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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man with a history of atopic eczema and contact dermatitis experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of atopic eczema and contact dermatitis experiences worsening of his dermatitis due to irritants at work. What is the most frequent irritant that leads to contact dermatitis?

      Your Answer: Latex

      Correct Answer: Soap and cleaning agents

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Contact Dermatitis

      Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that occurs when the skin comes into contact with an irritant or allergen. The most common causes of contact dermatitis include soap and cleaning agents, which can affect people in various fields, especially cleaners and healthcare workers. Wet work is also a significant cause of dermatitis. Latex, particularly in the form of latex-powdered gloves, used to be a common irritant, but the use of latex-free gloves has reduced its occurrence. Nickel found in jewelry can cause a localized reaction, but it is less common than dermatitis caused by soap and cleaning products. Acrylics can also cause contact dermatitis, but they are less common than other irritants. Natural fibers like cotton are less likely to cause a dermatitis reaction compared to synthetic fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week history of intense itching. Papules and burrows can be seen between his fingers.
      What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Permethrin 5% preparation

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies and Head Lice

      Scabies is a skin condition characterized by intense itching and visible burrows in the finger webs. The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, which should be applied to all household members and followed by washing of bedding and towels. If permethrin cannot be used due to allergy, malathion 0.5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment. Benzyl benzoate 25% emulsion is an older treatment for scabies and has been replaced by more effective methods.

      On the other hand, head lice can be treated with permethrin 1%, which is not strong enough for scabies treatment. It is important to note that ivermectin 200 µg/kg orally is only used for crusted scabies, which causes a generalized rash with lots of scale. Topical permethrin remains the ideal treatment for scabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old obese woman had a deep venous thrombosis several years ago. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old obese woman had a deep venous thrombosis several years ago. She has an ulcer over the left medial malleolus with fibrosis and purpura of the surrounding skin.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A venous ulcer

      Explanation:

      Understanding Venous Leg Ulcers: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Venous leg ulcers are a common condition in the UK, accounting for approximately 3% of new cases seen in dermatological clinics. These ulcers are more prevalent in patients who are obese, have a history of varicose veins, or have experienced deep vein thrombosis. The underlying cause of venous leg ulcers is venous stasis, which leads to an increase in capillary pressure, fibrin deposits, and poor oxygenation of the skin. This, in turn, can result in poorly nourished skin and minor trauma, leading to ulceration.

      Treatment for venous leg ulcers focuses on reducing exudates and promoting healing using dressings such as Granuflex® or Sorbisan®. Compression bandaging is the primary treatment option, and preventive therapy may include weight loss, wearing support stockings, or surgical treatment of varicose veins.

      It is important to note that other conditions may present with similar symptoms, such as absent pulses, widespread purpura on the legs, injury, or diabetes. Therefore, a proper diagnosis is crucial to ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A healthy 26-year-old archaeologist has been experiencing an itchy, raised erythematous rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 26-year-old archaeologist has been experiencing an itchy, raised erythematous rash on his forearms for the past 2 weeks. Loratadine has provided some relief for the itch, and occasionally the rash disappears within a few hours. However, in the last day, the rash has spread to his back and loratadine is no longer effective. The patient has no known allergies or triggers and is feeling well otherwise. What should be the next course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of an oral corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      It is likely that the patient is experiencing a severe urticarial rash, which is a common condition that doesn’t require a dermatology appointment or further investigations at this stage. The patient is stable and not showing signs of anaphylaxis. To investigate further, a symptom diary would be sufficient, especially with exposure to different work environments as an archaeologist. The first-line treatment would be a non-sedating antihistamine such as loratadine or cetirizine. However, if the urticaria is severe, as in this case, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary.

      Urticaria is a condition characterized by the swelling of the skin, either locally or generally. It is commonly caused by an allergic reaction, although non-allergic causes are also possible. The affected skin appears pale or pink and is raised, resembling hives, wheals, or nettle rash. It is also accompanied by itching or pruritus. The first-line treatment for urticaria is non-sedating antihistamines, while prednisolone is reserved for severe or resistant cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old male visits the nearby sexual health clinic with a concern. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male visits the nearby sexual health clinic with a concern. He has a sizable, keratinised genital wart on the shaft of his penis that has been there for approximately three months. Due to embarrassment, he has delayed seeking medical attention. What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryotherapy

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of genital warts, cryotherapy is recommended for solitary, keratinised warts, while topical podophyllum is suggested for multiple, non-keratinised warts. As the wart is keratinised, cryotherapy should be the first choice of treatment.

      Understanding Genital Warts

      Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.

      The warts themselves are small, fleshy growths that are typically 2-5 mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can also cause itching or bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is typically used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on her face.
      Which of the following factors is most important in determining her prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thickness of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lentigo Maligna: Early Stage Melanoma

      Lentigo maligna is a type of melanoma that is in its early stages and is confined to the epidermis. It is often referred to as ‘in situ’ melanoma. This type of melanoma typically appears as a flat, slowly growing, freckle-like lesion on the facial or sun-exposed skin of patients in their 60s or older. Over time, it can extend to several centimetres and eventually change into an invasive malignant melanoma.

      To identify lentigo maligna, the ABCDE rule can be used. This rule stands for Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving. If there is a change in size, outline, colour, surface, contour, or elevation of the lesion, malignant change should be suspected. Lentigo maligna spreads via the lymphatics, and satellite lesions are commonly seen.

      The prognosis of lentigo maligna is directly related to the thickness of the tumour assessed at histological examination. The thickness is measured using the Breslow thickness or Clark level of invasion. The site of the lesion also affects the prognosis. Patients with lesions on the trunk fare better than those with facial lesions but worse than those with lesions on the limbs.

      In conclusion, understanding lentigo maligna is crucial in identifying and treating early-stage melanoma. Regular skin checks and following the ABCDE rule can help detect any changes in the skin and prevent the progression of lentigo maligna into invasive malignant melanoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old woman comes to you with an itchy rash on both hands,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman comes to you with an itchy rash on both hands, anterior aspects of both elbows, axillae and groins. Other residents in her nursing home have reported experiencing similar symptoms.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Scabies, Henoch-Schönlein Purpura, Psoriasis, Pemphigus Vulgaris, and Bullous Pemphigoid

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, resulting in a pruritic eruption with a characteristic distribution pattern. Permethrin-containing lotions are the treatment. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a form of vasculitis, while psoriasis is characterized by plaques over extensor surfaces. Pemphigus vulgaris may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions, and bullous pemphigoid involves the flexural areas and may be associated with a new medication. It is important to consider the specific symptoms and distribution patterns of each condition to accurately diagnose and treat them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During a thorough skin examination, a darkly pigmented macule is observed on the palmar side of his left index finger. The lesion measures approximately 4 mm in size and displays poorly defined, irregular borders with an irregular pigment network on dermoscopy. No other pigmented lesions are detected on the patient. He has never noticed it before and is uncertain if it is evolving.

      What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acral lentiginous melanoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s atypical lesion, with three of the five following characteristics, suggests a diagnosis of melanoma. The most common subtype in this patient population is acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur in areas not exposed to the sun, such as the soles of the feet and palms.

      It is unlikely that the lesion is an acquired or congenital naevus. New-onset pigmented lesions in patients over 50 should always be referred to a dermatologist for assessment. Congenital naevi are present at birth and the patient would have a long history with them.

      Nodular melanoma is less likely in this case, as it typically presents as dark papules on sun-exposed areas of skin in the Caucasian population.

      While superficial spreading melanoma is a possibility, a dark-skinned patient with a lesion on the palmar hand or soles of the feet is more likely to have acral lentiginous melanoma.

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.

      The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - An 72-year-old woman contacts her doctor suspecting shingles. The rash started about 48...

    Incorrect

    • An 72-year-old woman contacts her doctor suspecting shingles. The rash started about 48 hours ago and is localized to the T4 dermatome on her right trunk. It is accompanied by pain and blistering. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently on metformin, canagliflozin, and atorvastatin. After confirming the diagnosis of shingles through photo review, the doctor prescribes aciclovir. What measures can be taken to prevent post-herpetic neuralgia in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiviral treatment

      Explanation:

      Antiviral therapy, such as aciclovir, can effectively reduce the severity and duration of shingles. It can also lower the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia, especially in older patients. However, for antivirals to be effective, they must be administered within 72 hours of rash onset.

      Individuals with chronic diseases such as diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, inflammatory bowel disease, asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune diseases, and immunosuppressive conditions like HIV are at a higher risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia.

      Older patients, particularly those over 50 years old, are also at an increased risk of developing post-herpetic neuralgia. However, the relationship between gender and post-herpetic neuralgia is still unclear, with some studies suggesting that females are at a higher risk, while others indicate the opposite or no association.

      Unfortunately, having a shingles rash on either the trunk or face is associated with an increased risk of post-herpetic neuralgia, not a reduced risk.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 21-year-old farmer presents to the General Practitioner with a boggy inflamed lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old farmer presents to the General Practitioner with a boggy inflamed lump on the upper central forehead that extends into the hairline. The lump has multiple small pustular areas on the surface and is of recent onset. Additionally, there is hair loss from the affected area of the scalp. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kerion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Kerion: An Inflammatory Mass Caused by Zoophilic Dermatophyte Fungal Infection

      Kerion is a rare form of tinea infection that results in an inflammatory mass caused by a zoophilic dermatophyte fungal infection. Unlike the more common anthropophilic dermatophytes that produce a mild, chronic inflammation, zoophilic dermatophytes of animal origin produce an intense inflammatory response. The scalp is most commonly affected by zoophilic organisms such as Microsporum canis from domestic pets or Trichophyton verrucosum from cattle and horses.

      Kerion is often misdiagnosed as a bacterial infection, and failure to diagnose it early can result in permanent alopecia in the affected areas. Symptoms may include enlarged regional lymph nodes, fever, and malaise. Definitive diagnosis is made by isolating the fungus from culture of hair and scalp scales, but fungal culture is often negative due to the difficulty in isolating the fungus. In such cases, treatment may be initiated based on clinical suspicion.

      Treatment for kerion involves oral antifungal agents such as terbinafine, itraconazole, or griseofulvin for at least six to eight weeks. Antibiotics may also be needed if there is a bacterial infection present. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for kerion is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this uncommon fungal infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old man has a red lesion that has grown rapidly on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man has a red lesion that has grown rapidly on the pulp of the left first finger and bleeds easily. There was a history of trauma to that digit 2 weeks previously. Examination showed a pedunculated vascular lesion measuring 10 mm in diameter.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Rapidly Growing Tumor Following Trauma: Pyogenic Granuloma

      A rapidly growing tumor following trauma is most likely a pyogenic granuloma. While amelanotic melanoma can occur on the digits, the rate of growth would not be as rapid. The other lesions in the options are not vascular in appearance. Treatment for pyogenic granuloma would be a shave biopsy and cautery to the base, as excision biopsy may be difficult. A specimen can be sent for histology to ensure it is not an amelanotic melanoma. Recurrence is common and lesions will eventually atrophy, but only a minority will spontaneously involute within six months. A GP minor surgeon can deal with pyogenic granuloma.

      Another condition that may occur at the base of the nail is a myxoid cyst. This small cyst contains a gelatinous clear material that may be extruded from time to time. Pressure on the growing nail plate may produce nail deformity. These cysts may communicate with an osteoarthritic distal interphalangeal joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic with multiple itchy skin lesions on...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic with multiple itchy skin lesions on his arms and trunk. The lesions appear scaly and have a coppery brown color. The doctor suspects pityriasis versicolor. What is the best treatment option for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis versicolor can be treated with ketoconazole shampoo.

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for two weeks to a...

    Incorrect

    • What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for two weeks to a teenager with eczema on the front and back of both hands?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100 g

      Explanation:

      How to Measure and Apply Topical Corticosteroids

      Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat skin conditions such as eczema and psoriasis. It is important to apply them correctly to ensure maximum effectiveness and minimize side effects.

      To apply topical corticosteroids, spread a thin layer over the affected area, making sure to cover it completely. The amount of cream or ointment needed can be measured using a fingertip unit (ftu), which is the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube from the tip of an adult index finger to the first crease. One ftu is approximately 0.5 g and is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand (palm and fingers together).

      For example, to treat both hands for two weeks, 14 g of cream or ointment is needed. If the hands are frequently immersed in water, it may be necessary to apply the cream or ointment twice daily, in which case 15-30 g should be prescribed.

      By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using the correct amount of topical corticosteroids and achieving the best possible results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you notice numerous umbilicated papules all over his face, neck, trunk, and genitals. When squeezed, the lesions release a cheesy substance. Your diagnosis is molluscum contagiosum. What is the most crucial aspect of managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid application

      Explanation:

      Molluscum Contagiosum: Symptoms, Treatment, and Underlying Causes

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by a DNA pox virus. It is characterized by small, dome-shaped papules with a central punctum that may appear umbilicated. Squeezing the lesions can release a cheesy material. While the infection usually resolves on its own within 12-18 months, patients may opt for treatment if they find the rash unsightly. Squeezing the lesions can speed up resolution.

      However, if a patient presents with hundreds of widespread lesions, it is important to investigate any underlying immunodeficiency problems. This may include conditions such as HIV/AIDS. Further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the extensive rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 60-year-old woman presents with multiple flat pustules on the soles of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with multiple flat pustules on the soles of her feet, accompanied by several flat brown lesions. These are scattered on a background of erythema and scaling.
      What would be the most suitable course of action? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Betamethasone ointment

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Palmoplantar Pustulosis

      Palmoplantar pustulosis is a skin condition that is linked to psoriasis and is more common in women over 50. It is characterized by erythematous skin with yellow pustules that settle to form brown macules on the palms and soles of the hands and feet. Here are some treatment options for this condition:

      Betamethasone Ointment: This is a potent topical steroid that is effective in treating palmoplantar pustulosis.

      Calcipotriol + Betamethasone: While the steroid component would be beneficial, calcipotriol is not used to treat palmoplantar pustulosis, which is where the management differs from plaque psoriasis.

      Barrier Cream: A barrier cream is used to create a barrier between the skin and a potential irritant, so is useful in conditions such as contact dermatitis. Palmoplantar pustulosis is not caused by an irritant, so this would not be helpful.

      Flucloxacillin Capsules: There is no indication that this is a bacterial infection, so there would be no role for antibiotics in this patient’s management.

      Terbinafine Cream: A fungal infection would not cause pustules, so there is no indication for using an antifungal treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
    In...

    Incorrect

    • A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
      In what age group is the highest incidence rate per 100,000 population with this type of malignancy in the US?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60-69 years

      Explanation:

      Melanoma Skin Cancer in the UK

      According to Cancer Research UK, melanoma skin cancer is the 5th most common cancer in the UK, accounting for 4% of all new cancer cases. Every year, there are approximately 16,700 new cases of melanoma skin cancer in the UK, which equates to 46 new cases every day.

      Melanoma skin cancer affects both males and females, with around 8,400 new cases reported in each gender annually. The incidence rates for melanoma skin cancer are highest in people aged 85 to 89.

      It is important to be aware of the risks and symptoms of melanoma skin cancer, such as changes in the size, shape, or color of moles or other skin lesions. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of successful treatment and recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - As a salaried GP working in a GP surgery, you recently had a...

    Incorrect

    • As a salaried GP working in a GP surgery, you recently had a consultation with a 75-year-old man who presented with an unsightly left hallux toenail. The nail was thickened and had a yellowish tinge, leading you to suspect a fungal toenail infection. After arranging nail scrapings and sending them off to the laboratory for analysis, the results have returned positive for Trichophyton rubrum. You call the patient to discuss the results and he is eager to know what treatment options are available.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine, taken once daily for 3-6 months

      Explanation:

      Fungal toenail infections caused by Trichophyton rubrum are challenging to treat and require extended courses of oral antifungal medication. Terbinafine is the preferred option and treatment usually lasts for 3-6 months. However, terbinafine can have harmful effects on the liver, so liver function tests should be conducted regularly during treatment. Oral itraconazole is another option, but it is typically used for fungal nail infections caused by yeasts and given as pulsed therapy. Topical creams are not effective for treating fungal toenail infections. In this case, the patient’s asymptomatic fungal toenail doesn’t require urgent surgical removal. A podiatrist referral may be considered if the patient has a high-risk foot or difficulty caring for their nails, but an urgent referral is not necessary.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old man presents with complaints of persistent dandruff and greasy skin. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with complaints of persistent dandruff and greasy skin. He has observed a pink skin lesion with scaling along his hairline and has previously experienced similar symptoms under his eyebrows. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Identifying Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: A Comparison with Other Skin Conditions

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition that produces a scaled rash. However, it can be difficult to distinguish from other skin conditions that also produce scaling lesions. Here, we compare seborrhoeic dermatitis with psoriasis, atopic eczema, folliculitis, and tinea capitis to help identify the key features of each condition.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is characterized by a poorly defined rash, greasy skin, and a specific distribution pattern. Psoriasis, on the other hand, produces well-defined plaques and doesn’t typically involve greasy skin. Atopic eczema produces dry, scaling skin and often affects flexural sites, whereas folliculitis is inflammation of the hair follicles and doesn’t typically involve greasy skin. Tinea capitis, which causes hair loss and scaling of the skin, is less likely in this case as there is no hair loss present.

      By comparing the key features of each condition, it becomes clear that the greasy skin and distribution pattern make seborrhoeic dermatitis the most likely diagnosis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old man inquires about the 'shingles vaccine'. Which of the following statements...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man inquires about the 'shingles vaccine'. Which of the following statements about Zostavax is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is suitable for patients who've had Chickenpox

      Explanation:

      Regardless of whether a person has had Chickenpox or shingles previously, Zostavax should still be administered.

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - How would you characterize an individual with asteatotic eczema? ...

    Incorrect

    • How would you characterize an individual with asteatotic eczema?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An 90-year-old female who has developed cracked fissured skin on her lower legs with a 'crazy-paving' appearance

      Explanation:

      Types of Eczema and Asteatotic Eczema in Elderly Patients

      There are various types of eczema, each with its own unique characteristics and triggers. Atopic eczema is common in children, while pompholyx affects middle-aged women and discoid eczema is more prevalent in older men. Varicose eczema is often seen in individuals with poor circulation, and asteatotic eczema is a common condition in elderly patients.

      Asteatotic eczema is caused by a lack of epidermal lubrication, which can be exacerbated by factors such as over-washing, inadequate soap removal, diuretic use, and dry air with low humidity. This condition is characterized by dry, cracked skin with a crazy-paving appearance. Treatment involves addressing any underlying triggers and using topical emollients and steroids to soothe and moisturize the affected area. With proper care, asteatotic eczema can be effectively managed in elderly patients.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - A 21-year-old man presents with the rapid development of large oval macules on...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents with the rapid development of large oval macules on his trunk. Some of the macules have a little scale on them. He had noticed a single larger lesion that appeared a few days earlier but thought little of it. He is otherwise well.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Skin Conditions: Pityriasis Rosea, Guttate Psoriasis, Drug Eruption, Pityriasis Versicolor, and Viral Exanthema

      Pityriasis rosea is characterized by a larger herald patch followed by a rash on the trunk with pink macules and fine scale. The rash will resolve on its own in 6-12 weeks, but emollients or steroid treatments can help relieve itch. Guttate psoriasis typically presents with small lesions preceded by a sore throat, which is not seen in this scenario. Drug eruption causes a maculopapular rash that begins on the trunk and moves to the extremities, but there is no mention of medication in this case. Pityriasis versicolor causes large macules with fine scale on the trunk, which can become confluent, but this is not seen here. A viral exanthem is usually accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever or malaise, which are absent in this case. Knowing the distinguishing features of these skin conditions can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - A 9-month-old baby boy has a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby boy has a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows a diffuse itchy dermatitis on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles. An older cousin is reported to have a similar itchy rash and he has been playing with him.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions in Infants and Children: A Comparison

      Scabies, Palmoplantar Pustulosis, Atopic Eczema, Tinea Pedis, and Viral Warts are some of the common dermatological conditions that affect infants and children. While they may share some similarities in symptoms, each condition has its unique characteristics that distinguish it from the others.

      Scabies is a highly contagious skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. It is characterized by a widespread, eczematous eruption primarily on the trunk, with the scalp and neck also being affected. In infants, papules and pustules on the palms and soles are common, representing a hypersensitivity reaction to the mite.

      Palmoplantar Pustulosis, on the other hand, is a chronic pustular condition that affects the palms and soles. It presents as crops of sterile pustules that later turn brown, occurring on one or both hands and/or feet. Thickened, scaly, red skin that easily becomes fissured is also a characteristic feature. Smoking is strongly associated with this condition.

      Atopic Eczema is a chronic, itchy dermatitis that commonly presents with an itchy rash on the face in babies. It may become widespread or confined to the flexures. Papules on the soles are not a feature, and a history of contact with a similarly affected relative would not fit this diagnosis.

      Tinea Pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is a fungal infection that affects the feet. It is uncommon in infants and doesn’t usually cause dermatitis on the trunk.

      Finally, Viral Warts are skin lesions associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV). They are not characteristically itchy and would not cause the widespread dermatitis described in this case.

      In conclusion, while these dermatological conditions may share some similarities, a careful examination of the symptoms and history can help distinguish one from the other. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect your child has any of these conditions.

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  • Question 23 - You are evaluating a 5-year-old boy with eczema. Which of the following emollients...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 5-year-old boy with eczema. Which of the following emollients is most likely to cause skin irritation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aqueous cream

      Explanation:

      Aqueous Cream May Cause Skin Irritation, Warns Drug Safety Update

      The use of aqueous cream as an emollient has been widely prescribed in the UK. However, a report published in the March 2013 issue of the Drug Safety Update (DSU) warns that it may cause burning and skin irritation in some patients, particularly children with eczema. The report showed that 56% of patients attending a paediatric dermatology clinic who used aqueous cream as a leave-on emollient reported skin irritation, typically within 20 minutes of application. This compared to 18% of children who used an alternative emollient. Skin irritation was not seen in patients using aqueous cream as a soap substitute. It is believed that the high sodium lauryl sulfate content in aqueous cream may be the cause of the irritation. The DSU doesn’t suggest that aqueous cream should not be prescribed, but advises that patients and parents should be warned about possible side-effects. It is recommended to routinely prescribe alternative emollients.

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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with scabies after presenting with itchy lesions...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with scabies after presenting with itchy lesions on his hands. As part of the treatment plan, it is important to advise him to apply permethrin 5% cream as directed. Additionally, he should be reminded to treat all members of his household and wash all bedding and clothes in hot water. What instructions should be given regarding the application of the cream?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All skin including scalp + leave for 12 hours + repeat in 7 days

      Explanation:

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

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  • Question 25 - A 56-year-old woman presents with a rash on her face. She reports having...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents with a rash on her face. She reports having a facial rash with flushing for a few weeks. Upon examination, there is a papulopustular rash with telangiectasia on both cheeks and nose. What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the potential complication associated with it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that results in long-term facial flushing, erythema, telangiectasia, pustules, papules, and rhinophyma. It can also impact the eyes, leading to blepharitis, keratitis, and conjunctivitis. Treatment options include topical antibiotics such as metronidazole gel or oral tetracycline, particularly if there are ocular symptoms.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

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  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of weight loss, fatigue,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of weight loss, fatigue, and skin changes under his arms. During the examination, you notice thickened dark pigmented areas of skin under both arms. What underlying condition is typically linked to this clinical sign?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma stomach

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acanthosis Nigricans

      Acanthosis nigricans (AN) is a skin condition that is characterized by darkening and thickening of the skin in certain areas such as the armpits, groin, and back of the neck. However, it is not a skin disease in itself but rather a sign of an underlying condition or disease. In some cases, AN can be a paraneoplastic syndrome, commonly known as acanthosis nigricans maligna, which is associated with an internal malignancy, particularly adenocarcinoma of the gastrointestinal tract or uterus. AN is more commonly seen in individuals over the age of 40 and is often linked to obesity and insulin resistance.

      It is important to note that AN of the oral mucosa or tongue is highly suggestive of a neoplasm, particularly of the gastrointestinal tract.

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  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of 'pale skin' on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine.

      What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.

      Understanding Vitiligo

      Vitiligo is a medical condition that occurs when the immune system attacks and destroys melanocytes, leading to the loss of skin pigmentation. It is estimated to affect about 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing in individuals between the ages of 20 and 30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the edges of the affected areas being the most prominent. Trauma to the skin may also trigger the development of new lesions, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While there is no cure for vitiligo, there are several management options available. These include the use of sunblock to protect the affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up to conceal the depigmented patches, and topical corticosteroids to reverse the changes if applied early. Other treatment options may include topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution is advised when using these treatments on patients with light skin. Overall, early diagnosis and management of vitiligo can help to improve the quality of life for affected individuals.

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  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old man comes to you with a bothersome skin rash. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to you with a bothersome skin rash. He has been experiencing this for a few weeks now and has not found relief with an emollient cream. The itching is described as 'severe' and has caused him difficulty sleeping. Upon examination, you observe a mixture of papules and vesicles on his buttocks and the extensor surface of his knees and elbows. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disorder that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.

      To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is performed, and direct immunofluorescence is used to show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis.

      The management of dermatitis herpetiformis involves a gluten-free diet and the use of dapsone. By adhering to a gluten-free diet, patients can reduce the severity of their symptoms and prevent further damage to their skin. Dapsone is a medication that can help to alleviate the symptoms of dermatitis herpetiformis by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system.

      In summary, dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disorder that is associated with coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions and can be managed through a gluten-free diet and the use of dapsone.

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  • Question 29 - A 48-year-old woman has a hard, smooth nodule on the right lower leg,...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman has a hard, smooth nodule on the right lower leg, measuring 0.5 cm in diameter. She first noticed it several months ago, and since then it has not changed. When the lesion is pinched between the fingers, it dimples inwards. The lesion is light brown, with regular pigmentation.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatofibroma

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Different Skin Lesions: Dermatofibroma, Malignant Melanoma, Seborrhoeic Keratosis, Cutaneous Metastasis, and Actinic Keratosis

      When it comes to skin lesions, it’s important to distinguish between different types to determine the appropriate treatment. One such lesion is a dermatofibroma, which is a benign growth that often appears on the limbs of women. A key feature of a dermatofibroma is the dimpling that occurs when the skin is pinched, due to the fibrous tissue underneath.

      On the other hand, malignant melanoma is less likely to be the cause of a skin lesion if it has regular pigmentation, hasn’t changed in several months, and has dimpling – all features of a dermatofibroma. Seborrhoeic keratosis, another type of skin lesion, has a rough, stuck-on appearance that doesn’t match the description of a dermatofibroma.

      A cutaneous metastasis, which is a skin lesion that results from cancer spreading from another part of the body, typically presents as a rapidly growing nodule. This is different from a dermatofibroma, which is relatively static. Similarly, an actinic keratosis, a flat lesion with a fine scale, is unlikely to be the diagnosis for a nodular lesion like a dermatofibroma.

      In summary, understanding the characteristics of different skin lesions can help in accurately identifying and treating them.

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  • Question 30 - What is the recommendation for the use of tacrolimus and pimecrolimus in atopic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommendation for the use of tacrolimus and pimecrolimus in atopic eczema according to NICE guidance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First line treatment for moderate to severe eczema in the over twos, where there is a risk of serious corticosteroid side effects

      Explanation:

      Second-Line Treatment for Moderate to Severe Eczema in Children

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects many children. Steroids are often used as a first-line treatment, but in cases where they are not effective, a second-line treatment may be necessary. One such treatment is recommended for children over 2-years-old with moderate to severe eczema. This treatment should not be used as a first-line option, but rather as a second-line option when steroids are not controlling the condition. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case of eczema. By following this recommendation, children with moderate to severe eczema can receive effective treatment and relief from their symptoms.

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