allowance if prognosis less than 6 months and priority in processing application.
Explanation:If the patient’s prognosis is less than 6 months due to a terminal illness, she is entitled to apply for attendance allowance (AA) using the DS1500 form. Her application will be given priority and processed quickly under special provisions. Additionally, she will receive the benefit at the highest rate.
Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.
Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose following a recent break-up. He has entered into a new relationship but is struggling with frequent outbursts of anger. The patient has a history of childhood abuse and struggles with maintaining healthy relationships. He reports experiencing frequent mood swings between low and elevated states. The overdose was not premeditated and the patient has a history of similar incidents. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The young woman who overdosed on paracetamol after breaking up with her boyfriend is now in a new relationship that is plagued by her frequent angry outbursts, indicating borderline personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by rapidly changing intense emotions, difficulties in maintaining relationships, feelings of emptiness, fear of abandonment, impulsive behavior, and self-harm. Bipolar affective disorder is not the correct diagnosis as it involves periods of depression and mania, which are not reported in this case. Dependent personality disorder and histrionic personality disorder are also not applicable as they have different symptoms such as low confidence, difficulty making decisions without support, and a need for attention.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with a history of polymyalgia rheumatica has been taking prednisolone 10 mg for the past 6 months. A DEXA scan shows the following results:
L2 T-score -1.6 SD
Femoral neck T-score -1.7 SD
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin D + calcium supplementation + oral bisphosphonate
Explanation:Supplementation of vitamin D and calcium along with oral bisphosphonate.
Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids
Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.
The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.
The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of sudden vision loss in his right eye. He reports no other symptoms. Which of the following conditions is the least probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optic neuritis
Explanation:Optic neuritis is unlikely in a 62-year-old man with sudden loss of vision. Symptoms usually include gradual loss of vision in one eye, poor color discrimination, and eye pain with movement.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, but it can be caused by a variety of factors. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, temporary loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues, vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, can be caused by a wide range of factors such as thrombosis, embolism, temporal arteritis, and hypoperfusion. It may also represent a form of transient ischaemic attack (TIA) and should be treated similarly with aspirin 300 mg. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries.
Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, and hypertension. Severe retinal haemorrhages are usually seen on fundoscopy. Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is due to thromboembolism or arteritis and features include afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, and anticoagulants. Features may include sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also symptoms of posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between these conditions can be done by observing the specific symptoms such as a veil or curtain over the field of vision, straight lines appearing curved, and central visual loss. Large bleeds can cause sudden visual loss, while small bleeds may cause floaters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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