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Question 1
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s was diagnosed with disease of a heart valve located between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta. Which of the following is most likely to describe the cusps that comprise this heart valve?
Your Answer: Anterior, posterior and septal cusps
Correct Answer: Right, left and posterior cusps
Explanation:Different Cusps of Heart Valves
The heart has four valves that regulate blood flow through the chambers. Each valve is composed of cusps, which are flaps that open and close to allow blood to pass through. Here are the different cusps of each heart valve:
Aortic Valve: The aortic valve is made up of a right, left, and posterior cusp. It is located at the junction between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta.
Mitral Valve: The mitral valve is usually the only bicuspid valve and is composed of anterior and posterior cusps. It is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
Tricuspid Valve: The tricuspid valve has three cusps – anterior, posterior, and septal. It is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
Pulmonary Valve: The pulmonary valve is made up of right, left, and anterior cusps. It is located at the junction between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
Understanding the different cusps of heart valves is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You are asked to see a 63-year-old man who has been admitted overnight following a road traffic accident. He sustained extensive bruising to his chest from the steering wheel. The nurses are concerned as he has become hypotensive and tachycardic. There is a history of a previous inferior myocardial infarction some 7 years ago, but nil else of note. On examination his BP is 90/50 mmHg, pulse is 95/min and regular. He looks peripherally shut down. There are muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus.
Investigations – arterial blood gas - reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
pH 7.29 7.35–7.45
pO2 11.9 kPa 11.2–14.0 kPa
pCO2 6.1 kPa 4.7–6.0 kPa
ECG Widespread anterior T wave inversion
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: NSTEMI
Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypotension, Tachycardia, and Muffled Heart Sounds Following a Road Traffic Accident: Cardiac Tamponade, Myocarditis, NSTEMI, Pericarditis, and STEMI
A 67-year-old man presents with hypotension, tachycardia, and poor peripheral perfusion following a road traffic accident with a steering wheel injury. On examination, muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus are noted, and an ECG shows widespread anterior T-wave inversion. The patient has a history of inferior wall MI seven years ago. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals respiratory acidosis.
The differential diagnosis includes cardiac tamponade, myocarditis, NSTEMI, pericarditis, and STEMI. While myocarditis can cause similar symptoms and ECG changes, the presence of muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus suggests fluid in the pericardium and cardiac tamponade. NSTEMI and STEMI can also cause acute onset of symptoms and ECG changes, but the absence of ST elevation and the history of trauma make cardiac tamponade more likely. Pericarditis can cause muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus, but the absence of peripheral hypoperfusion and the presence of non-specific ST-T changes on ECG make it less likely.
In conclusion, the clinical scenario is most consistent with traumatic cardiac tamponade, which requires urgent echocardiography for confirmation and possible guided pericardiocentesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old man passed away from a massive middle cerebral artery stroke. He had no previous medical issues. Upon autopsy, it was discovered that his heart weighed 400 g and had normal valves and coronary arteries. The atria and ventricles were not enlarged. The right ventricular walls were normal, while the left ventricular wall was uniformly hypertrophied to 20-mm thickness. What is the probable reason for these autopsy results?
Your Answer: Tuberculous pericarditis
Correct Answer: Essential hypertension
Explanation:Differentiating Cardiac Conditions: Causes and Risks
Cardiac conditions can have varying causes and risks, making it important to differentiate between them. Essential hypertension, for example, is characterized by uniform left ventricular hypertrophy and is a major risk factor for stroke. On the other hand, atrial fibrillation is a common cause of stroke but does not cause left ventricular hypertrophy and is rarer with normal atrial size. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which is more common in men and often has a familial tendency, typically causes asymmetric hypertrophy of the septum and apex and can lead to arrhythmogenic or unexplained sudden cardiac death. Dilated cardiomyopathies, such as idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy, often have no clear precipitant but cause a dilated left ventricular size, increasing the risk for a mural thrombus and an embolic risk. Finally, tuberculous pericarditis is difficult to diagnose due to non-specific features such as cough, dyspnoea, sweats, and weight loss, with typical constrictive pericarditis findings being very late features with fluid overload and severe dyspnoea. Understanding the causes and risks associated with these cardiac conditions can aid in their proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain. He has a medical history of angina, hypertension, high cholesterol, and is a current smoker. Upon arrival, a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is conducted, revealing ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:ECG Changes and Localisation of Infarct in Coronary Artery Disease
Patients with chest pain and multiple risk factors for cardiac disease require prompt evaluation to determine the underlying cause. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes can help localise the infarct to a particular territory, which can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
Inferior infarcts are often due to lesions in the right coronary artery, as evidenced by ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. However, in 20% of cases, this can also be caused by an occlusion of a dominant left circumflex artery.
Lateral infarcts involve branches of the left anterior descending (LAD) and left circumflex arteries, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads I, aVL, and V5-6. It is unusual for a lateral STEMI to occur in isolation, and it usually occurs as part of a larger territory infarction.
Anterior infarcts are caused by blockage of the LAD artery, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads V1-V6.
Blockage of the right marginal artery does not have a specific pattern of ECG changes associated with it, and it is not one of the major coronary vessels.
In summary, understanding the ECG changes associated with different coronary arteries can aid in localising the infarct and guiding appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain. The pain is exacerbated by lying down, relieved by sitting forward, and radiates to the left shoulder. He has recently undergone two cycles of radiotherapy for prostate cancer. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm, which appears to fade on inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals low-voltage QRS complexes.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this condition?Your Answer: DC cardioversion
Correct Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid using a 20 ml syringe and 18G needle under echocardiographic guidance. An ECG should be obtained to rule out MI and PE. GTN spray is used to manage MI, but it is not part of the treatment for tamponade. DC cardioversion is used for unstable cardiac arrhythmias, not tamponade. A fluid challenge with 1 liter of sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the tamponade. LMWH is used to manage pulmonary embolus, but it is not appropriate for tamponade and may worsen the condition if the cause is haemopericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 42-year-old man felt dizzy at work and later had a rhythm strip (lead II) performed in the Emergency Department. It reveals one P wave for every QRS complex and a PR interval of 240 ms.
What does this rhythm strip reveal?Your Answer: First-degree heart block
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Heart Block
Heart block is a condition where the electrical signals that control the heartbeat are disrupted, leading to an abnormal heart rhythm. There are different types of heart block, each with its own characteristic features.
First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval, but with a 1:1 ratio of P waves to QRS complexes. This type of heart block is usually asymptomatic and does not require treatment.
Second-degree heart block can be further divided into two types: Mobitz type 1 and Mobitz type 2. Mobitz type 1, also known as Wenckebach’s phenomenon, is characterized by a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a QRS complex is dropped. Mobitz type 2, on the other hand, is characterized by intermittent P waves that fail to conduct to the ventricles, leading to intermittent dropped QRS complexes. This type of heart block often progresses to complete heart block.
Complete heart block, also known as third-degree heart block, occurs when there is no association between P waves and QRS complexes. The ventricular rate is often slow, reflecting a ventricular escape rhythm as the ventricles are no longer controlled by the sinoatrial node pacemaker. This type of heart block requires immediate medical attention.
Understanding the different types of heart block is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any symptoms of heart block, such as dizziness, fainting, or chest pain, seek medical attention right away.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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What hormone does the heart produce under stressed conditions?
Your Answer: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
Explanation:The cardiovascular system relies on a complex network of hormones and signaling molecules to regulate blood pressure, fluid balance, and other physiological processes. Here are some key players in this system:
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP): This hormone is secreted by the ventricle in response to stretch, and levels are elevated in heart failure.
Angiotensin II: This hormone is produced mostly in the lungs where angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) concentrations are maximal.
C-type natriuretic peptide: This signaling molecule is produced by the endothelium, and not the heart.
Nitric oxide: This gasotransmitter is released tonically from all endothelial lined surfaces, including the heart, in response to both flow and various agonist stimuli.
Renin: This enzyme is released from the kidney, in response to reductions in blood pressure, increased renal sympathetic activity or reduced sodium and chloride delivery to the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Understanding the roles of these hormones and signaling molecules is crucial for managing cardiovascular health and treating conditions like heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the most accurate statement regarding the electrocardiograph?
Your Answer: A 2-mm ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF, V4 and V5 is consistent with an anterior myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: ST depression and tall R waves in leads V1 and V2 are consistent with a diagnosis of a posterior myocardial infarction
Explanation:Common ECG Findings and Their Significance
Electrocardiogram (ECG) is a valuable tool in diagnosing various cardiac conditions. Here are some common ECG findings and their significance:
1. ST depression and tall R waves in leads V1 and V2 are consistent with a diagnosis of a posterior myocardial infarction.
2. Pneumonia causes low-voltage QRS complexes. This can be caused by the dampening effect of extra layers of fat, fluid, or air between the heart and thoracic wall.
3. The corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated by Bazett’s formula: QTc = QT interval ÷ square root of the RR interval (in seconds).
4. A 2-mm ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF, V4, and V5 is consistent with an anterior myocardial infarction. This suggests an inferior lateral infarction, as opposed to just an inferior myocardial infarction.
5. The S1Q3T3 pattern is seen in up to 20% of patients with a pulmonary embolism. Sinus tachycardia is the most common ECG abnormality seen in patients presenting with pulmonary emboli. Other potential findings include a right ventricular strain pattern, complete and incomplete right bundle branch block (RBBB), and P pulmonale indicating right atrial enlargement.
Understanding these common ECG findings can aid in the diagnosis and management of various cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Various cardiac diseases necessitate the use of pacemakers to maintain regular heartbeats and sustain the patient's life. The following are three types of pacemakers, labeled 1-3: AAI, VVI, and DDD. Can you correctly match each pacemaker to the condition it is typically used to treat?
Your Answer: AAI – AF; VVI – sinus node dysfunction; DDD – first-degree heart block
Correct Answer: AAI – sinus node dysfunction; VVI – AF; DDD – second-degree heart block
Explanation:Understanding Pacemaker Coding and Indications
Pacemakers are electronic devices that are implanted in the chest to regulate the heartbeat. They are used to treat a variety of heart conditions, including sinus node dysfunction, atrial fibrillation (AF), and heart block. Pacemakers are coded based on the chambers they pace, sense, and respond to, as well as their ability to modulate heart rate and provide multisite pacing.
AAI pacemakers are used to pace the atria in patients with sinus node dysfunction and intact AV conduction. VVI pacemakers are used in patients with chronic atrial impairment, such as AF. DDD pacemakers are used to pace both the atria and ventricles in patients with second-degree heart block.
It is important to note that AAI pacemakers would not be effective in treating ventricular systolic dysfunction, and DDD pacemakers cannot be used in the treatment of long QT syndrome. However, pacemakers can be used in long QT syndrome if clinically necessary, and DDD pacing may be appropriate for some patients with first-degree heart block.
In summary, understanding pacemaker coding and indications is crucial for selecting the appropriate device for each patient’s unique heart condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old moderately obese man is brought to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe chest pain and shortness of breath. Upon physical examination, a pericardial tamponade is suspected and confirmed by an electrocardiogram (ECG) showing total electrical alternans and an echocardiogram revealing pericardial effusion. Which jugular vein is typically the most reliable indicator of central venous pressure (CVP)?
Your Answer: Right internal
Explanation:The Best Vein for Measuring Central Venous Pressure
Pericardial tamponade can lead to compression of the heart by the pericardium, resulting in decreased intracardiac diastolic pressure and reduced blood flow to the right atrium. This can cause distension of the jugular veins, making the right internal jugular vein the best vein for measuring central venous pressure (CVP). Unlike the right external vein, which joins the right internal vein at an oblique angle, the right internal vein has a straight continuation with the right brachiocephalic vein and the superior vena cava, making CVP measurement more accurate. On the other hand, the left internal jugular vein makes an oblique union with the left brachiocephalic vein and the external jugular veins, making it a less reliable indicator of CVP. Similarly, the left external vein also joins the left internal vein at an oblique angle, making CVP reading less reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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